Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary Medicine > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

In terms of cellular change, what is atrophy?

A

Decreased SIZE and NUMBER of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In terms of cellular change, what is hypertrophy?

A

Increased SIZE of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In terms of cellular change, what is hyperplasia?

A

Increased NUMBER of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In terms of cellular change, what is metaplasia?

A

Reversible replacement of one cell type by another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is lipidosis?

A

An abnormal accumulation of triglycerides in the parenchymal walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

Lipid/protein polymers
Yellow-Brown
Wear and tear pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is haemosiderin?

A

Yellow-brown pigment

Storage form of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is haemosiderin found and what does it indicate?

A

Mø’s - degradation of haemoglobin (post- haemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is coagulative necrosis?

A

Hypoxic cell death.

Cell outlines preserved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is liquefactive necrosis?

A

focal bacterial/fungal infections –> complete cell digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is caseous necrosis?

A

Tissue architecture obliterated w/ inflammatory cell border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of necrosis presents with chalky white areas in tissue?

A

Fat necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 4 stages of apoptosis?

A
  1. Shrinkage
  2. Chromatin Condensation
  3. Apoptotic body formation
  4. Phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which cells remove dead neurones?

A

Microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is primary haemostasis?

A

Formation of the primary platelet plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 steps to 1e haemostasis?

A
  1. Exposed endothelial collagen.
  2. P selectin release (rolling of PLTS).
  3. Release of VwF
  4. PLTS aggregate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is secondary heamostasis?

A

Fibrin stabilisation of the PLT plug –> CLOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What mediates secondary haemostasis?

A

Thrombin (converts fibrinogen to fibrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which clotting factors make up the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

XII
XI
IX
VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which clotting factors make up the common pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

X
V
II
I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which clotting factors make up the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

VII + Tissue Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where are the coagulation factors produced?

A

LIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is tertiary haemostasis?

A

Fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What mediates tertiary haemostasis?

A

Plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is albumin produced?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperalbuminaemia?

A

DEHYDRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are positive and negative acute phase proteins?

A

+ inc with inflammation.

- dec with inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hyperfibrinogenaemia is most suggestive of inflammation in which species?

A

Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name 2 negative acute phase proteins

A

ALbumin

transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are 2 common causes of panhypoproteinaemia?

A

Acute Haemorrhage

GI loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What diseases may cause decreased production of albumin?

A

Chronic Liver Dz
Malnutrition
Maldigestion/malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What diseases may cause increased loss of albumin?

A

PLN
GI loss
Burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which enzymes are suggestive of liver damage in small animals?

A

ALT
AST (also muscle)
GLDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which enzymes are suggestive of liver damage in large animals?

A

ALP
GGT
AST (also muscle)
GLDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which markers are suggestive of cholestasis?

A

ALP
GGT
Bilirubin/Bile salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are 3 causes of jaundice? Name an additional cause in horses.

A

Cholestasis
Haemolytic anaemia
Reduced hepatocellular fct

HORSE: starvation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What 4 ways can we test liver function?

A

Inc bilirubin.
Inc ammonia.
Dec metabolites
inc immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most specific/sensitive test for exocrine pancreatic inflammation in the dog?

A

cPLI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do we diagnose pancreatitis

A

Inc Lipase
PLI
U/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most specific/sensitive test for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

TLI (trypsin like immunoreactivity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the best way to test for DM in cats?

A

Glycated proteins (fructosamine vs blood glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the role of LDLs?

A

cholesterol > tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the role of HDLs?

A

Tissue cholesterol > bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the role of chylomicrons?

A

deliver dietary TG to cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the role of VLDLs?

A

deliver LIVER synthesised TG to cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What 2 things do we measure when looking for blood lipids?

A

Triglycerides

Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the two causes of lipaemia?

A

Post-Prandial or pathological

48
Q

What is the major muscle leakage enzyme?

A

Creatine Kinase

49
Q

When is myoglobin released?

A

Membrane damage/necrosis

50
Q

How can you differentiate between haematuria and pigmenturia?

A

haematuria has erythrocytes in sediment.

51
Q

How can you tell the difference between haemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria?

A

Myo: urine red, plasma clear.

Haemo: Urine AND plasma red

52
Q

What is azotaemia?

A

Increased urea/creatinine in blood

53
Q

What is uraemia?

A

Clinical manifestation of azotaemia

54
Q

How do we know if azotaemia is pre-renal?

A

Concentrated urine

Respond to IVFT

55
Q

How do we know if azotaemia is renal?

A

Poorly concentrated urine

doesnt resolve with IVFT

56
Q

How do we know if azotaemia is post-renal?

A

Hyperkalaemia common

57
Q

What would appropriate USG be in a dehydrated dog, cat and horse?

A

Dog: >1.030
Cat: >1.035
Horse: >1.025

58
Q

Hypersthenuria is urine over what USG?

A

1.012

59
Q

What is isosthenuria?

A

Same USG as plasma (1.008-1.012)

60
Q 
What happens to the following during kidney dz:
Phosphate
Potassium
Chloride
Calcium?
A

P ++
K +/-
Ca +/-
Cl -

61
Q

When is hypercalcaemia associated with renal Dz?

A

Horses and SOME smallies with CKD

62
Q

Is protein in urine ever normal?

A

Yes - up to one + on dipstick normal.

63
Q

What is the best test for proteinuria?

A

UPCR

64
Q

What (rare) disease would you suspect if an animal has normal serum glucose but glucosuria?

A

Fanconis syndrome

65
Q

Is bilirubin ever normal in urine?

A

YES in some dogs.

Never in cats.

66
Q

What do granular, cellular and waxy urinary casts indicate?

A

Tubular damage

67
Q

Define Agenesis.

A

Absence of an organ

68
Q

Define Aplasia.

A

Failure of an organ ot develop.

69
Q

Define hypoplasia.

A

Failure of an organ to develop to full size.

70
Q

Name 6 causes of atrophy./

A 
Starvation
Lack of blood supply
Lack of innervation
Disuse
Pressure
Loss of hormonal stim
71
Q

Define Hyperplasia

A

Increase in size due to in cell number

72
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

Inc in size due to inc in cell size

73
Q

What effect does vitamin A deficiency have on the epithelium of the urinary tract?

A

Metaplastic > columnar to squamous

74
Q

Define dysplasia

A

Loss of cell uniformity and architectural orientation

75
Q

Name 5 different round cell tumours.

A 
MCT
Plasmacytoma
Histiocytoma
Melanocytoma
Lymphoma
76
Q

What is the word used to describe a mixed tumour?

A

Teratoma

77
Q

Are malignant tumours, more or less differentiated than benign tumours?

A

More differentiated

78
Q

There are 7 morphologic, anaplastic changes common to malignant tumours. What are they?

A
  1. Pleomorphism
  2. Loss of Architecture
  3. Increased DNA/RNA content
  4. High level of mitosis
  5. Bizzare Mitotic Figures
  6. Loss of Function
  7. Necrosis
79
Q

Which types of cancer spread via the lymphatic system?

A

Carcinoma

80
Q

Which types of cancer spread via the vascular system?

A

Sarcomas.

81
Q

Which types of cancer spread transcoelomically?

A

Mesotheliomas, ovarian adenocarcinomas.

82
Q

What are the 4 stages of metastasis?

A

Intravasation
Immune Evasion
Extravasation
Establishment of environment

83
Q

Which form of UV radiation is the MOST carcinogenic?

A

UV-B: directly acts on DNA

84
Q

What is p53?

A

A tumour suppressor gene, which inhibits G1 (cell cycle activiation).
It is commonly mutated in neoplasia.

85
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of immune evasion by tumours?

A
  1. reduced MHC expresison
  2. Ag masking
  3. Immunosuppression
  4. Tolerance
86
Q

Define Hyperaemia.

A

Accumulation of blood in BVs.
Active = arteries
Passive = veins

87
Q

Bright red tissue is a sign of what type of hyperaemia?

A

Active

88
Q

Dark red/blue and swollen tissue is a sign of what type of hyperaemia?

A

Passive

89
Q

What are the 3 general causes of passive hyperaemia?

A

Organ misalignment
Venous thrombosis/embolism
Compression

90
Q

How does organ misalignment lead to necrosis?

A

Occludes veins
O2 deficit
Extravasation of blood
Necrosis

91
Q

State the size of petechial haemorrhages

A

1-2mm

92
Q

State the size of purpuric haemorrhages

A

> 3mm

93
Q

State the size of ecchymoses

A

> 1-2cm

94
Q

State the 5 causes of oedema.

A 
Inc HSP
Dec POP
Lymph obstruction
Na Retention
Inflammation
95
Q

Which heart disease causes pulmonary oedema?

A

LHS CHF

96
Q

Which haem/biochem change is responsible for bottle jaw in cattle?

A

Hypoproteinaemia

97
Q

List 3 ddx for bottle jaw.

A

JOhnes
Haemonchus contortus
Fasciola Hepatica

98
Q

What is the consequence of LHS heart failure?

A

pulmonary congestion & oedema

99
Q

What is the consequence of RHS heart failure?

A

liver/body/SQ issues

100
Q

What is ANP released in response to?

A

Inc ventricular load (CHF/CKD)

101
Q

What are the 3 factors that predispose an animal to thrombosis?

A

Endothelial injury
Abnormal blood Flow
Hyper-coagulability

^Virchows Triad

102
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial valvular endocarditis in cows?

A

Arcanobacterium Pyogenes

103
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial valvular endocarditis in pigs?

A

Streptococci OR Erysipelas

104
Q

How can you tell the difference between a thrombus and a clot on PM?

A

Thrombus attached to vessel wall.

105
Q

Define infarction

A

Area of ischaemic necrosis caused by blocked arterial supply/venous drainage

106
Q

What is the cause of a white infarct & where are they found?

A

Arterial occlusion.

Heart/spleen/kidney (solid tissue)

107
Q

What is the cause of a red infarct & where are they found?

A

Venous occlusion.

Lung/small intestine (loose tissue)

108
Q

What are the 4 causes of DIC?

A
  1. Massive Tissue Destruction (Sx or Trauma)
  2. Sepsis
  3. Endothelial Injury/IC deposition
  4. Neoplasia
109
Q

What is the underlying pathogenesis of DIC?

A

Widespread microvascular thrombosis causing ischaemia and haemorrhage

110
Q

How do GRAM NEGATIVE infections cause DIC?

A

Release of endotoxins –> shock

111
Q

How do GRAM POSITIVE infections cause DIC?

A

Sepsis due to bacterial lysis

112
Q

Which virus of dogs is associated with DIC?

A

Adenovirus (hepatitis)

113
Q

Which virus of pigs is associated with DIC?

A

CSF/Hog Cholera (Pestivirus)

114
Q

Which virus of sheep is associated with DIC?

A

Blue tongue (orbivirus)

115
Q

Which virus of rabbits is associated with DIC?

A

RHD

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions