Wed June 8

Question 1

what structures form from the dorsal pancreatic bud?

Answer 1

pancreatic tail, body, most of the head, and the small accessory duct

Question 2

what structures form from the ventral pancreatic bud?

Answer 2

part of the pancreatic head, the uncinate process and main pancreatic duct

Question 3

during which week do the ventral and dorsal pancreatic buds fuse?

Answer 3

8

Question 4

what is the most common cardiac abnormality in people with turners syndrome ?

Answer 4

bicuspid aortic valve

Question 5

how does cyclosporine effect the kidneys?

Answer 5

it decreases the renal excretion of uric acid, leading to increased risk of gout

Question 6

which 3 benzodiazapines have a long half life (>50 hours)?

Answer 6

Diazapem, chlordiazepoxide, flurazepam

Question 7

what is chlordiazepoxide?

Answer 7

A benzodiazapine with a long half life

Question 8

which cells are responsible for blanching erythema following a burn?

Answer 8

MAst cells - they release histamine and other vasoactive peptides after a burn that leads to vasodilation and erythema

Question 9

is there blanching in a deep partial thickness burn?

Answer 9

no

Question 10

what layers are effected in a deep partial thickness burn?

Answer 10

the epidermis and most of the dermis

Question 11

is there blanching in a superficial partial thickness burn?

Answer 11

yes

Question 12

which layers are effected in a superficial partial thickness burn?

Answer 12

the epidermis and superficial part of the dermis

Question 13

which layers are effected in a superficial burn?

Answer 13

just the epidermis

Question 14

what drug is most commonly the cause of death in overdose?

Answer 14

opioids

Question 15

what runs anteriorly to the third part of the duodenum?

Answer 15

The SMA

Question 16

how may a thymic tumour result in red cell aplasia?

Answer 16

the thymic tumour may secrete igG autoantibodies or cytotoxic t cells against erythrocyte precursors, resulting in a pure red cell aplasia

Question 17

parvovirus preferentially attacks which cells?

Answer 17

proerythroblasts - can result in red cell aplasia

Question 18

Findings in restrictive lung disease?

Answer 18

Increased elastic recoil and airway widening

Question 19

what causes airway widening in restrictive lung disease?

Answer 19

Increased outward pulling (radial traction) by the surrounding fibrotic tissue

Question 20

standard error =

Answer 20

standard deviation/sqrt(n)

Question 21

what virulence factor is present in strains of staph aureus that can cause necrotizing pneumonia?

Answer 21

Panton-Valentine leukocidin (transmitted via a bacteriophage)

Question 22

what is Panton-Valentine leukocidin?

Answer 22

a protease that kills leukocytes and causes necrosis

Question 23

how is metformin cleared?

Answer 23

renally

Question 24

adverse effects of metformin?

Answer 24

Diarrhea, lactic acidosis, B12 deficiency

Question 25

which adrenergic receptors are important in maintaining blood pressure upon standing?

Answer 25

ALPHA 1

Question 26

how does hyaline arteriosclerosis appear?

Answer 26

eosinophilic material in the intima and media of small arteries/arterioles

Question 27

what causes hyaline arteriosclerosis?

Answer 27

poorly controlled hypertension or diabetes

Question 28

which gene encodes gp120 and gp41?

Answer 28

env

Question 29

what is the function of gp120 and gp41?

Answer 29

• gp120 is an outer membrane protein that mediates viral attachment to host cells via the CD4 receptor and a chemokine receptor (CXCR4, CCR5)
• binding of gp120 results in a conformational change, exposing gp41 ( a transmembrane protein) which fuses with the host cell membrane

Question 30

stimulation of which nerve can help treat obstructive sleep apnea?

Answer 30

hypoglossal nerve - makes the tongue move slightly forward, increasing the airway diameter while sleeping

Question 31

at what ph does candida infection of the vagina occur?

Answer 31

normal ph - 3.8-4.5

Question 32

at what ph does trichomoniasis occur?

Answer 32

> 4.5

Question 33

at what ph does Gardnerella vaginalis occur?

Answer 33

> 4.5

Question 34

what does ramelteon treat?

Answer 34

insomnia

Question 35

Ramelteon MOA?

Answer 35

agonist of melatonin receptors in the suprachiasmatic nucleus

Question 36

what is amlodipine?

Answer 36

Ca channel blocker

Question 37

adverse effects of ca channel blockers?

Answer 37

peripheral edema, headache, flushing, dizziness

Question 38

do ace inhibitors cause peripheral edema?

Answer 38

NO they cause angioedema

Question 39

Integrin binds to collagen via…

Answer 39

fibronectin

Question 40

primary sclerosing cholangitis is associatd with which disease?

Answer 40

ulcerative cholangitis

Question 41

changes seen in primary sclerosing cholangitis?

Answer 41

Fibrous obliteration of ducts, onion-skin deposition of connective tissue around the ducts (concentric deposition)

Question 42

changes seen in primary biliary cholangitis?

Answer 42

lymphocytic portal tract inflammation, with granulomatous destructin of interlobar bile ducts

Question 43

does a fetal 21-hydroxylase deficiency cause maternal virilization?

Answer 43

NO

Question 44

does fetal aromatase deficiency cause maternal virilization?

Answer 44

yes

Question 45

which structures are derived from the third pharyngeal pouch?

Answer 45

inferior parathyroids, thymus

Question 46

which anticoags are safe in pregnancy?

Answer 46

heparins - LMWH and unfractionated

Question 47

do heparins cross the placenta?

Answer 47

no

Question 48

exclusively breastfed infants should receive what?

Answer 48

vit D

Question 49

what is the purpose of the valsava maneuver?

Answer 49

increases vagal tone (similar to carotid massage)

Question 50

what does an S3 sound indicate?

Answer 50

fluid overload- the ventricle can no longer accomodate the extra fluid

Question 51

what does an S4 indicate?

Answer 51

blood colliding with a stiff wall