Sun Jul 12 Flashcards

1
Q

how do cystine kidney stones appear on microscopy?

A

hexagonal

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2
Q

patients with cysteinuria are unable to absorb which 4 amino acids?

A
COLA
cysteine
ornithine
lysine
arginine
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3
Q

what is the MOA of sulfamethoxazole?

A

Structural analog of PABA which competes with PABA and inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase - enzyme needed for dihydrofolic acid synthesis

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4
Q

what is sulfamethoxazole an analogue of?

A

PABA

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5
Q

what enzyme does sulfamethoxazole inhibit?

A

dihydropteroate synthetase

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6
Q

which enzyme does methotrexate, trimethoprime, and pyrimethamine inhibit?

A

dihydrofolate reductase

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7
Q

function of dihydrofolate reductase?

A

converts dihydrofolic acid into tetrahydrofolic acid

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8
Q

MOA of NRTI’s?

A

they get incorporated into DNA, but since they have a missing 3’hydroxyl group, 3’5’ phosphodiester bond formation cannot occur and instead there is chain termination

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9
Q

what is tenofavir?

A

an NRTI

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10
Q

how may tenofavir result in acute kidney injury?

A

it is eliminated by the PCT in the kidenys, and high concentration may interfere with mitochondrial DNA synthesis leading to cellular toxicity

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11
Q

at which pH does uric acid precipiate?

A

acidic pHs

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12
Q

where is the lowest pH in the nephrons?

A

the DCTs and collecting ducts

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13
Q

how can you prevent tumour lysis syndrome?

A

urine alkalinization (to prevent uric acid precipitation), aggressive hydration, and allopurinol (to reduce uric acid production)

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14
Q

where are the pretectal and edinger-westphal nuclei found?

A

upper midbrain

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15
Q

where is ghrelin produced?

A

the gastric pits of the stomach

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16
Q

which enzyme is deficient in AIP ?

A

PBG deaminase

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17
Q

which enzyme is deficient in porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

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18
Q

abciximab MOA?

A

GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist- thus blocks GPII/IIIa from binding to fibrinogen and forming a platelet plug

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19
Q

clopidogrel MOA?

A

blocks platelet aggregation via blocking P2Y12 on platelet ADP receptors

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20
Q

which type of diuretic increases Ca reabsorption?

A

thiazides

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21
Q

pathophys of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

increased osteoclast activity leads to bone erosions, with new bone formation occuring primarily at the periosteal margin and cartilage, leading to bridging syndesmophytes and ankylosis

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22
Q

do gastric ulcers require biopsy?

A

yes as they may be malignant

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23
Q

do duodenal ulcers require biopsy?

A

no -they are very rarely malignant

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24
Q

presentation of fibromyalgia?

A
widespread musculoskeletal pain
fatigue
impaired attention and concentration
psych disturbances(depression/anxiety)
multiple tender points

> 3 months

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25
Q

does polymyalgia rheumatica have tender points of psych symptoms?

A

NOOOOO

26
Q

presentation of classic dengue fever?

A
  • flulike febrile illness with myalgias and joint pain (break bone fever)
  • retro-orbital pain
  • rash
27
Q

presentation of dengue hemorrhagic fever?

A

increased vascular permeability

  • thrombocytopenia
  • spontaneous bleeding
  • positive tourniquet test (petechia after sphygomomanometer cut inflation for 5 min)
28
Q

how is dengue fever spread?

A

aedes mosquito

29
Q

what type of virus is dengue fever?

A

ss RNA

Flavivirus

30
Q

the superior laryngeal nerve is part of which Cranial nerve?

A

CN X

31
Q

what is the function of the superior laryngeal nerve?

A

sensory - mediates affarent limb of cough reflex - carries sensation from the mucosa to the vocal cords

32
Q

which nerve runs superficially through the piriform recesS?

A

the internal laryngeal nerve (a branch of the superior laryngeal nervE)

33
Q

what mediates the affarent and efferent limbs of the gag reflex?

A

CN IX and X respectively

34
Q

presentation of graft vs host disease?

A

any organ can be targeted but it commonly involves the skin, liver and GI tract

  • may present as maculopapular rash that goes to the palms and soles
  • abnormal LFTs
  • diarrhea, abdominal pain and GI bleeding
35
Q

what are the embryological deritivates of the neural tube?

A
  • Ne
  • Astrocytes
  • Spinal cord
  • Pineal gland
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Retina
  • Ependymal cells
  • Neurohypophysis
36
Q

what does the brain and spinal cord derive from?

A

neural tube

37
Q

what does the posterior pituitary and pineal gland derive from?

A

neural tube

38
Q

what does the retina derive from?

A

neural tube

39
Q

what are the embryological deritivates of the neural crest?

A
  • Schwann cells
  • PNS
  • Adrenal medulla
  • Myenteric plexus
  • Spiral membrane
  • Melanocytes
  • Odontoblasts
  • Thyroid C-cells
  • Endocardial cushion
  • Laryngeal cartilage
40
Q

which bones are derived from the neural crest?

A

skull bones

41
Q

which layers of the meninges are derived from the neural crest?

A

pia and arachnoid

42
Q

what are the embryological deritivates of the surface ectoderm?

A
anterior pituitary (rathkes pouch)
lens and cornea
inner ear sensory organs
olfactory epithelium
salivery glands
epidermis, sweat and mammary glands
43
Q

where do the mammary glands derive from?

A

surface ectoderm

44
Q

what does rathkes pouch derive from?

A

surface ectoderm

45
Q

where do melanocytes derive from?

A

neural crest

46
Q

where do the salivary glands derive from?

A

surface ectoderm

47
Q

how many calories are produced by 1 gram of fat?

A

9

48
Q

how many calories are produced by 1 gram of protein?

A

4

49
Q

what is the function of the lateral pterygoids?

A

Opening the jaw

50
Q

adverse effects of clozapine?

A

Agranulocytosis
Seizures
Metabolic syndrome
Myocarditis

51
Q

gram stain of nocardia?

A

filamentous, branching, gram + rods

Partially acid fast

52
Q

treatment of nocardia?

A

TMT-SMX

53
Q

presentation of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Begins with fever, headache, myalgias, and malaise, followed 3-5 days later with a macular rash that moves from the extremities inwards

54
Q

what causes rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

rickettsia rickettsia

55
Q

treatment of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

doxycycline

56
Q

what is the half life of naloxone?

A

<1 hr - short half-life (this means patients who overdosed may need repeated dosings)

57
Q

how will diastolic blood pressure be effected during aerobic exercise?

A

There is vasoconstriction of splanchnic arterioles but larger amounts of vasodilation of arterioles in the muscles, during aerobic exercise, leading to an overall decreased SVR. However the increased venous return and stroke volume of the heart during aerobic exercise offsets this, leading to an overall unchanged or slightly decreased diastolic pressure

58
Q

how will systolic blood pressure be effected during aerobic exercise?

A

It will be increased– due to increased venous return to the heart and increased contractility resulting in greater stroke volume

59
Q

MOA of ethosuximide

A

Blocks thalamic T-type Ca channels

60
Q

what neurotransmitter is produced by the nucleus of Meynert?

A

Ach