NMBE 15 Flashcards

1
Q

Zanamivir MOA

A

inhibits neuraminadase

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2
Q

Zanamivir use

A

influenza

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3
Q

Fomepizole uses?

A

methanol and ethyne glycol poisoning

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4
Q

How does fomepizole work?

A

Competitively inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase (which converts ethanol to acetaldehyde and is involved in the first steps of converting methanol and ethylyne glycol to their toxic metabolites

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5
Q

if someone comes in with ethylyne glycol or methanol poisoning, what should you give them?

A

fomepizole

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6
Q

presentation of methanol toxicity

A

decreased level of consciousness, poor coordination, vomiting, abdominal pain, and a specific smell on the breath. Decreased vision.

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7
Q

how does lithium cause nephrotoxicity?

A

enters principal cells in collecting duct and prevents ADH from working properly

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8
Q

What is a normal A-a gradient oxygen?

A

Around 10

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9
Q

will barbituate induced respiratory suppression effect the A-a gradient?

A

No -the alveoli themselves are fine but there is hypoventilation leading to decreased O2 and increased CO2

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10
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

A

duodenum and jejunum

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11
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

ileum

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12
Q

what keeps the ductus arteriosis open?

A

prostaglandins (especially E2)

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13
Q

why does the ductus arteriosis close after birth?

A

PE2 which was produced by the placenta is gone -> closure

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14
Q

Why does deoxygenated blood can carry more carbon dioxide for a given Pco2 than oxygenated blood?

A

Because Deoxyhemoglobin is a better H buffer
CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 → H+ + HCO3−

The enhanced affinity of deoxyhb for the H means that it will stabilized it, and the equation will shift to the right, allowing more CO2 to be bound

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15
Q

What causes the dissociation of CO2 from hemoglobin in the lungs?

A

oxygen binds and induces a conformational change, promoting the release of CO2

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16
Q

What is IkB?

A

inhibitory protein that binds Nfkb. When phosphorylated, it releases it so that NFKB can go to the nucleus.

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17
Q

loading dose formula?

A

load dose = desired (concentration)(Vd)/Bioavailability

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18
Q

what properties of inahled anesthetic lead to rapid onset?

A

low solubility in the blood

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19
Q

bosentan MOA?

A

Bosentan is a competitive antagonist of endothelin-1

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20
Q

endothelin function in the lungs?

A

causes constriction of pulmonary vessels

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21
Q

What is rheumatoid factor?

A

ats an igM autoantibody against igG

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22
Q

what lymph nodes does the cervix drain to?

A

internal iliac

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23
Q

alcoholism decreases which important liver enzyme?

A

glutathione

24
Q

what does strep pneumonia look like on gram stain?

A

lancet shaped diplococci

25
Q

wha does strep mitis look like on grain stain?

A

may be in long chains

26
Q

what nerve innervates the inferior constrictor muscles?

A

motor fibers of vagus nerve

27
Q

does the vagus nerve innervate all of the pharyngeal muscles?

A

all EXCEPT for stylopharyngeas which is innervated by the glossopharyngeal

28
Q

where does HSV1 lay dormant?

A

the SENSORY ganglia of the trigeminal nerve

29
Q

if a patient has bleeding after a progestin challenge test, what does that mean?

A

sufficient estrogen is present and the amenorhia is due to anovulation

30
Q

where does degradation of very long chain fatty acids occur?

A

peroxisomes

31
Q

what is volume contraction?

A

it refers to a decrease in body fluids - can be from loop/thiazide diuretics

32
Q

what is medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A

cancer of the parafollicular (c cells) of the thyroid which secrete calcitonin

33
Q

antibiotic treatment of salmonella results in what?

A

prolonged excretion of the organism

34
Q

what kind of receptors do thyroxine (t4) and triodothyronine bind?

A

nuclear (they are HORMONES)

35
Q

the adrenal medulla arises from the..

A

neural crest cells

36
Q

when vit D is absorbed it first goes to the …..and then..

A

liver where it is converted to 25-OH(D) and then the kidenys wheres its converted to 1,25-OH(D)

37
Q

carcinoid syndrome results in the secretion of …

A

serotonin

38
Q

presentation of central retinal artery occlusion

A

acute-onset painless monocular vision loss, as well as the cherry red spot on physical exam

NO consensual light reflex in other eye

39
Q

how is neuroathic pain described?

A

burning

40
Q

an aneurism of the posterior communicating artery may result in what?

A

CNIII palsy

41
Q

cytopenias are common in…

A

LUPUS

42
Q

which kidney disease is associated with lupus?

A

diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

43
Q

what commonly causes a furuncle?

A

S aureus

44
Q

what effect will precocious puberty have on height?

A

at first they may grow quickly and be tall, but because their bones mature more quickly than normal, they often stop growing earlier than usual, making them shorter adults

45
Q

CML is often treated with…

A

imatinib

46
Q

having a burnt almond smell is classic of which poisoning?

A

cyanide

47
Q

how to treat cyanide poisoning?

A

Nitrites-oxidize iron to fe3

48
Q

what drugs is malignant hyperthermia associated with?

A

inhaled anesthetics or succinycholine

49
Q

mutations in WHAT increases your risk of malignant hyperthermia?

A

ryr receptor

50
Q

treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

dantrolene (blocks the release of Ca from the SR by blocking ryr receptors)

51
Q

why does smoking make GERD worse?

A

nicotine relaxes the lower esophageal sphinctor

furthermore, it interferes with the gastric mucosa and acid production and thus is linked to stomach ulcers

52
Q

what is irradiated blood products?

A

irradiation of blood products is done to prevent graft vs host diseaes

53
Q

which type of blood products are commonly irradiated?

A

all granulocyte products, anything with lymphocytes, and tissue typed matched products

54
Q

are albumin and immunoglobulins irradiated before being given to the receiver?

A

no they dont contain lymphocytes and dont risk host vs graft disease

55
Q

what is graft vs host disease?

A

when the recipient cells view the receivers cells as foreign and attack them