Pathology Flashcards
1
Q
In terms of cellular change, what is atrophy?
A
Decreased SIZE and NUMBER of cells
2
Q
In terms of cellular change, what is hypertrophy?
A
Increased SIZE of cells
3
Q
In terms of cellular change, what is hyperplasia?
A
Increased NUMBER of cells
4
Q
In terms of cellular change, what is metaplasia?
A
Reversible replacement of one cell type by another
5
Q
What is lipidosis?
A
An abnormal accumulation of triglycerides in the parenchymal walls
6
Q
What is lipofuscin?
A
Lipid/protein polymers
Yellow-Brown
Wear and tear pigment
7
Q
What is haemosiderin?
A
Yellow-brown pigment
Storage form of iron
8
Q
Where is haemosiderin found and what does it indicate?
A
Mø’s - degradation of haemoglobin (post- haemorrhage)
9
Q
What is coagulative necrosis?
A
Hypoxic cell death.
Cell outlines preserved.
10
Q
What is liquefactive necrosis?
A
focal bacterial/fungal infections –> complete cell digestion
11
Q
What is caseous necrosis?
A
Tissue architecture obliterated w/ inflammatory cell border
12
Q
Which type of necrosis presents with chalky white areas in tissue?
A
Fat necrosis
13
Q
What are the 4 stages of apoptosis?
A
- Shrinkage
- Chromatin Condensation
- Apoptotic body formation
- Phagocytosis
14
Q
Which cells remove dead neurones?
A
Microglia
15
Q
What is primary haemostasis?
A
Formation of the primary platelet plug
16
Q
What are the 4 steps to 1e haemostasis?
A
- Exposed endothelial collagen.
- P selectin release (rolling of PLTS).
- Release of VwF
- PLTS aggregate.
17
Q
What is secondary heamostasis?
A
Fibrin stabilisation of the PLT plug –> CLOT
18
Q
What mediates secondary haemostasis?
A
Thrombin (converts fibrinogen to fibrin)
19
Q
Which clotting factors make up the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?
A
XII
XI
IX
VIII
20
Q
Which clotting factors make up the common pathway of the coagulation cascade?
A
X
V
II
I
21
Q
Which clotting factors make up the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?
A
VII + Tissue Factor
22
Q
Where are the coagulation factors produced?
A
LIVER
23
Q
What is tertiary haemostasis?
A
Fibrinolysis
24
Q
What mediates tertiary haemostasis?
A
Plasmin
25
Where is albumin produced?
Liver
26
What is the most common cause of hyperalbuminaemia?
DEHYDRATION
27
What are positive and negative acute phase proteins?
+ inc with inflammation.
| - dec with inflammation.
28
Hyperfibrinogenaemia is most suggestive of inflammation in which species?
Cattle
29
Name 2 negative acute phase proteins
ALbumin
| transferrin
30
What are 2 common causes of panhypoproteinaemia?
Acute Haemorrhage
| GI loss
31
What diseases may cause decreased production of albumin?
Chronic Liver Dz
Malnutrition
Maldigestion/malabsorption
32
What diseases may cause increased loss of albumin?
PLN
GI loss
Burns
33
Which enzymes are suggestive of liver damage in small animals?
ALT
AST (also muscle)
GLDH
34
Which enzymes are suggestive of liver damage in large animals?
ALP
GGT
AST (also muscle)
GLDH
35
Which markers are suggestive of cholestasis?
ALP
GGT
Bilirubin/Bile salts
36
What are 3 causes of jaundice? Name an additional cause in horses.
Cholestasis
Haemolytic anaemia
Reduced hepatocellular fct
HORSE: starvation
37
What 4 ways can we test liver function?
Inc bilirubin.
Inc ammonia.
Dec metabolites
inc immunoglobulins
38
What is the most specific/sensitive test for exocrine pancreatic inflammation in the dog?
cPLI
39
How do we diagnose pancreatitis
Inc Lipase
PLI
U/S
40
What is the most specific/sensitive test for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
TLI (trypsin like immunoreactivity)
41
What is the best way to test for DM in cats?
Glycated proteins (fructosamine vs blood glucose)
42
What is the role of LDLs?
cholesterol > tissues
43
What is the role of HDLs?
Tissue cholesterol > bile
44
What is the role of chylomicrons?
deliver dietary TG to cells
45
What is the role of VLDLs?
deliver LIVER synthesised TG to cells
46
What 2 things do we measure when looking for blood lipids?
Triglycerides
| Cholesterol
47
What are the two causes of lipaemia?
Post-Prandial or pathological
48
What is the major muscle leakage enzyme?
Creatine Kinase
49
When is myoglobin released?
Membrane damage/necrosis
50
How can you differentiate between haematuria and pigmenturia?
haematuria has erythrocytes in sediment.
51
How can you tell the difference between haemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria?
Myo: urine red, plasma clear.
Haemo: Urine AND plasma red
52
What is azotaemia?
Increased urea/creatinine in blood
53
What is uraemia?
Clinical manifestation of azotaemia
54
How do we know if azotaemia is pre-renal?
Concentrated urine
| Respond to IVFT
55
How do we know if azotaemia is renal?
Poorly concentrated urine
| doesnt resolve with IVFT
56
How do we know if azotaemia is post-renal?
Hyperkalaemia common
57
What would appropriate USG be in a dehydrated dog, cat and horse?
Dog: >1.030
Cat: >1.035
Horse: >1.025
58
Hypersthenuria is urine over what USG?
1.012
59
What is isosthenuria?
Same USG as plasma (1.008-1.012)
60
```
What happens to the following during kidney dz:
Phosphate
Potassium
Chloride
Calcium?
```
P ++
K +/-
Ca +/-
Cl -
61
When is hypercalcaemia associated with renal Dz?
Horses and SOME smallies with CKD
62
Is protein in urine ever normal?
Yes - up to one + on dipstick normal.
63
What is the best test for proteinuria?
UPCR
64
What (rare) disease would you suspect if an animal has normal serum glucose but glucosuria?
Fanconis syndrome
65
Is bilirubin ever normal in urine?
YES in some dogs.
| Never in cats.
66
What do granular, cellular and waxy urinary casts indicate?
Tubular damage
67
Define Agenesis.
Absence of an organ
68
Define Aplasia.
Failure of an organ ot develop.
69
Define hypoplasia.
Failure of an organ to develop to full size.
70
Name 6 causes of atrophy./
```
Starvation
Lack of blood supply
Lack of innervation
Disuse
Pressure
Loss of hormonal stim
```
71
Define Hyperplasia
Increase in size due to in cell number
72
Define hypertrophy
Inc in size due to inc in cell size
73
What effect does vitamin A deficiency have on the epithelium of the urinary tract?
Metaplastic > columnar to squamous
74
Define dysplasia
Loss of cell uniformity and architectural orientation
75
Name 5 different round cell tumours.
```
MCT
Plasmacytoma
Histiocytoma
Melanocytoma
Lymphoma
```
76
What is the word used to describe a mixed tumour?
Teratoma
77
Are malignant tumours, more or less differentiated than benign tumours?
More differentiated
78
There are 7 morphologic, anaplastic changes common to malignant tumours. What are they?
1. Pleomorphism
2. Loss of Architecture
3. Increased DNA/RNA content
4. High level of mitosis
5. Bizzare Mitotic Figures
6. Loss of Function
7. Necrosis
79
Which types of cancer spread via the lymphatic system?
Carcinoma
80
Which types of cancer spread via the vascular system?
Sarcomas.
81
Which types of cancer spread transcoelomically?
Mesotheliomas, ovarian adenocarcinomas.
82
What are the 4 stages of metastasis?
Intravasation
Immune Evasion
Extravasation
Establishment of environment
83
Which form of UV radiation is the MOST carcinogenic?
UV-B: directly acts on DNA
84
What is p53?
A tumour suppressor gene, which inhibits G1 (cell cycle activiation).
It is commonly mutated in neoplasia.
85
What are the 4 mechanisms of immune evasion by tumours?
1. reduced MHC expresison
2. Ag masking
3. Immunosuppression
4. Tolerance
86
Define Hyperaemia.
Accumulation of blood in BVs.
Active = arteries
Passive = veins
87
Bright red tissue is a sign of what type of hyperaemia?
Active
88
Dark red/blue and swollen tissue is a sign of what type of hyperaemia?
Passive
89
What are the 3 general causes of passive hyperaemia?
Organ misalignment
Venous thrombosis/embolism
Compression
90
How does organ misalignment lead to necrosis?
Occludes veins
O2 deficit
Extravasation of blood
Necrosis
91
State the size of petechial haemorrhages
1-2mm
92
State the size of purpuric haemorrhages
>3mm
93
State the size of ecchymoses
>1-2cm
94
State the 5 causes of oedema.
```
Inc HSP
Dec POP
Lymph obstruction
Na Retention
Inflammation
```
95
Which heart disease causes pulmonary oedema?
LHS CHF
96
Which haem/biochem change is responsible for bottle jaw in cattle?
Hypoproteinaemia
97
List 3 ddx for bottle jaw.
JOhnes
Haemonchus contortus
Fasciola Hepatica
98
What is the consequence of LHS heart failure?
pulmonary congestion & oedema
99
What is the consequence of RHS heart failure?
liver/body/SQ issues
100
What is ANP released in response to?
Inc ventricular load (CHF/CKD)
101
What are the 3 factors that predispose an animal to thrombosis?
Endothelial injury
Abnormal blood Flow
Hyper-coagulability
^Virchows Triad
102
What is the most common cause of bacterial valvular endocarditis in cows?
Arcanobacterium Pyogenes
103
What is the most common cause of bacterial valvular endocarditis in pigs?
Streptococci OR Erysipelas
104
How can you tell the difference between a thrombus and a clot on PM?
Thrombus attached to vessel wall.
105
Define infarction
Area of ischaemic necrosis caused by blocked arterial supply/venous drainage
106
What is the cause of a white infarct & where are they found?
Arterial occlusion.
Heart/spleen/kidney (solid tissue)
107
What is the cause of a red infarct & where are they found?
Venous occlusion.
Lung/small intestine (loose tissue)
108
What are the 4 causes of DIC?
1. Massive Tissue Destruction (Sx or Trauma)
2. Sepsis
3. Endothelial Injury/IC deposition
4. Neoplasia
109
What is the underlying pathogenesis of DIC?
Widespread microvascular thrombosis causing ischaemia and haemorrhage
110
How do GRAM NEGATIVE infections cause DIC?
Release of endotoxins --> shock
111
How do GRAM POSITIVE infections cause DIC?
Sepsis due to bacterial lysis
112
Which virus of dogs is associated with DIC?
Adenovirus (hepatitis)
113
Which virus of pigs is associated with DIC?
CSF/Hog Cholera (Pestivirus)
114
Which virus of sheep is associated with DIC?
Blue tongue (orbivirus)
115
Which virus of rabbits is associated with DIC?
RHD
