Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Test reviews DEDICATED > Test 1 June 21 > Flashcards

Test 1 June 21 Flashcards

1
Q

first line treatment for acute gouty arthritis?

A

NSAIDs, but contraindicated if patient has peptic ulcer history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does colchicine bind?

A

tubulin, blocking polymerization of microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does tolerance to alpha adrenergic decongestants commonly occur?

A

receptor internalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patau syndrome AKA

A

trisomy 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What defect causes patau syndrome?

A

meiotic nondisjunction leads to trisomy 13 which results in a defect in the fusion of the prechordal mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

presentation of patau syndrome?

A

Most babies will die in utero, but of those who do not:
Midline defects:
holoprosencephaly, cleft lip/palate, microphthalmia, microcephaly, omphalocele, cutis aplasia and polydactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

edwards syndrome AKA

A

trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

presentation of edwards syndrome

A

fetal growth retardation, hypertonia, micrognathia, congenital heart defects, clenched hands with overlapping fingers, meckels diverticulum, malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Presentation of williams syndrome

A

Elfie facies, supravalvular stenosis, and extroverted personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patients receiving anti-complement therapy are at risk for which infection?

A

Neisseria meningitis (complement is important for killing gram - bacteria, especially neisseria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how do you prevent a patient on anticomplement therapy from getting N meningitis?

A

immunization and antibiotic prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria treated?

A

monoclonal antibody to complement protein C5 (eculizimab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do nitrites cause poisoning?

A

They convert Fe 2+ to Fe 3+ (methemoglobin) which cannot bind oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does the partial pressure of oxygen in blood represent?

A

the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is the partial pressure of ox in blood changed in nitrite poisoning?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

presentation of methemoglobin?

A

dusky colour to skin (similar to cyanosis), and functional anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is projection?

A

attributing one’s feelings to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is identification?

A

modelling ones behaviour after someone who is believed to be more powerful or prestigious. EX: abused son abuses his own kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the pentose phosphate pathway (HMP shunt)?

A

pathway that generates NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate for use in reductive reactions and synthesis of nucleotides, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When there is excess ribose-5-phosphate, which enzymes convert it to the intermediates glyceraldehyde-3-P and fructose-6-phosphate for ATP generation?

A

transketolase and transaldolase (these also work in the reverse direction when ribose-5-phosphate is needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cardiac output formula?

A

SV x HR

rate of O2 consumption/arteriovenous O2 content difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What typically causes atrial flutter? where is this abnormality found?

A

A large reentry circuit. Found transversing the the cavotricuspid isthmus (between the inferior vena cava and triscuspid valve annulus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Patients on metronidazole may develop what when drinking alcohol?

A

disulfuram-like-reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when you perform an emergency cricothyrotomy, what layers do you cut through?

A

skin, superior cerival fascia, investing/pretracheal layers of the deep cervical fascia and the cricothyroid MEMBRANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is locus ceruleus located?

A

rostral pons, floor of 4th ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the locus ceruleus produce?

A

norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where are histamine and orexin produced?

A

the posterior hypothalamus

28
Q

statins MOA

A

inhibit HMG-Coa reduction, leading to decreased hepatic cholesterol synthesisis. LDL receptor upregulation occurs and decreased LDL from the blood

29
Q

how do penicillians and cephalosporins work?

A

irreversibly bind to penicillin-binding proteins such as transpeptidase

30
Q

how does vancomycin work?

A

binds D-alanine on cell wall GLYCOPROTEINS which inhibits transpeptidases from forming cross links

31
Q

what cells do the cutaneous neurofibromas in NF1 derive from?

A

Schwann cells (which are from the neural crest)

32
Q

is the initial lesion of chancroid painful?

A

yes

33
Q

What causes lymphogranuloma venerum?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

34
Q

What is the presentation of lymphogranuloma venerum?

A

Multiple, small painless ulcers

Then large and painful inguinal lymph nodes (buboes)

35
Q

which serotypes of chlamydia cause lymphogranuloma venerum?

A

L1-L3

36
Q

how may you treat achalaisa?

A

botulinum toxin

37
Q

what are the side effects of bile acid sequesterants?

A

GI upset, impaired absorption, increased triglycerides

38
Q

MOA of ezetimide?

A

inhibits intestinal absorption of cholesterol -> lower LDL

39
Q

Fibrates MOA?

A

inhibit hepatic production of triglycerides

40
Q

what is the first line treatment for hypertriglyceridemia?

A

fibrates

41
Q

using topical decongestants for more than 3 days may result in what?

A

Rebound rhinorhea -nasal congestion without cough, sneeze or postnasal drip, due to tachypylaxis

42
Q

What causes chronic granulomatous disease?

A

X linked deficiency of NADPH oxidase (lack of respiratory burst)

43
Q

a myeloperoxidase deficiency may result in recurrent infections with what?

A

candida

44
Q

how does one get infected with schistosoma species?

A

swimming in freshwater contaminated with snails (sub saharan africa or east asia)

45
Q

presentation of schistosoma infection?

A

most patients are asymptomatic but it can cause hepatosplenomegaly, liver fibrosis and portal hypertension, diarheaa/pain, intestional ulceration with iron deficiency anemia, hematuria, pyelonephritis, SCC of bladder

46
Q

is eosinophilia present with malaria infection?

A

no

47
Q

is eosinophilia present with infection from schistosoma?

A

yes

48
Q

what is the name of the disorder that presents the same as schizophrenia but lasts <6 mo?

A

schizophreniform disorder

49
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder?

A

Major depressive or manic episodes with concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia, PLUS delusions or hallucinations in absence of the manic/depressive episodes lasting > 2 weeks

50
Q

what is the difference between schizoaffective disorder and bipolar/major depressive disorder with psychotic features?

A

with schizoaffective disorder, psychotic features have been present without the episode of mania/depression, whereas with bipolar or major depressive disorder with psychotic features, the psychotic features occur EXCUSIVELY during the episode

51
Q

agranulocytosis is a complication of which thyroid drugs?

A

PTU and methimazole

52
Q

which thyroid drug is associated with hepatotoxicity?

A

PTU

53
Q

excess thyroid hormone results in the increased expression of which type of receptors?

A

Beta adrenergic -> hyperadrenergic state

54
Q

which type of receptors are PTH (ca sensing) receptors?

A

G protein coupled (Gq)

55
Q

EPO, growth hormone and prolactin have which kind of receptors?

A

JAK/STAT

56
Q

which enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent porypheria?

A

porphobilinogen deaminase

57
Q

AIP attacks result in accumulation of which two substances?

A

ALA and PBG

58
Q

how do you treat an attack of AIP?

A

glucose and heme

59
Q

how does glucose and heme work to treat AIP?

A

they have negative feedback on ALA synthase, the first and rate limiting step in the pathway preventing build up of ALA and PBG

60
Q

which drugs may cause an attack of AIP?

A

any drugs that induce CYP 450s, including smoking and alcohol use - (these induce ALA synthase)

61
Q

In addition to cat feces, toxoplasmosis can be transmitted how?

A

contaminated food

62
Q

name 3 examples of cancers that spread hematogenously?

A

sarcomas
renal cell carcinomas
hepatocellular carcinomas

63
Q

MOA of finasteride? how does it help BPH?

A

5 alpha reducatse inhibitor, prevents conversion of testosterone to DHT thus decreasing prostate size over time

64
Q

how does tamsulosin and terazosin work to treat BPH?

A

these are alpha adrenergic antagonists that relax SM

65
Q

how do glucocorticoids cause antiinflammatory effects?

A

inhibit phospholipase A2 - decreases leukotriene and prostaglandin production
-also suppress transcription of cytokines and proteins for adhesion, decreasing leukocyte recruitment and activation

Test reviews DEDICATED (70 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions