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Veterinary Medicine > SA First Opinion Practice > Flashcards

SA First Opinion Practice Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 core disease we vaccinate for in dogs?

A

Distemper Virus
Infectious Canine Hepatitis
Parvovirus
Leptospirosis

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2
Q

What are the two CORE vaccines used in dogs?

A

DHP

L4

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3
Q

Which two NON-CORE vaccines are available for dogs?

A

KC

Rabies

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4
Q

What is the primary pathogen in kennel cough?

A

Bordetella Bronchiseptica

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5
Q

At what age do dogs receive the first dose of DHP?

A

6w+

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6
Q

At what age do dogs receive their first dose of L4?

A

6-9w+

9w recommended

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7
Q

At what age do dogs receive their DHP second dose?

A

2-4w after 1st (10w+)

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8
Q

At what age do dogs receive their L4 second dose?

A

4w after 1st (10w+)

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9
Q

At what age do dogs receive their DHP booster?

A

1st Annual

Every 3y After

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10
Q

At what age do dogs receive their L4 booster?

A

Annually

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11
Q

How long does the DHP vaccine take to become effective?

A

1w

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12
Q

How long does the L4 vaccine take to become effective?

A

4w

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13
Q

At what age can dogs receive the KC vaccine?

A

3w+

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14
Q

What does the KC vaccine protect against?

A

B. bronchiseptica AND canine parainfluenza virus

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15
Q

How long after administration is the KC vaccine effective?

A

3w (only 72h for bordetella)

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16
Q

How often are KC boosters given?

A

annually

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17
Q

How old must a dog be to receive a rabies vaccine?

A

12w

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18
Q

How often should a rabies booster be given?

A

3y

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19
Q

How long after administration is the rabies vaccine effective?

A

3w

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20
Q

What are the 3 pathogens we vaccinate cats against using the CORE vaccine?

A

Calicivirus
Herpesvirus
Panleucopenia

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21
Q

Which pathogens cause cat flu?

A

Calicivirus

Herpesvirus

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22
Q

Which pathogen causes feline enteritis?

A

Panleucopenia

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23
Q

At what age can cats be given their FIRST dose of tricat trio?

A

8-9w

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24
Q

At what age can cats be given their SECOND dose of tricat trio?

A

12w

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25
Q

At what point after the second dose does tricot become effective against…

a) Cat Flu
b) Feline Enteritis

A

a) 4w

b) 3w

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26
Q

How often should cat flu boosters be given?

A

1y

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27
Q

How often should feline enteritis boosters be given?

A

3y

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28
Q

What are the 4 non-core vaccines available in cats?

A
  1. Chlamoydophila Felis
  2. FeLV
  3. Rabies
  4. B. bronciseptica
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29
Q

What do rabbit vaccines protect against?

A

RHD & myxomatosis

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30
Q

At what age do we first vaccinate rabbits?

A

5w

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31
Q

How often do we administer rabbit boosters?

A

annually

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32
Q

What is the main species of roundworm which affects ONLY dogs?

A

T. Canis

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33
Q

What is the main species of roundworm which affects ONLY cats?

A

T. Felis

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34
Q

What is the main species of roundworm which affects both cats and dogs?

A

T. leonina

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35
Q

How do roundworms infect their host?

A

L2 larvae ingested.

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36
Q

What are the 2 main species of hookworm which affect ONLY dogs?

A

A. Caninum

U. Stenocephala

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37
Q

What is the main species of hookworm which affect ONLY cats?

A

A. Tubaeformae

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38
Q

How do all hookworms infect their host?

A

L3 larvae ingested.

Percutaneous

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39
Q

In what unique manner may A. Tubaeforme infect cats?

A

Infected paratenic hosts

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40
Q

In what unique manner may A. Caninum infect dogs?

A

Transmammary

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41
Q

Which whipworm may infect domestic species?

A

T. vulpis

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42
Q

How does whipworm infect the host?

A

L3 larve ingested and penetrate gut wall.

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43
Q

Which are the 3 main species of tapeworm in domestic pets?

A

D. Caninum
Echinococcus
Taenia

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44
Q

Which tapeworm(s) is/are zoonotic?

A

Echinococcus and Taenia

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45
Q

Which tapeworm has the flea as an intermediate host?

A

D. caninum

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46
Q

What is the active ingredient in Panacur?

A

Fenbendazole

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47
Q

What is the active ingredient in Drontal?

A

Pyrantel, Praziquantel

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48
Q

What is the active ingredient found in milbemax/milpro/drontal/droncit?

A

Praziquantel

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49
Q

What is the active ingredient in Advocate

A

Imidacloprid, Moxidectin (or permethrin)

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50
Q

What is the active ingredient in Stronghold?

A

Selamectin

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51
Q

What is the active ingredient in profender?

A

Emodespsipeptide

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52
Q

What is the active ingredient in milbemax, milpro and nexguard?

A

Milbemycin Oxide

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53
Q

What does Drontal Kill?

A

Adult Roundworms

Immature/adult tapeworm

54
Q

What does Milbemax kill?

A

Hookworms
Roundworms
Tapeworm
Lungworm

55
Q

What does Profender Kill?

A

Immature and Adult tapeworm

56
Q

What does Advocate kill?

A 
Hookworm
Roundworm
Whipworms
Fleas/Mites/Lice/Ticks
Lungworm
57
Q

What does Nexguard Spectra kill?

A 
Hookworm
Roundworm
Whipworms
Fleas/Mites/Lice/Ticks
Lungworm/heartworm
58
Q

What does Stronghold kill?

A

Fleas/Mites/Lice
Heartworm
Roundworm

59
Q

What does panacur kill?

A

Hookworm
Roundworm
Whipworm
Tapeworm (not Dipylidium)

60
Q

What does Endectrid kill?

A 
Hookworm
Roundworm
Whipworms
Fleas/Mites/Lice
Lungworm/heartworm
61
Q

How long is the normal flea life cycle?

A

3-8w - temp dependent

62
Q

What is the most common tick species in the UK?

A

Ixodes ricinus

63
Q

How long is the tick life cycle?

A

2-3y

64
Q

how many hosts are present in the tick life cycle?

A

3

65
Q

Which 3 diseases are ticks a vector for?

A

Lyme Disease
Ehrlichiosis
Babesiosis

66
Q

What are the two main dog louse species?

A

T. Canis and L setosus

67
Q

What is the main cat louse species?

A

Felicia Subrostratus

68
Q

Where is the louse life cycle spent?

A

100% on the host

69
Q

How long is the louse life cycle?

A

2-3w

70
Q

Which zoonotic mite causes intense pruritus, papules, hair loss and crusting?

A

Sarcoptes Scabiei

71
Q

Which mite affects the face, shoulders, neck and limbs?

A

Demodex

72
Q

What is the name of the burrowing earmite?

A

otodectes cynotis

73
Q

Which mites cause lesions on the rump and shoulders dorsally?

A

cheyletiella

74
Q

What is the active ingredient in bravecto?

A

Fluralaner

75
Q

What is the active ingredient in frontline?

A

Fipronil

76
Q

What is the active ingredient in Indore

A

Permethrin

77
Q

What does bravecto kill?

A

Fleas and ticks

78
Q

What does stronghold kill?

A 
Hookworms
Roundworms
Heart worm
Fleas
Ear mites
79
Q

What does frontline kill?

A

Fleas/lice/mites/ticks

80
Q

What does advocate kill?

A

Fleas/lice/mites/ticks
roundworm
lungworm

81
Q

Which medication (& its active ingredient) should be used to control fleas in rabbits?

A

Advantage (imidacloprid)

82
Q

Which medication should not be used in rabbits?

A

Fipronil (frontline)- TOXIC

83
Q

Which medication (& its active ingredient) should be used to control mites in rabbits?

A

Xeno 450 spot on (ivermectin)

84
Q

Which medication (& its active ingredient) should be used to prevent fly strike in rabbits?

A

Rearguard (cyromazine)

85
Q

Which wormer is licensed for rabbits in the UK?

