Fri Jul 10 Flashcards

1
Q

when a patient comes in with organophosphate poisoning, how do you treat them?

A

First atropine, then pralidoxime

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2
Q

why do you give atropine before pralidoxime?

A

you need to give pralidoxime as well, since it treats the nicotinic symptoms of organophosphate poisoning, but it causes a transient rise in Ach so you need to give atropine first

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3
Q

an anteriolateral displacement of a supracondylar humerus fracture may damage which nerve?

A

RADIAL

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4
Q

an anteriomedial displacement of a supracondylar humerus fracture may damage which nerve?

A

MEDIAN

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5
Q

which virus causes hand-foot-mouth disease?

A

enterovirus (coxsacckievirus)

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6
Q

how is coxsackievirus spread?

A

fecal-oral route

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7
Q

what are anti-jo-1 antibodies?

A

antibodies against tRNA synthetase

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8
Q

which disease has anti-jo-1-antibodies?

A

polymyositis

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9
Q

what will be found on biopsy of polymyositis?

A

endomysial inflammation - mononuclear infiltrate and patchy necrosis

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10
Q

what will be seen on biopsy of someone with dermatomyositis?

A

perifascicular inflammation

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11
Q

presentation of polymyositis?

A

symmetrical proximal muscle weakness - difficulty climbing stairs, getting up, carrying heavy objects

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12
Q

which hormone stimulates leydig cells?

A

LH

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13
Q

which hormone stimulates sertoli cells?

A

FSH

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14
Q

which vessels does nitroprusside act on?

A

both veins and arteries - reduces afterload and preload

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15
Q

how is excess ammonia processed in the brain?

A

Converted to glutamine

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16
Q

what happens when astrocytes have excess glutamine?

A

they swell up (increased osmolarity) and this leads to impaired glutamine release–> disruption of excitatory neurotransmission

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17
Q

how should you evaluate someone who may have vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

blood cultures and MRI of the spine

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18
Q

volume overload in the ventricles leads to which type of hypertrophy?

A

eccentric

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19
Q

the decrease in function KCNH2 mutation is a cause of…

A

congenital long QT

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20
Q

unfractionated heparin MOA?

A

binds to both antithrombin and thrombin, forming a complex that inactivates thrombin

also binds to and inhibits Xa

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21
Q

low molecular weight heparin MOA?

A

binds and inactivates factor Xa

22
Q

how does shiga and shiga-like toxin work?

A

binds to 60s ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis and leading to cell death

23
Q

at what CD4 count is someone susceptible to toxoplasmosis?

A

<100

24
Q

how does fructose-2,6,BP effect glycolysis?

A

activates phosphofructokinase-1, promoting the conversion of fructose-6-P to fructose,1,6-P

25
Q

high concentrations of fructose-2,6 BP inhibit…

A

gluconeogenesis

26
Q

what effect does cholesterol have on risk of gallstones?

A

high cholesterol leads to increased likelihood of cholesterol precipitation and gallstone formation

27
Q

what effect do bile salts and phosphatidylcholine have on risk of gallstones?

A

these increase the solubility of cholesterol and thus if they are higher it decreases risk

28
Q

what antibodies are present in membranous nephropathy?

A

phospholipase A2 receptor antibodies (PLA2R)

29
Q

aortic stenosis most commonly results from…

A

age-related calcific aortic valve disease

30
Q

pathogenesis of age-related calcific aortic valve disease?

A

In early stages damage to the valves over time lead to endothelial dysfunction and onset of an atherosclerotic process. The presence of inflammatory mediators eventually leads to fibroblast differentiation into osteoblast-like cells, leading to bone matrix deposition with progressive valvular calficiation

31
Q

which strain of hepatitis uses reverse transcriptase?

A

hepatitis B

32
Q

how do atrial myxomas appear histologically?

A

scattered cells with a mucopolysaccharide stroma

33
Q

which type of lung cancer may cause SIADH?

A

small cell lung carcinoma

34
Q

which markers are often present in small cell lung carcinoma?

A

neuroendocrine markers - neural adhesion molecules, chromogranin, neuron-specific enolase, synaptophysin.

35
Q

what would a biopsy of a white spot in someone with vitiligo show?

A

no melanocytes or pigment

36
Q

where does a neuroblastoma occur?

A

adrenal medulla

37
Q

presentation of a neuroblastoma?

A

young child <2 years, abdominal mass, opsoclonus-myoclonus, periorbital ecchymyoses

38
Q

what will neuroblastoma look like on histology?

A

small blue cells with homer wright rosettes

39
Q

what predicts prognosis of a neuroblastoma?

A

N-myc - poor prognosis

40
Q

is there blood and leukocytes in the stool of someone with norovirus?

A

no

41
Q

how may someone contract campylobacter other than undercooked meats?

A

contact with warm-blooded animals

42
Q

where do B cells usually aggregate in lymph nodes?

A

they usually aggregate in the cortex to form lymphoid follicles

43
Q

why do loop diuretics cause metabolic alkalosis?

A
  • the loss of Na stimulates aldosterone, leading to increased secretion of H and K
  • more Cl- is lost than Na resulting in decreased total body electronegativity, leading to the kidneys holding on to more HCO
44
Q

if someone on loop diuretics develops metabolic alkalosis, what can you give them?

A

CA inhibitors

45
Q

what enzyme do fibrates inhibit?

A

cholesterol-7-alpha-hydroxylase - the rate limiting step in bile acid synthesis, resulting in decreased bile salt synthesis and increased excretion of cholesterol

46
Q

fibrates increase the risk for what?

A

gallstones - increased cholesterol in gallbladder

47
Q

what property leads to propofols short duration of action?

A

rapid redistribution of the drug into tissues

48
Q

how do GLP-1 agonists work?

A

increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion, decrease glucagon and delay gastric emptying

49
Q

side effects of GLP-1 agonists?

A

pancreatitis, weight loss

50
Q

where does the focal image fall with myopia?

A

anterior to the retina

51
Q

where does the focal image fall with hyperopia?

A

posterior to the retina