Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology, oncology > Breast cancer 2 > Flashcards

Breast cancer 2 Flashcards

1
Q

biopsy type for breast mass

A

core needle biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HER2 scoring system

A

0 to 1+ = “HER2 negative.”
2+ = “borderline,” requiring FISH
3+ = “HER2 positive.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Classic features of cancerous breast lesion on exam

A

Hard + immobile + irregular borders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Skin findings that suggest inflammatory breast cancer

A

Erythema, thickening, or dimpling of overlying skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Classic mammography findings of breast cancer

A

Soft tissue mass or density + grouped micro calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MRI features of breast cancer

A

Irregular or spiculated mass + heterogeneous internal enhancement + enhancing internal septa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Other malignancies that can occur in the breast outside of breast cancer

A

(think about other tissue types in the breast)

  • breast sarcoma
  • paget disease
  • phyllodes tumors
  • lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Definition of ER-positivity

A

IHC for ER and PR in more than 1% of tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition of multifocal and multicentric disease

A 
Multifocal = several areas within a single quadrant (so prob represents disease along an entire duct)
Multicentric = multiple areas within different quadrants (so disease prob involves multiple ducts)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

notation of clinical stage

A 
cTNM = clinical stage
pTNM = pathologic stage
ypTNM = final pathologic stage after undergoing NAC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Test characteristics of physical exam for lymph node staging + why

A

Poor NPV (metastatic lymph nodes are often not palpable and reactive lymph nodes may be mistaken for mets)

  • PPV = 61-84%
  • NPV = 50-60%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tamoxifen mechanism

A

SERM – selective estrogen receptor modulator

- Mixed ER antagonistic and agonistic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Palbociclib/ribociclib/abemaciclib mechanism

A

CDK 4/6 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Targeted therapies for metastatic breast cancer?

A
  • CDK 4/6 inhibitors
  • PI3K
  • mTOR
  • EGFR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

First line *regimens for HER2-negative, hormone receptor positive Stage IV BC

A

Endocrine therapy + targeted therapy typically
AI + CDK4/6 inhibitor
OR
Fulvestrant + CDK4/6 inhibitor
OR
Selective ER down-regulator + non-steroidal AI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lapatinib mechanism

A

TKI of HER2 and EGFR pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Axillary imaging modality

A

US or MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Workup of stage IV disease

A
  • Chest CT/abdomen/pelvis with contrast
  • IF CNS symptoms – brain MRI
  • IF back pain or cord compression symptoms – spine MRI
    ER/PR/HER2 status of metastatic tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Definition of visceral crisis in breast cancer

A

Severe organ dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Preferred regimen for hormone receptor negative, HER2 positive stage IV

A

pertuzumab + trastuzumab + taxane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

median overall survival of metastatic breast cancer

A

??

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2 major phenotypes in metastatic breast cancer

A

1) Visceral metastases (aggressive phenotype)

2) Bone metastases (indolent phenotype)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of stage IV hormone receptor positive, HER2 negative BC

A

Initial treatment with endocrine therapy, unless visceral crisis, in which case chemo is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tumor markers that can be trended for response assessment in MBC (if elevated)?

A

CA 15-3
CA 27.29
CEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the standardized criteria for determining response to therapy in solid tumors called?

A

Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Management of AI-induced arthralgia

A

Switch to a different AI, if persistent, then start tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Receptor status of most BRCA 1 tumors

A

Triple negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Receptor status of most BRCA 2 tumors

A

ER+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

who needs genetic testing per NCCN

A

1) triple negative BC
2) male
3) Younger than age 45
4) over 51 + close relative with breast, ovarian, pancreatic cancer
5) some other indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Adjuvant for ER+ with negative surgical margins

A

???

- no indication for tamoxifen (no remaining breast tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Margin size to be considered negative for DCIS

A

2 mm (optimal surgical margin for DCIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Indications for post mastectomy radiation

A

More than 3 lymph nodes involved OR involved margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

First step following disease progression

A

ALWAYS BIOPSY (receptor status can change)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TDM drug type

A

HER2 ADC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Problem with breast MRI

A

high false positive rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Surveillance modality

A

Mammography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Management points for localized breast cancer arising from radiation from previous treatment (Eg hodgkin’s)

A
  • can’t reirradiate
  • so have to do mastectomy (lumpectomy requires RT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Relative contraindications to RT for breast cancer

A
  • SLE

- scleroderma and other - connective tissue disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

negative margins broadly speaking with lumpectomy or mastectomy

A

*Unlike DCIS, you don’t need 2 mm of negative margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

No ink on tumors means

A

negative margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Management of HER2+ via IHC

A

FISH testing (HER2 is intermediate so you need confirmatory testing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Management of ER/PR positive BC after mastectomy in old patient who values quality of life + intermediate oncotype

A

Anastrozole, no chemo (noninferior in trials to chemo in terms of disease free survival and OS at 9 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When oncotype 21 is used

A

ER/PR positive AND node negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Indications for RT in breast cancer

A 
>5cm
T4 disease
Inflammatory breast cancer
nodal involvement 
positive margins after mastectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Breast cancer management in pregnant woman

A
  • Radiation is contraindicated
  • Can give chemo during second trimester
  • Can’t give tamoxifen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

To know about workup in pregnant women

A

Blue dye is contraindicated during SLNB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ER/PR positive management in men after mastectomy

A

Tamoxifen (you can’t given an AI because it won’t inhibit testicular production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Most common phenotype

A

ER+ (70-80% of breast cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the goal of neoadjuvant systemic therapy?

A

Treat occult micrometastatic disease + surgical minimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why is neoadjuvant chemo important?

A

Surgical minimization (50% of people with node positive disease will be converted to node negative, therefore won’t need axillary dissection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Why is neoadjuvant endocrine therapy not standard?

A

Can reduce tumor size, but pCR is rare so it’s not standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Management of triple negative residual disease

A

chemo escalation (add capecitabine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Therapy with more activity for ER+, HER2- negative

A
  • Endocrine therapy has a greater impact than chemo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Neoadjuvant chemo for ER+, HER2-?

A

Less commonly used since pCR is rare (hence little surgical benefit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the prognostic genomic assays available?

A
  • oncotype
  • mammaprint
  • prosigna
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the point of oncotype?

A
  • ER+ derives more benefit from endocrine therapy. Oncotype predicts recurrence + response to chemo, so it is used to determine patients that will benefit and those who derive minimal benefit from chemo and for whom toxicity outweighs benefit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Supportive care for hair loss

A
  • cold caps or scalp cooling device (highly effective in 50-60% of women)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Definition of hormone receptor positive

A

ER or PR greater than 1% on IHC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Management of vaginal dryness from AI’s

A

topical moisturizers/lubricants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Main reason for discontinuation of AI’s

A

MSK symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Phenotype in which late relapse is more commonly seen?

A

ER+, seldomly seen in ER-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When to extend adjuvant endocrine therapy after 5 years?

A
  • Stage 3 and many Stage 2
  • Stage 1 on an individual basis and considering secondary prevention
    • patient has tolerated treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How long do you extend endocrine therapy?

A

Typically not longer than 10 years total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How long is trastuzumab given?

A

1 year (duration given in trial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Adjuvant treatment of hormone receptor positive breast cancer

A
  • Leuprolide + aromatase inhibitor (exemestane) (ovarian suppression + an aromatase inhibitor has been shown to have a survival benefit over ovarian suppression alone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When is breast cancer screening recommended after chest wall radiation?

A

25 or 8 years after completion of radiation therapy, whichever is last
*correct answer
*MRI before 30, only start mammograms at age 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Management of woman requiring chemo who wants to preserve fertility

A

Delay chemo until patient can meet with fertility specialist

68
Q

Fulvestrant generic name

A

Faslodex

69
Q

Role for fulvestrant

A
  • HR+ metastatic breast cancer with disease progression

- HR+, HER2 negative advanced BC in combination with palbociclib

70
Q

Denosumab mechanism of action

A

RANKL inhibitor

71
Q

atezolizumab indication

A

Stage IV, PD-L1 expression greater than 1%

72
Q

Diagnosis of inflammatory breast cancer

A

CLINICAL (dermal lymphatic involvement not needed)

- erythema and edema of more than a third of the breast

73
Q

Clinical course of inflammatory breast cancer

A
  • very aggressive, rapidly proliferates
74
Q

First step in management of inflammatory BC

A
  • Neoadjuvant chemo (athracyclines and taxanes)
75
Q

Why you can’t give AI’s in male breast cancer

A
  • won’t inhibit testicular estrogen production
76
Q

adjuvant hormonal treatment of early stage favorable histology BC

A

consider/offer adjuvant tamoxifen or AI

77
Q

What are the favorable histology breast cancers?

A
  • papillary
  • tubular
  • mucinous
78
Q

Phyllodes tumor management

A

Primary surgery: Wide excision of the tumor (greater than 1), no axilla staging needed (no lymphatic spread)

79
Q

Stage IV HER2+, ER+ treatment

A

Triplet therapy – docetaxel + trastuzumab + pertuzumab

  • then typically drop docetaxel, and transition to hormonal therapy
  • HER2 therapy markedly improves outcomes
  • Currently unclear as to whether it is better to use HER2-directed therapy + chemo vs. endocrine therapy first-line
80
Q

Oncotype testing is only indicated

A

ER+ AND *HER2 negative AND node negative

81
Q

Stage IV management of ER+/HER2 -

A

IF no visceral crises –> initial anti estrogen therapy with letrozole +

82
Q

letrozole mechanism

A

AI

83
Q

SE to know about with CDK4/6 inhibitors

A

neutropenia

84
Q

Treatment of patient with residual invasive breast cancer after NAC plus HER2+ targeted therapy

A

TDM-1

85
Q

Adjuvant treatment of triple negative early stage

A

IF less than 0.5 cm – no adjuvant chemo

IF greater than 1 cm – adjuvant chemo

86
Q

Utility of MRI for screening

A
  • Reserved for those at high risk (Known BRCA carriers, first degree relatives of BRCA carriers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, a few others)
  • Per ASCO – Not indicated for dense breasts on exam
87
Q

leuprolide MOA

A
  • GNRH agonist (thus inhibits gonadotrope secretion of LH and fFSH, subsequently suppresses gonadal sex steroid production) (this is why used in both breast and prostate)
88
Q

Treatment of cold agglutinin disease

A
  • Cold avoidance

- rituximab

89
Q

Treatment of early stage laryngeal cancer

A

RT alone

90
Q

Why do you test for RAS in metastatic CRC?

A

Candidacy for EGFR inhibitors (cetuximab or panitumumab)

91
Q

Palbociclib mechanism

A

CDK4, CDK6 inhibitor

92
Q

Patients who need NAC

A

1) IBC
2) bulky or matted cN2 axillary nodes (cN3, CT4)
3) HER-2 positive disease
4) TNBC, if cT greater than 2 or cN greater than 1
5) large primary tumor relative to breast size in a patient who desires breast conservation
6) cN+ disease likely to become cN0 with preoperative systemic therapy

93
Q

what are the CDK4/6 inhibitors

A
  • abemaciclib
  • palbociclib
  • ribociclib
94
Q

fulvestrant mechanism

A

SERM (selective ER down-regulator)

95
Q

Regimens for stage IV HER2-positive disease

A
  • pertuzumab + trastuzumab + taxane (docetaxel or paclitaxel)
96
Q

IBC is

A

inflammatory breast cancer

97
Q

Neoadjuvant management of locally advanced endocrine positive BC

A

Chemo rather than neoadjuvant endocrine therapy (associated with higher response rates in a shorter time period)

98
Q

Role for PARP inhibitors in locally advanced

A

Adjuvant for triple negative with residual disease

99
Q

Fulvestrant mechanism vs. tamoxifen or raloxifene

A
  • tamoxifen or raloxifene are SERMS, fulvestrant down-regulates estrogen receptor
100
Q

Why CDK4-6, PIK3CA inhibitors, and mTOR inhibitors are given with estrogen therapy

A
  • trials have shown they mechanistically work in different ways and can enhance benefit of ET aloen
101
Q

Criteria for ER positivity based on IHC

A

0-1% = negative
1-9% = positive BUT may be less likely to be effective
Greater than 10% = positive