A

NONE

86
Q

Which wormer should be used to treat rabbits for intestinal worms?

A

Panacea 18.75% paste (fenbendazole)

87
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methadone?

A

Full mew agonist

88
Q

How long do the sedative/analgesic effects of methadone last?

A

4-6h

89
Q

What is the mechanism of action of buprenorphine?

A

mixed agonist

90
Q

How long do the sedative/analgesic effects of buprenorphine last?

A

6-8h but not as effective as methadone

91
Q

What is the mechanism of action of butorphanol?

A

mixed agonist

92
Q

How long do the sedative/analgesic effects of butorphanol last?

A

No analgesia
1h sedation in dog
1-3h sedation in cat

93
Q

What is the MOA of ACP?

A

D1 and D2 antagonist

94
Q

How long do the sedative effects of ACP last?

A

6h

95
Q

How long is the onset for ACP?

A

15-30min

96
Q

Is ACP reversible or irreversible?

A

irreversible

97
Q

How does ACP sedation compare with alpha 2?

A

ACP lighter

98
Q

How does Medetomidine work?

A

A2 agonist

99
Q

How long do the sedative/analgesic effects of medetomidine last?

A

10-15min

100
Q

Is medetomidine reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible - atipam

101
Q

Which dogs should have a lower dose of ACP and why?

A

Boxers - sensitive to sympatholytic effects

102
Q

In which patients should ACP be avoided?

A

Hypovolaemic/hypotensive as vasodilator.

BOAS - relaxation of pharynx

103
Q

In which patients should medetomidine be avoided and why?

A

Diabetics - increases blood glucose

104
Q

What effect does medetomidine have on gut motility?

A

decreases

105
Q

What CV effects dies medetomidine have?

A

bradycardia
2nd Degree AV block
Peripheral vasoconstriction

106
Q

What is the MOA of midazolam?

A

GABA agonist

107
Q

What does midazolam decrease?

A

Muscle Tone
Anxiety
Seizures

108
Q

Is midazolam reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible - flumazenil

109
Q

why should midazolam be given with an opioid?

A

May cause paradoxical excitement

110
Q

What is the MOA of meloxicam?

A

NSAID - cox 1&2 inhibitor

111
Q

Why should meloxicam not be used in CKD patients?

A

Reduced Renal Perfusion

112
Q

Why should meloxicam not be used in patients with GI issues?

A

decreases gastric protection

113
Q

What is the MOA of robenacoxib?

A

NSAID - Cox 2 > cox 1

114
Q

What is the MOA of paracetamol?

A

Inhibits brain PG synthesis

115
Q

Which animals can NOT receive paracetamol?

A

Cats

116
Q

What is the MOA of gabapentin?

A

unknown - possible Ca channel inhibitor

117
Q

What is the MOA of amantidine?

A

Mu agonist & NMDA antagonist

118
Q

What class of antibiotic is cephalexin?

A

Cephalosporin - 1st gen Beta Lactam

119
Q

What class of antibiotic is amoxiclav?

A

B Lactam + beta lactamase

120
Q

What class of antibiotic is clindamycin?

A

lincosamide

121
Q

What class of antibiotic is enrofloxacin

A

Fluoroquinolone

122
Q

What class of antibiotic is marbofloxacin?

A

Fluoroquinolone

123
Q

What class of antibiotic is doxycycline?

A

Tetracycline

124
Q

POTENTIATED SULPHS

A

…

125
Q

which antibiotic can be used to treat toxoplasma and anaerobes?

A

Clindamycin

126
Q

Which antibiotic can be used to treat Gram +s, but is not effective against E. coli?

A

Cephalexin

127
Q

Which antibiotic can be used to treat a UTI due to its ability to concentrate in urine?

A

Cephalexin

128
Q

Which antibiotic can be used to treat pseudomonas, but not anaerobes?

A

Enrofloxacin

129
Q

Which antibiotic is good for treating respiratory infections?

A

Doxycycline

130
Q

Which antibiotic MUST be given with food due to the risk of oesophagitis?

A

Doxycycline

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

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