2/7/17 SMITH Antimicrobial III TEST #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does chloramphenicol inhibit?

A

-50 S peptidyltransferase

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2
Q

In the broad spectrum of Chloramphenicol is it bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

-Bacteriostatic except H. influenze (bacterocidal)

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3
Q

What drug is restricted to life threatening infections of H. influenzae, bacteriodes, Rickettsia (spotted and typhoid fever) and miningitis?

A

-Chloramphenicol

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4
Q

If you have serious infections where penicillin can’t be used due to allergy that involves meningitis what drug would you use?

A

-Chloramphenicol

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5
Q

T/F Chloramphenicol can cross the Blood brain barrier?

A

-True

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6
Q

What drug has adverse effects of hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia (fatal) teratogenic, and causes Gray Baby Syndrome in premature infants?

A

-Chloramphenicol

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7
Q

T/F Clindamycin (lincosamides) are antagonistic if co-administered with macrolides

A

True

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8
Q

What is the spectrum of clindamycin?

A

-Infections caused by anaerobic bacteria and non-enterococcal Gram + cocci

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9
Q

Does clindamycin have gram - activity?

A

-No

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10
Q

Is clindamycin bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

-Bacteriostatic

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11
Q

What is an adverse effect of clindamycin?

A

-Psudomembranous colitis (C. difficile)

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12
Q

What are the clinical uses for clindamycin?

A
  • Bone and joint infections
  • Anaerboes above the diaphragm
  • Gram + microbes
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13
Q

If someone is pregnant should you give them chloramphenicol?

A

-No

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14
Q

For patients with anaerobic aspiration pneumonia what my be prescribed orally for months as an outpatient therapy?

A

-Clindamycin

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of Linezolid?

A

-Binds to 50 S subunit to prevent formation of ribosomal complex

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16
Q

What is Linezolid bactericidal against?

A

-Streptococci

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17
Q

What is Linezolid bacteriostatic against?

A
  • Enterococci

- Staphylcocci

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18
Q

If you are treating someone with vancomycin-resistant E. faecium what should you use?

A

-Linezolid

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19
Q

What can you treat Psudomembranous colitis with?

A
  • Vancomycin

- Metronidazole

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20
Q

If you have nosocomial pneumonia (both meth-susceptible and MRSA) what drug should you use to treat?

A

-Linezolid

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21
Q

If you have community acquired pneumonia (S. pneumonia) and complicated skin infections caused by Strep. Staph, and MRSA what protein synthesis drug should you use?

A

-Linezolid

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22
Q

What are the three main side effects of linezolid?

A
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Reversible neurotoxicity
  • Serotonin syndrome
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23
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Quinuprostin/Dalfopristin (streptogramins)?

A

-Bind to 50 S subunit

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24
Q

Is streptogramins bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic?

A

-Bacteriostatic

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25
Q

What drug is reserved for serious infections by multi-drug resistant gram + organisms such as a bacteremia with VRE, enterococcus faecium, and complicated skin infections caused by MRSA?

A

-Auinuprostin/Dalfopristin (streptogramins)

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26
Q

What is the mechanism of Mupirocin (Bactroban)?

A

-Reversibly inhibit isoleucyl transfer RNA synthetase enzyme which inhibits protein transaction

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27
Q

What is the only t-RNA synthetase inhibitor?

A

-Mupirocin (Bactroban)

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28
Q

How is Mupirocin applied?

A

-Topically, but only small areas at a time

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29
Q

T/F Mupirocin is useful against methicillin-resistant staph aureus (MRSA and meth -resistant S. pyogenes skin lesions

A

True

30
Q

What two topoisomerases are necessary for bacterial DNA replication to occur properly?

A
  • Topoisomerase II

- Topoisomerase IV

31
Q

T/F In prokaryotes Transcription and translation are coupled

A

True

32
Q

What in DNA replication affects the degree of supercoiling of the bacterial chromosome?

A

-DNA Gyrase

33
Q

What in DNA replication unwinds DNA and breaks hydrogen bonds between base pairs?

A

-Helicase

34
Q

What DNA polymerase attaches nucleotides in a 5’ to 3’ direction?

A

-DNA pol III

35
Q

What type of DNA polymerase removes RNA primers and forms Okasaki fragments?

A

-DNA pol I

36
Q

What in DNA replication facilitates bacterial cell division by unlinking DNA following DNA replication?

A

-Topoisomerase IV

37
Q

What is another name for DNA gyrase?

A

-Topoisomerase II

38
Q

Which enzymes are the target of fluoroquinolones?

A
  • DNA gyrase (Topo II)

- TOPO IV

39
Q

Quinolones/fluoroquinolones are bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

-Bactericidal

40
Q

Are quinolones/fluoroquinolones broad or narrow spectrum?

A

-Broad-spectrum

41
Q

What is a 2nd generation of quinolones/fluoroquinolones?

A

-Ciprofloxacin

42
Q

On gram + microbes what is the primary target for quinolones?

A

-TOPO IV

43
Q

On gram - microbes what is the primary target for quinolones?

A

-DNA gyrase

44
Q

The first generation of quinolones only effects what gram type of bacteria?

A

-Gram -

45
Q

What is the drug of choice for prophylaxis treatment of Anthrax?

A

-Ciprofloxacin

46
Q

What is the best quinolone for treating psudomonas?

A

-Ciprofloxacin

47
Q

What is a great drug choice for treating traveller’s diarrhea?

A

-Ciprofloxacin

48
Q

If you uncomplicated UTI’s what drug is typically used?

A

-Ciprofloxacin

49
Q

What is a 3rd generation quinolone?

A
  • Levofloxacin

- Oxfloxacin

50
Q

What is a 4th generation quinolone?

A

-Moxifloxacin

51
Q

What is the best respiratory flouroquinolone?

A

-Moxifloxacin

52
Q

What is a good alternative for Strep pneumoniae or H. influenzae for respiratory infections when resistant to beta-lactams?

A

-Levofloxacin

53
Q

What is the only 3rd generation quinolone that can penetrate the CNS?

A

-Oxfloxacin

54
Q

T/F Moxifloxacin has great activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

A

False

-Poor activity

55
Q

What type of drug does Al+ and Mg+ antacids or dietary supplements with divalents (Zn++ or Fe++) which will interfere with oral adsorption?

A

-Fluoroquinolones

56
Q

What is the most common cause of C. difficile superinfection?

A

-Ciprofloxacin

57
Q

If you give ciprofloxacin to a patient with epilepsy what can occur?

A

-Cause seizures

58
Q

T/F Ciprofloxacin interferes with the metabolism of theophylline inhalers (asthma) and can produce toxic doses that may provoke seizures

A

True

59
Q

T/F Prolongation of the AT interval could be a side effect of Moxifloxacin

A

true

60
Q

What are three non-quinolone drugs that disrupt nucleic acid synthesis?

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Rifampin
  • Nitrofurantoin
61
Q

What is the mechanism of Metronidazole?

A

-Inhibit DNA replication

62
Q

What is the drug of choice for diarrhea due to superinfection with C. difficile (pseudomembranous colitis)?

A

-Metronidzaloe

63
Q

What is the drug of choice for tetanus?

A

-Metronidazole (flagyl)

64
Q

T/F It is ok to take metronidazole with alcohol

A

False DO NOT take with alcohol

65
Q

What is the mechanism of Rifampin?

A

-Inhibit DNA-dependent bacterial RNA polymerase

66
Q

What drug must you warn patients that it will turn urine, sweat, and tears a red-orange color?

A

-Rifampin

67
Q

What is the mechanisms of action of Nitrofurantoin?

A

-Highly reactive intermediates that attack bacterial macromolecules

68
Q

What drug do you use for the treatment of uncomplicated UTIs and prophylaxis against UTIs in people prone to recurrent UTIs?

A

-Nitrofuranotin

69
Q

What drug is absorbed from intestine into urine at 90%?

A

-Nitrofuranotin

70
Q

T/F Tissue penetration of nitrofurantoin outside urinary tract is negligible

A

True