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Test reviews DEDICATED > Thurs July 9 > Flashcards

Thurs July 9 Flashcards

1
Q

what do neural crest cells give rise to in the intestines?

A

the submucosal (Meissners) and myenteric (Aurbachs plexus)

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2
Q

what is the timeline of neural crest migration in the intestines, during embryo?

A

they present in the proximal colon at 8 weeks and are in the rectum by 12 weeks

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3
Q

what is the treatment for an ACUTE episode of gout?

A

NSAIDS, but if contraindicated, colchicine

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4
Q

what treatments are given for CHRONIC GOUT?

A

probenicid and allopurinal

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5
Q

how does probenecid work?

A

inhibits tubular reabsorption of uric acid

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6
Q

what is homocysteine broken down into?

A

Homocysteine -> cystathione -> cysteine

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7
Q

what condition results from a defect in cystathionine synthase?

A

homocystinuria

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8
Q

what cofactor is required for cystathionine synthase?

A

B6

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9
Q

how does homocystinuria present?

A

hypercoagulability, ectopia lentis and intellectual disability, fair complexion and marfanoid habitus

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10
Q

why may obese women have increased estrogens after menopause?

A

small amounts of androgens are still produced from the ovaries (normal), and in obese women these are converted to estrogens in adipose tissue

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11
Q

how does peripheral resistance change in someone with hypovolemic shock?

A

it is high due to sympathetic activation to try to maintain blood pressure. It also shifts blood towards vital organs and helps blood return to the heart

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12
Q

how does a pineal gland tumour present?

A

Obstructive hydrocephalus and

Parinaud syndrome

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13
Q

what is parinaud syndrome?

A

Limited upward gaze (preferentially looks down), bilateral lid retraction, and light-near dissociation (pupils that accomodate but dont react to light)

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14
Q

which zone in the liver is effected by viral hepatitis?

A

zone I

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15
Q

which zone in the liver is effected by yellow fever?

A

zone II

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16
Q

which zone in the liver is the first to be affected by ischemia?

A

zone III

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17
Q

which zone in the liver has the highest CYP450 concentration?

A

zone III

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18
Q

which enzyme converts tyrosine to DOPA?

A

tyrosine hydroxylase

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19
Q

what enzyme converts DOPA to dopamine?

A

dopa decarboxylase

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20
Q

which enzyme converts dopamine to NE?

A

dopamine-beta-hydroxylase

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21
Q

what enzyme converts norepinephrine to epinephrine?

A

PNMT

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22
Q

which hormone increases the enzyme PNMT?

A

cortisol (thus increases production of epinephrine)

23
Q

what is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

papillary

24
Q

how will papillary carcinoma appear on biospy?

A

cells with ‘orphan annie eyes’, cytoplasmic inclusions/grooves, and possibly psammoma bodies

25
Q

how does anaplastic thyroid cancer appear on biopsy?

A

Pleomorphic cells including irregular giant cells and biphasic spindle cells

26
Q

chronic pancreatitis can lead to a thombus is which vein?

A

the splenic vein - runs posteriorly to the pancreas

27
Q

if there is a thrombus in the splenic vein, the drainage of which other veins are compromised?

A

the short gastric veins which drain the fundus of the stomach and drain into the splenic vein

28
Q

side effects of nitrates?

A

headaches, cutaneous flushing, lightheadedness, hypotension and reflex tacycardia

29
Q

what is jervell and lange-nielson disorder?

A

autosomal recessive disorder characterized by sensorineural hearing loss and QT prolongation

30
Q

mutations in which channel can result to a prolonged QT?

A

voltage gated K channels

31
Q

what type of genetic material does zika virus have?

A

ss RNA

32
Q

what family does zika virus belong to?

A

flavivirus

33
Q

how is the zika virus spread?

A

via the bite of the aedes mosquito, but infected persons can spread it via genital secretions

34
Q

what cells does the zika virus target in a growing fetus?

A

neuroprogenitor cells

35
Q

presentation of congenital zika virus?

A

microcephaly
craniofacial disproportion
neurological abnormalities (calcification, ventriculomegaly, cortical thinning)
ocular abnormalities

36
Q

does rh disease occur in the first pregnancy?

A

no

37
Q

can hemolytic disease of the fetus or newborn occur in the first pregnancy?

A

yes - anti-A and anti-B are formed throughout life from exposure to antigens in food, from bacteria, etc.

38
Q

when a mother with blood type A or B forms anti B or A antibodies, what type of antibody are they?

A

ig-M

therefore do not cross the placenta

39
Q

when a mother with blood type O forms anti B or A antibodies, what type are they?

A

igM and igG - therefore can cross the placenta

40
Q

what is female sexual interest/arousal disorder?

A

a disorder characterized by a lack of or significantly reduced sexual interest/arousal, with normal lubrication/orgasm ability

Must rule out other physical and mental causes

41
Q

what are the two types of age-related macular degeneration?

A

dry and wet

42
Q

how does dry age-related macular degeneration present?

A

gradual vision loss in one or both eyes

43
Q

how does wet age-related macular degeneration present?

A

acute vision loss with metamorphopsia (distortion of straight lines)

44
Q

how to treat patients with age-related macular degeneration?

A

both dry and wet: antioxidants and smoking cessation

wet - VEGF inhibitors

45
Q

explain the pathway of golgi tendon organs when they sense too much muscle tension?

A

the golgi tendon organs, when sensing too much tension, are associated with Ib sensory axons, that then synapse in the spinal cord with interneurons, which synapse onto alpha motor neurons -> muscle relaxation

46
Q

what chromosomes are present in someone with klinefelters?

A

XXY

47
Q

what hormone changes are found in someone with klinefelters, as a result of hypogonadism?

A

increased FSH and LH (due to no negative feedback from inhibit/testostone), decreased testosterone and absent sperm count

48
Q

which bacteria is described as pear shaped?

A

trichomonas

49
Q

which bacteria is characterized by having clue cells on wet mount?

A

Gardnerella vaginosis

50
Q

what are clue cells?

A

epithelial cells covered with gram variable rods

51
Q

what is metaclopramide?

A

dopamine receptor blocker

52
Q

what is diphenhydramine?

A

an antihistamine that can be administered with dopamine blockers to prevent motor side effects

53
Q

what is canafligozin?

A

SGLT2 inhibitor

Test reviews DEDICATED (70 decks)

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