102
Q

Drug approved for PIK3CA positive BC

A

alpelisib

103
Q

Taxotere generic name

A

Docetaxel

104
Q

when to extend ET in ER+ breast cancer

A
  • node-positive
  • node-negative patients at higher recurrence risk
  • benefits are modest in lower risk node-negative or limited node-positive cancers, so approach is individualized
105
Q

high risk features of early stage hormone receptor-positive cancers

A
  • high grade
  • large tumor size (greater than 2 cm)
  • nodal involvement
  • high 21-gene recurrence score
106
Q

prognostic factors for recurrence after 5 years of ET

A
  • nodal status
  • tumor size
  • higher grade
  • low levels of ER expression
  • higher score on genomic assays
107
Q

Margin required for DCIS

A

2 mm

108
Q

Typical recurrence pattern of ER positive

A
  • often bone recurrence
109
Q

Late recurrence in breast cancer?

A
  • not uncommon
110
Q

Tumor type that develops as secondary malignancy from radiation

A
  • sarcoma
111
Q

extension of endocrine therapy has been shown to be beneficial in what disease state?

A

locally advanced

112
Q

Benefit of tamoxifen for DCIS

A

Reduces ipsilateral recurrence risk, no OS benefit

113
Q

First line for stage IV hormone AND HER2 positive

A

Taxane + pertuzumab + trastuzumab
*no endocrine therapy

114
Q

CPS warranting addition of pembro to NAC in triple negative BC

A

None, irrespective in trial
*CPS greater than 10 in setting of metastatic disease

115
Q

IBC diagnosis

A

Clinical
*negative skin biopsy does not rule it out

116
Q

Inflammatory breast cancer management

A

NAC
Mastectomy w/ axillary lymph node dissection
Adjuvant radiation therapy

117
Q

management of adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

Local therapy alone (surgery)
No adjuvant chemo

118
Q

Adjuvant management of hormone receptor positive tumor with high Ki-67 (greater than 20%)

A

AI + abemaciclib

119
Q

Third line regimens for HER2+

A

T-DM1 (very well tolerated. Used to be standard second line) (EMILIA trial – OS 30.9 months)
Given brain mets, tucatinib/capecitabine/trastuzumab (HER2 climb)

120
Q

DCIS primary management

A

BCS (lumpectomy with radiation) vs. mastectomy

121
Q

First line for triple negative MBC management

A

single agent chemotherapy – docetaxel, platinum, capecitabine

122
Q

Management of locoregionally recurrent triple negative breast cancer

A

NAC + surgery

123
Q

Common toxicity seen with pertuzumab

A

Diarrhea

124
Q

Common cause of diarrhea after chemotherapy

A

Bacterial overgrowth

125
Q

Benefit of adjuvant radiation and endocrine therapy for DCIS

A

Reduced recurrence risk, NO proven survival benefit

126
Q

BI-RADS scores

A

1-2 = normal or benign
3 = probable benign
4 = suspicious for malignancy
5 = highly suggestive of malignancy

127
Q

Staging of newly diagnosed breast cancer

A

Given absence of cough or hemoptysis on ROS and pulmonary exam within normal limits, no indication for CT abdomen/pelvis w/ contrast
Given LFT’s and alk phos within normal limits and absence of abdominal pain per ROS, no indication for CT abdomen/pelvis w/ contrast
Given ROS negative for bone pain and alkaline phosphatase within normal limits, no indication for bone scan
Stage IIIA or higher OR inflammatory:
Cross sectional imaging (CT C/A/P w/ contrast)
Bone scan (inpatient) vs. PET/CT (outpateint) (Preferred but limits of sensitivity as may miss very small mets)

128
Q

Management of hormone receptor positive MBC in premenopausal woman

A

ovarian suppression + AI + CDK4/6 inhibitor

129
Q

Contraindication to aromatase inhibitor

A

osteoporosis

130
Q

contraindications to tamoxifen

A
  • history of CVA
  • fluoxetine use
131
Q

Second line for hormone receptor positive MBC without PIK3CA

A

single-agent endocrine therapy, everolimus with endocrine therapy, or chemotherapy.

