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ACDS > DVPSYQUALIFYING > Flashcards

DVPSYQUALIFYING Flashcards

1
Q
  • is the scientific study of systematic processes of change and stability in all domains, or aspects of development and throughout all periods of the life span
  • study of age related changes in behavior, thinking, emotion and personality
A

Developmental Psychology

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2
Q
  • the pattern of movement or change that begins from conception to and continues throughout the life span.
A

Development

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3
Q

DOMAINS OF DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY
- changes in an individual’s physical nature

A

Biological Domain

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4
Q

DOMAINS OF DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY
- changes in thought, intelligence, and language

A

Cognitive Domain

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5
Q

DOMAINS OF DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY
- Changes in relationship with other people, emotions, and personality

A

Socioemotional domain

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6
Q

PRINCIPLES OF THE LIFESPAN PERSPECTIVE APPROACH
womb to womb

A

Lifelong -

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7
Q

PRINCIPLES OF THE LIFESPAN PERSPECTIVE APPROACH
complex interaction of biological, cognitive, and socioemotional changes influence

A

Multidimensional -

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8
Q

PRINCIPLES OF THE LIFESPAN PERSPECTIVE APPROACH
- some dimensions expand, others shrink (gain-stability loss model)

A

Multidirectional

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9
Q

PRINCIPLES OF THE LIFESPAN PERSPECTIVE APPROACH
- capacity of change (characteristics are malleable)

A

Plastic/Plasticity

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10
Q

PRINCIPLES OF THE LIFESPAN PERSPECTIVE APPROACH
- Development occurs within a contextual or socio-cultural influences

A

Contextual

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11
Q

PRINCIPLES OF THE LIFESPAN PERSPECTIVE APPROACH
- Mastery of life is regulating three goals of human development: 1 - growth, 2 - maintenance, 3 - regulation of loss.

A

Developmental involves changing resources allocations

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12
Q

PRINCIPLES OF THE LIFESPAN PERSPECTIVE APPROACH
- across different fields of study

A

Multidisciplinary

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13
Q
  • biological inheritance
  • an evolutionary and genetic foundation produces commonalities in growth and development
A

Nature

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14
Q
  • environmental factors/experiences (e.g. parents, peers, and culture)
A

Nurture

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15
Q
  • development reflects an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between genes and the environment
A

Interactionist Perspective (epigenetic view)

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16
Q
  • groupings, based on roles, privileges , and responsibilities
A

Age grade

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17
Q

3 TYPES OF CONTEXTS
- changes that occur in a particular age groups/social clock/rites of passage

A

Normative age graded influences / Age norms

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18
Q

3 TYPES OF CONTEXTS
- changes that occur in a particular generation

A

Normative history-graded/ Historical context

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19
Q
  • a group of people who experience the event at a formative time in their lives
A

Historical generation

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20
Q
  • a group of people born at about the same time.
A

Cohort

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21
Q

3 TYPES OF CONTEXTS
- unusual occurrences that have a major influence on an individual.

A

Non-normative / highly individualized life events

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22
Q

Is development active or reactive?
development is shaped by environment input..
Forerunner: John Locke’s tabula rasa-blank slate.

A

Reactive (Mechanistic model ) -

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23
Q

Is development active or reactive?
- organisms set their own development in motion
Forerunner: Jean Jacques Rousseau

A

Active (Organismic model)

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24
Q

Is development continuous or discontinuous?
- gradual and incremental: Quantitative change

A

Continuous

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25
Q

Is development continuous or discontinuous?
- abrupt or uneven: qualitative change: stage oriented

A

Discontinuous

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26
Q

What theory?

  • developement is shaped by unconscious forces (sex and aggression)
  • provinces of the mind/structure of personality: Id, ego, and superego
  • “the child is the father of the man” our experiences in the first 6 years of life is critical in personality development.
  • children progress through a series of developmental stages and the child’s experiences during on each stage determine adult personality characteristics
A

Psychosexual Development theory (Psychoanalytic perspective/sigmund freud)

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27
Q

What theory?

  • Each stage of_____ consists of interaction of opposites
  • each stage is marked by a conflict between syntonic (harmonious) element and dystonic (disruptive) element.
  • these conflicts are capable of producing basic/ ego strength. If there is too little ego strength at any one stage, it can lead to core pathology for that stage.
  • elevated social factors which makes his theory more flexible as compared to Freud’s psychosexual development.
A

Psychosocial theory (Erik Erikson/Psychoanalytic theory)

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28
Q
  • development results from learning due to environmental influence
    ___ theorists make the study of human development more scientific since the focus is on observable behavior
A

Learning perspective

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29
Q

What theory?

  • the use of consequences to form or modify the occurrences of behavior
A

Operant conditioning (learning perspective/B.F. skinner)

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30
Q

FOUR PROCEDURES OF OPERANT CONDITIONING
- increase likelihood of behavior by providing favorable stimulus

A

Positive reinforcement

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31
Q

FOUR PROCEDURES OF OPERANT CONDITIONING
- increase likelihood by removing unfavorable stimulus

A

Negative reinforcement

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32
Q

FOUR PROCEDURES OF OPERANT CONDITIONING
-decrease likelihood of behavior by providing unfavorable stimulus

A

Positive punishment

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33
Q

FOUR PROCEDURES OF OPERANT CONDITIONING
- decrease likelihood of behavior by removing favorable stimulus

A

Negative punishment

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34
Q
  • a rule that states under what conditions a reinforcer will be delivered (mentioned by B.F. skinner)
A

Reinforcement schedule

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35
Q
  • occurs when reinforcement is given after every single desired behavior
A

Continuous

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36
Q
  • occurs when reinforcement is given after some behavior but never after each one
A

Intermittent

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37
Q
  • a fixed number of responses must be made before the reward is administered
A

Fixed ratio

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38
Q
  • the number of responses determines the delivery of reinforcement but the ratio changes from reinforcement to reinforcement. Slot machines are set to pay-off according to this: Keeps people coming back and guessing the next pay-off will be
A

Variable ratio

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39
Q
  • reinforcement will be delivered after a specific passage of time
A

Fixed Interval

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40
Q
  • the length of time is varied or unspecified before the delivery of the the reinforcement.
A

Variable interval

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41
Q

What theory?

  • process in which an unconditioned stimulus is repeatedly paired with a conditioned stimulus until the conditioned stimulus comes to elicit a response without the presentation of the unconditioned stimulus.
A

Classical conditioning (learning perspective/ivan pavlov)

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42
Q

CONCEPTS IN CLASSICAL CONDITIONING
- process of weakening or eliminating a conditioned response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

A

Extinction

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43
Q

CONCEPTS IN CLASSICAL CONDITIONING
- reappearance of a previously extinguished conditioned response after a period of rest or time has passed.

A

Spontaneous recovery

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44
Q

CONCEPTS IN CLASSICAL CONDITIONING
- tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus, not just the exact stimulus that was originally paired with the unconditioned stimulus

A

Generalization

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45
Q

CONCEPTS IN CLASSICAL CONDITIONING
- ability to differentiate between similar stimuli and respond only to the specific conditioned stimulus that was paired with the unconditioned stimulus

A

Discrimination

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46
Q

What theory?

-the outstanding characteristic of humans is plasticity
- people have the capacity to regulate their lives through the triadic reciprocal causation mode (environment, person, behavior)
- takes an agentic perspective
- people regulat heir conduct through both external and internal factors
- people regulat their behavior through moral agency

A

Social learning/Social cognitive theory (albert bandura/learning perspective)

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47
Q
  • it is a learning by observing and imitating models
  • the hear of this is “modeling”

3 Principles of modeling
1) People are most likely to model high-status people
2) People who lack skill or stats are most likely to model
3) People tend to model behavior that they see as being rewarding to the model.

A

Observational learning

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48
Q

SLT MODELING PROCESS
- we must first pay attention to the model

A

Attention

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49
Q

SLT MODELING PROCESS
- we must be able to remember the observed behavior

A

Retention

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50
Q

SLT MODELING PROCESS
- we must be able to replicated the behavior demonstrated

A

Reproduction

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51
Q

SLT MODELING PROCESS
- we must be motivated to demonstrate what we have learned

A

Motivation

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52
Q

What theory?

  • children’s intelligence undergoes changes as they grow.
  • This theory is regarded as cornerstone in the field of developmental psychology
A

Cognitive Development theory (cognitive perspective/jean piaget)

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53
Q

Cognitive growth occurs through 3 processes (Cognitive development theory
- creating categories

A

Organization

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54
Q

Cognitive growth occurs through 3 processes (Cognitive development theory
- handling new information in light of what they already know.
Assimilation - taking in new information in light of what they already know.
Accommodation - adjusting one’s cognitive structures to fit the new information.

A

Adaptation

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55
Q

Cognitive growth occurs through 3 processes (Cognitive development theory
- balancing cognitive structures and new experiences

A

Equilibration -

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56
Q

What theory?

-social and cultural processes guide children’s cognitive development
- cognitive growth is a collaborative process
- people learn through social interaction

A

Sociocultural theory (Lev Vygotsky/cognitive perspective)

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57
Q

Sociocultural theory (Lev Vygotsky/cognitive perspective)
- where the learner is right now

A

zone of achieved development

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58
Q

Sociocultural theory (Lev vygotsky/cognititve perspective)
- what needs to be done to take the learner where they need to be

A

zone of proximal development

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59
Q

Sociocultural theory (Lev vygotsky/cognititve perspective)
- temporary support given to a child in doing a task

A

scaffolding

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60
Q

What theory?

  • developing person is embedded in a series of environmental systems
    -these systems influence person’s development
  • bidirectional/reciprocal influence
A

Bioecological theory (contextual perspective/urie bronfenbrenner)

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61
Q

Environmental systems (Bioecological theory)
- immediate physical and social environment/every day environment of home, school, work, etc.

A

Microsystem

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62
Q

Environmental systems (Bioecological theory)
- interrelationships between two or more microsystems

A

Mesosystem

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63
Q

Environmental systems (Bioecological theory)
- social settings that individuals do not experience directly but that can still influence their development

A

Exosystems

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64
Q

Environmental systems (Bioecological theory)
- larger cultural or societal context in which the microsystem, mesosystem, and exosystem are embedded.

A

Macrosystem

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65
Q

Environmental systems (Bioecological theory)
- people and their environments and the relations between the two change over time.

A

Chronosystem

66
Q
  • development can be understood only in its social context
A

Contextual perspective

67
Q

What perspective?

  • behavior is strongly influenced by biology, tied to evolution, and critical or sensitive periods
A

Ethological perspective

68
Q

What theory?

  • instinctive form of learning in which during a critical period in early development, a young animal forms an attachment to the first moving object it sees usually the mother. (is a results of a predisposition toward learning)
A

Imprinting theory (ethological perspective/Konrad Lorenz)

69
Q

Imprinting theory (ethological perspective/Konrad Lorenz)
- the readiness of an organism’s nervous system to acquire certain information during a brief critical period in early life.

A

Predisposition toward learning

70
Q

Imprinting theory (ethological perspective/Konrad Lorenz)
- specific time when a given event’s presence or its absence has a specific impact on development.

A

Critical period

71
Q

What theory?

-importance of early attachment: the first year of life is critical in a child’s social and emotional development

A

Attachment theory (John Bowlby/ethological perspective)

72
Q

Attachment theory (John Bowlby/ethological perspective)
- are mental representations of self, others and relationships which are shaped by early attachment experiences.
-> influence interpretation social interactions and guide their behavior in future relationships.
-> securely attached individuals tend to have more positive and trusting relationships throughout life, while insecurely attached individuals may struggle with forming and maintaining healthy relationships

A

internal working models

73
Q

Attachment theory (John Bowlby/ethological perspective)
extends beyond infancy and childhood throughout their lifespan

-> it recognizes the importance of attachment in adult romantic relationships and parenting, as well as the potential for attachment-related difficulties and interventions in adulthood.

A

Attachment across the life span

74
Q

Attachment theory (John Bowlby/ethological perspective)
- the attachment figure is a “secure base from which a child can explore the world and return for support and comfort

A

Secure base for exploration

75
Q

Bowlby’s three stages of separation anxiety
- when the caregiver is the first out of sight, the infants will cry, resist soothing by other people, and search for their caregiver.

A
  1. Protest Stage
76
Q

Bowlby’s three stages of separation anxiety
- as separation continues infants become quiet, sad, passive, listless, and apathetic.

A
  1. Despair
77
Q

Bowlby’s three stages of separation anxiety
infants become emotionally detached from other people, including their caregiver.

A
  1. Detachment -
78
Q

What theory?

  • He studied how moral reasoning changes as we grow older. He found three levels of moral reasoning each with two stages in it

He used the story of Heinz Dilemma to gather iformaation about the moral reasoning of children

  • according to him it has three levels and six identifiable stages
A

Moral development theory (lawrence kohlberg)

79
Q

Levels of moral development
- based on concept or rewards and punishment
Age: Young children usually before age 9
Stage 1: Focus on self-interest, and punishment to be avoided
Stage 2: The goal of the self is the reward

A
  1. Preconventional
80
Q

Levels of moral development
- Emphasis of social rules - focus on social laws
Age: Older children, adolescent, and some adults
Stage 3: Desire to be pleased and accepted
Stage 4: The decision making is based on law and order

A
  1. Conventional
81
Q

Levels of moral development
- emphasis on moral principle - thinking about morality in a non-personal way- not everything is black and white
Age: Rare with adolescents and few adults
Stage 5: Used abstract reasoning to justify the behavior
Stage 6: Universal and ethical principle

A
  1. Postconventional
82
Q

Development starts at fertilization/conception - the process by which sperm and ovum-the male and female sex cells-combine to create a single cell called a ____

A

zygote

83
Q

Fertilization occurs at the _____

A

fallopian tube

84
Q
  • result of two separate eggs beings fertilized by two different sperm to form two unique individuals
  • results of multiple eggs being released at one time
A

Dizygotic twins (fraternal twins)

85
Q
  • result from the splitting of one fertilized egg and are generally genetically identical
  • the twins can still differ outwardly because of the interaction between genes and environmental influences
A

Monozygotic twins (identical twins)

86
Q

development proceeds from the head to the lower part of the trunk

A

Cephalocaudal principle -

87
Q
  • development proceeds from parts near the center of the body to outer ones
A

Proximodistal principle

88
Q

THREE STAGES OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT/GESTATION PERIOD

Zygote divides, becomes more complex, and is implanted in the walll of the uterus.

  • Within 36 hoursafter fertilization, the zygote enters a period of rapid vell division and duplication (mitosis)
A
  1. Germinal stage (fertilization - 2 weeks)
89
Q

THREE STAGES OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT/GESTATION PERIOD

  • the organs and major boddy systems- respiratory, digestive, and nervous - develop rapidly. This proess is known as organogenesis. This is a critical period, when the ____ is most vulnerable to destructive influences in the prenatal environment.
  • the most severely defective ___ usually do not survive beyond the first trimester, or is the expulsion from the uterus of an embryo or fetus that is unable to survive outside the womb. A miscarriage that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation is generally characterized as a stillbirth.
A
  1. Embryonic Stage (2-8weeks)
90
Q

(smoking, drinking alcohol, and drug use) increase the risk of miscarriage especially later in the pregnancy.

A

Teratogens

91
Q

THREE STAGES OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT/GESTATION PERIOD

  • the appearnce of the first bone cells at about 8 weks signals the beginning of this stage

-right up to birth, “finishing touches” such as fingernails, toenails, and eyelids continue to develop

  • while fetuses do sometiems move in response to touch or pressure, it is highly unlikely they can feel pain before the third semester.
A
  1. Fetal stage (8 weeks-birth)
92
Q

STAGES OF CHILDBIRTH
- the longest, typically lasting 12-14hours for a woman having her first child.
- regular and increasingly frequent uterine contractions (15-20 minutes apart at first)

-Toward the end of the first stage contractics occur every 2-5 minutes

  • this stage lasts until the ___fully open so that the baby can descend into the birth canal.
A
  1. Dilation of the cervix
93
Q

STAGES OF CHILDBIRTH
- Typically lasts up to an hour or two.

-begins when the baby’s head egins to move through the cerbix into the vaginal canal, and it ends when the baby emerges completely from the mother’s body.

-at the end of this stage, the baby is born but is still attached to the placenta in the mother’s body by the umbilical cord.

A
  1. Descent and emergence of the baby
94
Q

STAGES OF CHILDBIRTH
- lasts between 10 minutes and 1 hour
- the placenta and the remainder of the umbilical cord are expelled from the mother.

A
  1. Expulsion of the placenta
95
Q

MEDICAL AND BEHAVIORAL ASSESSMENT
- performeddd 1 minuted after delivery, andd then again 5 minutes after birth

  • 7-10 score: (5 mins. after birth) inddicates that the baby is in good to excellent condition
  • 5-7 score: Baby needs help to establish breathing

-<scores: baby needs immediate lifesaving treatment
-0-3 score: (10,15, and 20 minutes after birth) - increasingly associated with cerebral palsy.

A

The Apgar Scale (Dr. Virginia Apgar)

96
Q

MEDICAL AND BEHAVIORAL ASSESSMENT

-Neurological and behavioral test to measure neonate’s responses to the environment

  • typically involves structured interactions between the examiner and the baby, including face-to-face engagement and gentle handling.
  • it measures the following: 1) Motor organization, 2) Attention and interactive capabilities, 3) Central nervous system instability
A

Neonatal behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS/Bery Brazelton and Kevin Nugent)

97
Q

MEDICAL AND BEHAVIORAL ASSESSMENT

  • Administered to determine the presence of specific disease.

Ex. screening test administered soon aafter birth oten can discover if a child inherits phenylketonuria or PKU. This will lead permanent intellecutal disability unless they are fed a special diet beginning in the first 3-6 weeks of life.

A

Neonatal Screening for Medical conditions

98
Q

What theory?
- a psychological framework that examines the development of identity during adolescence and young adulthood.

A

Identity Status theory (James Marcia)

99
Q
  • is a dynamic process that involves exploration and commitment to various aspects of an individual’s identity, such as values, beliefs, goals, and career choices.
A

Identity formation

100
Q

FOUR IDENTITY STATUSES
- individuals in this status have not yet explored or made commitments to any particular identity domains.

A

Identity Diffusion

101
Q

FOUR IDENTITY STATUSES
- Individuals in this status have made commitments without exploring alternative options.

A

Identity Foreclosure

102
Q

FOUR IDENTITY STATUSES
- individuals in this status are actively exploring different identity options and are in the process of considering various commitments.

A

Identity Moratorium

103
Q

FOUR IDENTITY STATUSES
- individuals in this status have successfully navigated through the exploration phase and have made firm commitments based on personal values, beliefs and goals,

A

Identity Achievement

104
Q
  • Love can be thought of as a triangle with three main dimensions
    1) Passion - is physical and sexual attraction to another.
    2) Intimacy - relates to the emotional feelings of warmth, closeness, and sharing in a relationship.
    3) Commitment - the cognitive appraisal of the relationship and the intent to maintaain the relationship even in the face of problems.
A

Triarchic Theory of Love (Robert J. Sternberg)

105
Q

Triarchic Theory of Love (Robert J. Sternberg)
- if passion is the only ingredient in a relationship (with intimacy and commitment low or absent) Ex: an affair or a fling in which there is little intimacy and even less commitment

A

Infatuation

106
Q

Triarchic Theory of Love (Robert J. Sternberg)
- passion and commitment are present but intimacy is not. Ex: when one person worships another from a distance.

A

Fatuous love

107
Q

Triarchic Theory of Love (Robert J. Sternberg)
- a relationship marked intimacy and commitment but low or lacking in passion. Ex: Couples who have been married for many years

A

Affectionate love

108
Q

Triarchic Theory of Love (Robert J. Sternberg)
- often described as the perfect or complete form of love that many people strive for in their relationships

A

Consummate love

109
Q

Traditional notions of ____
1) End of breathing
2) End of blood pressure
3) Rigor mortis - rigidity of body

A

DEATH

110
Q
  • all electrical activity of the brain has ceased for a specified period of time
  • via flat EEG (electroencephalogram) reading for a specific period of time
    -death of both higher cortical functions and dthe lower brain stem functions
  • note: while high brain functions die, lower brain functions can still continue for a time (ex: heartbeat and respiration)
A

Brain death

111
Q
  • a person is dead when there is no cortical functioning in that person, despite lower brain still functioning
    Note: intelligence and personality are locatedd din the high cortical part of the brain
A

Cortical death policy

112
Q

KUBLER-ROSS’ STAGES OF DYING
- dying person denies that she or he is really going to die

A

1) Denial and isolation

113
Q

KUBLER-ROSS’ STAGES OF DYING
- denial gives way to anger, resentment, rage and envy.

A

2) Anger

114
Q

KUBLER-ROSS’ STAGES OF DYING
- develops the hope that death can somehow be postponed.

A

3) Bargaining

115
Q

KUBLER-ROSS’ STAGES OF DYING
- accept that certainty of her or his death. A period of depression or preparatory grief may appear.

A

4) Depression

116
Q

KUBLER-ROSS’ STAGES OF DYING
- dying person develops a sense of peace, acceptance of her or his fate and in many cases, a desire to be left alone.

A

5) Acceptance

117
Q

PERIODS OF DEVELOPMENT
Is a developmental period from birth to 18 to 24 months. ____ is a time of extreme dependence upon adults. Toddler is often used to describe a child from about 1 1/2 to 3 years of age. Toddlers are in a transitional period between ___ and the next period, early childhood.

A

Infancy

118
Q

PERIODS OF DEVELOPMENT

Is the developmental period from 3 through 5 years of age. This period is sometimes called the “preschool years”. During this time, young children learn to become more self-sufficient and to take care of themselves, develop school readiness skills (following instructions, identifying letters), and spend many hours playing with peers.

A

Early childhood

119
Q

PERIODS OF DEVELOPMENT

Is the developmental period from about 6 to 10 or 11 years of age, approximately corresponding to the elementary school years. During this period, children master the fundamental skills of reading, writing, and arithmetic and they are formally exposed to the larger world and its culture.

A

Middle and Late Childhood

120
Q

PERIODS OF DEVELOPMENT

Is the developmental period of transition from childhood to early adulthood entered at approximately 10 to 12 years of age and ending at 18 to 21 years of age.___ begins with rapid physical changes-dramatic gains in height and weight, changes in body and contour, and the development of sexual characteristics such as enlargements of the breast, growth of pubic and facial hair, and deepening of the voice.

A

Adolescence

121
Q

PERIODS OF DEVELOPMENT

Is the developmental period that begins in the early twenties and lasts through the thirties. It is a time of establishing personal and economic independence, advancing in a career, and for many, selecting a mate, learning to live with that person in an intimate way, starting a family, and rearing children.

A

Early Adulthood

122
Q

PERIODS OF DEVELOPMENT

Is the developmental period from approximately 40 to about 60 years of age. It is a time of expanding personal and social involvement and responsibility, of assisting the next generation in becoming competent, mature individuals and of reaching and maintaining satisfaction in a career.

A

Middle Adulthood

123
Q

PERIODS OF DEVELOPMENT

Is the developmental period that begins during the sixties or seventies and lasts until death. It is a time of life review, retirement, and adjustment to new social roles and diminishing strength and health. It has the longest span of any period of development and as noted earlier, the number of people in this age group has been increasing dramatically.

A

Late Adulthood

124
Q

-Threadlike structures that come in 23 pairs, with one member of each pair coming from each parent. Chromosomes contain the genetic substance DNA.

A

Chromosomes

125
Q
  • A complex molecule that contains genetic information.
A

DNA

126
Q
  • Units of hereditary information composed of DNA. ___help cells to reproduce themselves and help manufacture the proteins that maintain life.
A

Genes

127
Q
  • Cellular reproduction in which the cell’s nucleus duplicates itself with two new cells being formed, each containing the same DNA as the parent cell, arranged in the same 23 pairs of chromosomes.
A

Mitosis

128
Q
  • A specialized form of cell division that occurs to form eggs and sperm (also known as gametes).
A

Meiosis

129
Q
  • A stage in reproduction when an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single cell, called a zygote.
A

Fertilization

130
Q
  • A single cell formed through fertilization.
A

Zygote

131
Q

is a form of intellectual disability caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21.

A

Down syndrome

132
Q

is a chromosomal disorder in which males have an extra X chromosome, making them XXY instead of XY.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

133
Q

is a genetic disorder that results from an abnormality in the X chromosome, which becomes constricted and often breaks.

A

Fragile X syndrome (FXS)

134
Q

is a chromosomal disorder in females in which either an X chromosome is missing, making the person XO instead of XX, or part of one X chromosome is deleted.

A

Turner syndrome

135
Q

– is the leading known prenatal cause of birth defects and mental retardation.

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)

136
Q
  • begins when a hypothalamus signals the hormone production in the pituitary, which triggers hormone production in adrenal glands, and by the gonads, it also triggers sexual excitement.
A

Puberty

137
Q
  • The heightened self-consciousness of adolescents. they regard themselves as much more socially significant as they are.
A

Adolescent egocentrism

138
Q

– humans have two distinct networks for processing information.

  • Intuitive thought is automatic, unconscious, and fast; it is contextualized or experiential.
  • Analytic thought it is conscious and rational.
A

Dual-Processing Model

139
Q
  • Adolescents’ belief that others are as interested in them as they themselves are, as well as attention-getting behavior motivated by a desire to be noticed, visible, and “on stage.”
A

Imaginary audience

140
Q

is the part of adolescent egocentrism involving a sense of uniqueness and invincibility (or invulnerability). For example, 13-year-old Adrienne says this about herself: “No one understands me, particularly my parents. They have no idea of what I am feeling.

A

personal fable

141
Q

is an eating disorder that involves the relentless pursuit of thinness through starvation.

A

Anorexia nervosa

142
Q

is an eating disorder in which the individual consistently follows a binge-and-purge pattern.

A

Bulimia nervosa

143
Q
  • involves frequent binge eating but without compensatory behavior like the purging that characterizes bulimics.
A

Binge eating disorder (bed)

144
Q

is a stereotyped pattern of role prescriptions for how individuals should behave sexually

A

sexual script

145
Q

Taylor’s view that when women experience stress, they are likely to engage in a tend-and-befriend pattern, seeking social alliances with others, especially female friends.

A

Tend-and-befriend

146
Q

The timetable according to which individuals are expected to accomplish life’s tasks, such as getting married, having children, or establishing themselves in a career.

A

Social clock

147
Q

big five factors of personality, which are _____ (Notice that if you create an acronym from these factor names, you will get the word ocean.)

A

big five factors of personality, which are openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (emotional stability). (Notice that if you create an acronym from these factor names, you will get the word ocean.)

148
Q

a decrease in marital satisfaction that occurs after children leave home, because parents derive considerable satisfaction from their children.

A

Empty Nest Syndrome

149
Q

Leonard Hayflick’s (1977) theory that cells can divide a maximum of about 75 to 80 times, and that as we age our cells become less capable of dividing

A

Cellular clock theory

150
Q

A microbiological theory of aging that states that people age because normal metabolic processes within their cells produce unstable oxygen molecules known as free radicals. These molecules ricochet around inside cells, damaging DNA and other cellular structures

A

Free-radical theory

151
Q

The theory that aging is caused by the decay of mitochondria, tiny cellular bodies that supply energy for function, growth, and repair.

A

Mitochondrial theory

152
Q

A family of proteins that have been proposed as having important influences on longevity, mitochondria functioning in energy, calorie restriction benefits, stress resistance, and cardiovascular functioning.

A

Sirtuins

153
Q

A cellular pathway involving the regulation of growth and metabolism that has been proposed as a key aspect of longevity.

A

mTOR pathway

154
Q

The theory that aging in the body’s hormonal system can decrease resistance to stress and increase the likelihood of disease.

A

Hormonal stress theory

155
Q

is memory of facts and experiences that individuals consciously know and can state. ___memory also is sometimes called declarative memory.

A

Explicit memory

156
Q

is memory without conscious recollection; it involves skills and routine procedures that are performed automatically

A

Implicit memory

157
Q

is a global term for any neurological disorder in which the primary symptoms involve a deterioration of mental functioning

A

Dementia

158
Q

One form of dementia is —a progressive, irreversible brain disorder that is characterized by a gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and eventually, physical function.

A

Alzheimer disease

159
Q

A chronic, progressive disease characterized by muscle tremors, slowing of movement, and partial facial paralysis.

A

Parkinson disease

160
Q

is the study of death and dying.

A

Thanatology

161
Q

A ______is one that is swift, painless, and dignified, and that occurs at home surrounded by friends and families.

A

good death

ACDS (97 decks)

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