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Test reviews DEDICATED > Wed jul 15 > Flashcards

Wed jul 15 Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of hydralazine?

A

anteriolar vasodilator

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2
Q

metoprolol MOA

A

cardioselective beta blocker - blocks B1

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3
Q

how long does it take for a drug metabolized by first order kinetics to reach steady state?

A

4-5 half lives

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4
Q

what murmur is heard with an ASD?

A

fixed splitting of S2

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5
Q

what murmur is heard with a VSD?

A

holosystolic murmur best heard at lower left sternal border

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6
Q

which drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

A

dantrolene

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7
Q

MOA of dantrolene?

A

inhibits intracellular Ca release from the abnormal RYR receptor

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8
Q

what is the osmolarity of the fluid in the PCT?

A

Isotonic with plasma - about 300mOsm/L

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9
Q

in which part of the nephron is the fluid the most dilute?

A

DCT

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10
Q

how hypertenoic may urine become in the presence of ADH?

A

up to 1200 mOsm/L - mediated by ADH causing water reapsorption in the CD

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11
Q

which type of drugs follow the multicompartment model of distribution?

A

highly lipophilic drugs (such as propofol)

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12
Q

how will drug concentrations that follow the multicompartment model of distribution change over time?

A

Following a bolus dose the drug will first be high in the central compartment (blood) but rapidly spread to well-perfused organs (brain, heart, lungs). Over time the drug redistributes to less-well perfused organs such as skeletal muscle, fat, bone etc.

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13
Q

at which rib do the lungs end at the midclavicular line? Mixaxillary line? Paravertebral?

A

Midclavicular - 6th
Midaxillary - 8th
Paravertebral - 10th

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14
Q

Where should paracentesis be performed at the midclavicular line? Mixaxillary line? Paravertebral?

A

Midclavicular - below the 6th rib
Midaxillary - below the 8th rib
Paravertebral - below the 10th rib

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15
Q

atopic dermatitis is associated with loss of function mutations in…

A

filaggrin and other epidermal barrier proteins

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16
Q

mutations in what protein are responsible for epidermolysis bullosa simplex?

A

keratin genes

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17
Q

which pathogen causes linear ulcerations of hte esophagus?

A

CMV

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18
Q

which pathogen causes punched out ulcerations of hte esophagus?

A

HSV

19
Q

what does the a wave in a JVP tracing represent?

A

atrial contraction

20
Q

Under which condition will the a wave of a JVP tracing be absent?

A

atrial fibrillation

21
Q

which specific mutation is responsible for sickle cell disease?

A

A point mutation on the beta globin gene that results in valine being replaced with glutamic acid

22
Q

ingestion of pesticides/insecticides (possibly through contaminated water) may lead to which type of poisoning?

A

arsenic poisoning

23
Q

which processes does arsenic poisoning disrupt?

A

binds to sulfhydryl groups on enzymes disrupting cellular respiration and gluconeogenesis

24
Q

acute arsenic poisoning presentation?

A

garlic breath, vomiting, watery diarhea, QT prolongation

25
Q

chronic arsenic poisoning presentation?

A

hyper/hypopigmentation, hyperkeratosis, stocking glove neuropathy

26
Q

treatment of arsenic poisoning?

A

dimercaprol or DMSA

27
Q

what chelating agent is used to treat iron overload?

A

deferoxamine

28
Q

which cells produce anti-mullerian hormone?

A

sertoli cells

29
Q

which cells produce testosterone?

A

leydig cells

30
Q

which gene codes for testes determining factor?

A

SRY on Y chromosome

31
Q

in the absence of the SRY gene, what will happen to gonads?

A

they will develop into ovaries

32
Q

which subtype of ovarian cancer is associated with increased CA-125?

A

epithelial ovarian cancer

33
Q

alpha fetoprotein may be increased with which types of cancer?

A

germ cell tumours of the ovaries and HCC

34
Q

coffee bean nulcei and call-exner bodies are characteristic of which ovarian cancer?

A

Granulosa cell tumours (stroma - sex cord)

35
Q

a mutatino of what may be implicatd in ALS?

A

copper-zinc superoxide dismustate 1 (SOD1)

36
Q

what causes a right shift of the oxy-hemoglobin curve?

A

Increased H (decreased pH)
Increased 2,3BPG
Increased temperature

37
Q

which enzyme is commonly deficient in homocystinuria?

A

cystathione beta-synthase

38
Q

what is the cofactor for cystathione beta-synthase

A

B6

39
Q

how does a transudative effusion compare to an exudative effusion?

A

it will have lower protein and lower LDH

40
Q

fibrates MOA?

A

fibrates activate PPARalpha which decreases VLDL production and increase LPL activity (which hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons and VLDL to release FFA for storage or use by the cells)

41
Q

how does cortisol exert its permissive effects on norepinephrine?

A

it upregulates alpha 1 receptors

42
Q

treatment for scabies?

A

permethrin

43
Q

CGG trinucleotide repeats are characteristic of which syndrome?

A

Fragile X syndrome

44
Q

pathophys of lytic bone lesions seen in multiple myeloma?

A

Multiple myeloma directly stimulates osteoCLASTS by production RANKL and destroying OPG (decoy receptor) and also secrete cytokines that inhibit osteoblasts

Test reviews DEDICATED (70 decks)

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