132
Q

Evidence for tamoxifen for breast cancer chemoprevention

A
  • reduces incidence of invasive breast cancer by 30%
  • reduces fractures by 34%
  • NO effect on mortality
133
Q

Adjuvant for triple negative with residual disease

A

Capecitabine

134
Q

T3 disease

A

Tumor greater than 5cm in greatest dimension

135
Q

T4 disease

A

Tumor with extension to chest wall and or skin (ulceration or macroscopic skin nodules(

136
Q

cN1 disease

A

Met to movable ipsilateral level I or II axillary lymph nodes

137
Q

cN2 disease

A

Met to ipsilateral level I or II axillary lymph nodes that are clinically fixed or matted

138
Q

cN3 disease

A

Metastases in ipsilateral infraclavicular (level III axillary) lymph node(s) with or without level I, II axillary lymph node involvement; or in ipsilateral internal mammary lymph node(s) with clinically evident level I, II axillary lymph node metastases; or metastases in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node(s) with or without axillary or internal mammary lymph node involvement.

139
Q

pN1 disease

A

Micrometastases, or metastases in one to three axillary lymph nodes, and/or clinically negative internal mammary nodes with micro- or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy.

140
Q

pN2 disease

A

Metastases in four to nine axillary lymph nodes, or positive ipsilateral internal mammary lymph nodes by imaging in the absence of axillary lymph node metastases.

141
Q

pN3 disease

A

Metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes; or in infraclavicular (level III axillary) lymph nodes; or in ipsilateral internal mammary lymph nodes by imaging in the presence of one or more positive level I, II axillary lymph nodes; or in more than three axillary lymph nodes and in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; or in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph nodes.

142
Q

What are the luminal subtypes?

A

Histologic subtype associated with hormone receptor positive

143
Q

Breast sarcoma subtype associated with radiation

A

Radiation-induced angiosarcoma

144
Q

What is ovarian suppression?

A

Either GNRH agonist OR oophorectomy

145
Q

Systemic therapy you can’t give in second and third trimester

A

HER-2 targeted drugs (oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, skeletal abormalities, neonatal death)

146
Q

CDK4-6 inhibitor that requires ECG monitoring

A

ribociclib

147
Q

Second line preferred for metastatic triple negative

A

sacituzumab

148
Q

ADH management

A

Surgical excision (exclude malignancy, excisional biopsy can diagnose DCIS or invasive carcinoma in around 30% of cases)

149
Q

Management of locally advanced triple negative with pathCR

A

Surveillance (even including BRCA patients)

150
Q

CDK4/6 inhibitor with highest rate of neutropenia + QTc prolongation

A

Palbociclib

151
Q

Calcifications good or bad on imaging in breast?

A

bad

152
Q

Role for PARP inhibitors in metastatic disease for BRCA mutant patients

A

second line

153
Q

When are PARP inhibitors indicated adjuvantly

A

High risk (Node positive or T2 TNBC)

154
Q

Drug used to treat hot flashes for breast cancer patients

A

oxybutynin

155
Q

Adjuvant for HER2+, node negative

A

Taxol-trastuzumab

156
Q

When is TCHP used for HER2+?

A

Larger tumors or Node positive

157
Q

Firstline regimens for metastatic triple negative PDL1+

A

pembro + gem-carbo or taxane

158
Q

BRCA mutation associated with male breast cancer

A

BRCA2 ,

159
Q

IBC histologically

A

Clinical diagnosis based on skin findings. Still have tumor that is invasive ductal histology

160
Q

NAC for inflammatory breast cancer

A

anthracycline and taxane based regimen

161
Q

Screening interval and modality for high risk patients

A

annual mammogram + breast MRI

162
Q

first line for metastatic HER2+

A

Trastuzumab + pertuzumab + taxane (docetaxel)

163
Q

adjuvant for BRCA mutant TNBC with residual disease

A

Olaparib (NOT capecitabine)

164
Q

Pathologic staging in hormone receptor includes

A

Oncotype

165
Q

When continuation of endocrine therapy is needed to 10 years

A

high-risk, node positive disease

166
Q

Management of papilloma

A

Surgical excision (commonly copresent with other premalignant features (ADH, DCIS) so need to cut out)

167
Q

Adjuvant management of HER2 with path CR

A

continue trastuzumab with pertuzumab (Dual HER2 blockade) for total 1 year

Hematology, oncology (218 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions