Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Test reviews DEDICATED > Thurs July 2 > Flashcards

Thurs July 2 Flashcards

1
Q

If someone has a rapid ventricular rate, where should the radiofrequency ablation occur?

A

at the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where ist he AV node?

A

endocardial surface of the right atrium, near the insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve and the orfice of the coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where should radioablation occur with atrial flutter?

A

between the tricuspid valve and IVC opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where should radioablation occur with an abberant current leading to afib?

A

left atrium near the pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what class of antiarythmic is amiodarine?

A

class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do class III antiarythmics work?

A

They block K channels, prolonging phase 3 (repolariztiation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which antiarythmic has little risk of causing torsades de pointes?

A

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which enzyme converts glucose to sorbitol?

A

aldose reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why does sorbitol formation lead to oxidative stress?

A

the conversion of glucose to sorbitol requires NADPH, depleting it -> ox stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do B2 receptors effect potassium?

A

they cause an intracellular shift of K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gram stain of actinomyces

A

gram + bacillia, filamentous and branching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

actinomyces is associated with which procedures?

A

dental extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

oxygen preferance of actinomyces?

A

facultative/strict anearobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what might you find in an infection with actinomyces?

A

Draining sinus tracts and sulfur granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

would an infection with actinomyces be painful?

A

not usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

are varicose veins usually in the superficial or deep veins?

A

SUPERFICIAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the activation of which system increases endothelin release?

A

renin angiotensin aldosterone system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how would lobar consolidation effect tactile fremitus and breath sounds?

A

increased tactile fremitis and intensity of breath sounds since sound travels better in fluid than air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of shock does anaphylaxis cause?

A

Distributive shock - massive peripheral vasodilation from inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is methylnaltrexone?

A

A peripheral u-opioid antagonist that does not cross the BBB - can treat constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

does methylnaltrexone cross the BBB?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

is methylnaltrexone the first option for opioid induced constipation?

A

NO -give laxative first. If constipation is refractory, give methylnaltrexone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what types of polyps in the intestine are neoplastic?

A

serrated and adenomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are adenomatous polyps that are tubular or villous more neoplastic?

A

VILLOUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how should you pharmacologically treat a patient with low HDL?

A

As raising HDL is not associated with improved outcomes, you should focus on lowering LDL cholesterol - via HMG-coa reductase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

does niacin improve cardiovascular outcomes?

A

No

It does raise HDL, but raising HDL is not associated with improved outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sevelamer MOA

A

binds phosphorous in the intestine and leads to reduced absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sevelamer USE

A

high phosphate caused by kidney disease that was not improved by dietary restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which liver cells are responsible for fibrosis?

A

Stellate cells - activated stellate cells transform to myofibroblasts which proliferate, induce chemotaxis and lay down collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which enzyme do H pylori bacteria produce?

A

urease - splits urea into ammonia and CO2

31
Q

why is urease important for H pylori survival?

A

the production of ammonia lowers the pH and allows for survival in the stomach

32
Q

what causes atresia of the duodenum?

A

failure to recanulize at 8-10 weeks gestatino

33
Q

what causes atresia of the jejunum/ileum ?

A

vascular occlusion in utero

34
Q

how will an atresia caused by vascular occlusion look on imaging?

A

‘apple peel’ sign -blind pouch followed by a spiral configuration

35
Q

what causes hirschsprung disease?

A

failure of neural crest cells to migrate

36
Q

What is hirschsprung disease associated with?

A

Down syndrome

37
Q

methanol metabolites can lead to

A

blindness

38
Q

Ribosomes attached to the RER usually make which types of proteins?

A

secreted proteins, membrane proteins, and proteins for within the lysosome, golgi, and ER

39
Q

Free ribosomes mostly make which type of proteins?

A

cystolic proteins

40
Q

symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A

YELLOW TINT and other vision changes, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, confusion, weakness

41
Q

how is digoxin metabolized?

A

renally

42
Q

where is digoxin primarily stored in the body?

A

the muscles

43
Q

what is the blood supply to the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

right and left gastric arteries

44
Q

what is the blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

right and left gastric epiploic

45
Q

what does the common hepatic artery split into?

A

proper hepatic, and Gastroduodenal arteries

46
Q

where does the right gastric artery come off of?

A

the proper hepatic

47
Q

what is adenomyosis?

A

the presence of endometrial glandular tissue in the myometrium

48
Q

how will someone with adenomyosis present?

A

uniformly enlarged uterus with normal tissue biopsy

-may present with heavy bleeding or abnormal bleeding

49
Q

what is chlordiazepoxide?

A

a benzo

50
Q

carbemazapine MOA

A

Na channel blocker

51
Q

what family does measles belong to?

A

paramyxoviridea

52
Q

what is the polarity and genetic type of measles?

A
  • sense RNA
53
Q

how does desmopressin help to treat von willibrand disease?

A

it induces the release of vWF from endothelial cells

54
Q

vWF factor stabliziles which coag factor?

A

VIII - they circulate bound together

55
Q

a small cavitary lesion in concordence with stroke symptoms is likely a …

A

lacunar infart

56
Q

where do lacunar infarcts usually effect?

A

small arterioles that supply deep brain structures

57
Q

what is the function of hormone sensitive lipase?

A

catalyzes the mobilization of stored triglycerides into FFAs and glycerol in adipose tissue, in response to glucagon, catecholamines, ACTH

58
Q

what do cells infected with viruses produce?

A

interferons alpha and beta

59
Q

what does IFN alpha and beta bind to?

A

IFN I receptors on neighbouring cells and their own cels

60
Q

what does the binding of IFN I receptor result in intracellularly?

A

transcription of antiviral enzymes that can halt protein synthesis such as RNase. They only become active in the presence of dsRNA (viral replication),

61
Q

during which step of the TCA cycle is GTP synthesized?

A

the conversion of succinyl-coa to succinate

62
Q

what is the only part of the respiratory tract that has stratified squamous epithelium?

A

The true vocal chords (these face a lot of friction and thus need squamous stratified epithelium)

63
Q

which part of the respiratory tract may HPV infect?

A

the true vocal cords - stratified squamous

64
Q

in which schizophrenic patients is the drug clozapine particularly useful?

A

Treatment resistant schizophrenia

Schizophrenia with suicidality

65
Q

is clozapine a first or second generation antipsychotic?

A

second gen

66
Q

Adverse effects of clozapine?

A

Agranulocytosis
Seizures
Metabolic dysfunction
Myocarditis

67
Q

Patients with congestive heart failure who are given mannitol are at risk for?

A

pulmonary edema

68
Q

what percent of means would lie within one standard deviation?

A

68%

69
Q

what percent of means would lie within two standard deviations?

A

95%

70
Q

what percent of means would lie within three standard deviations?

A

99.7

71
Q

what is the most posterior chamber of the heart?

A

left atrium

72
Q

which chamber of the heart lies directly infront of the esophagus?

A

left atrium. Enlargment -> dysphagia

73
Q

how far down do the lungs go?

A

Anteriorly: 6th rib
Posteriorly: 10thrib

Test reviews DEDICATED (70 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions