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Clinical GI (SA) Flashcards

1
Q

Describe acute enteritis.

A

Profuse large volume diarrhoea.

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2
Q

Describe acute colitis.

A

Frequent small volume diarrhoea

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3
Q

Haematochezia comes from bleeding where?

A

Colon

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4
Q

Name 3 causes of acute colitis.

A

Dietary indiscretion
Whipworm
Protozoa

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5
Q

Which 2 snap test can be performed on canine faeces?

A

Giardia

Parvovirus

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6
Q

What is the most important factor when treating enteritis?

A

HYDRATION

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7
Q

How should a non-vomiting/severely dehydrated animal be given fluids?

A

ORT:

Glucose-electrolyte solution

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8
Q

Apart from maintaining hydration, what else must be done to aid acute enteritis?

A

restrict food intake 12-24h.

Reintroduce bland diet.

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9
Q

How does maropitant work as an anti-emetic?

A

NK-1 receptor antagonist

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10
Q

If vomiting persists, a gastric mucosal protectant should be given. Name 3.

A

Cimetidine (H2 antagonist)
Sucralfate
Antacids

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11
Q

How does kaolin-pectin act as an anti-diarrhoeal?

A

Binds toxins and excess water to protect mucosa.

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12
Q

How do opioids act as an anti-diarrhoeal?

A

Slow gut transit

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13
Q

What are the 3 indications for ABs in GE?

A

Haemorrhagic D+
D+ and pyrexia
Known infection

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14
Q

Which antiemetic is given to dogs?

A

Apomorphine

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15
Q

Which antiemetic is given to cats?

A

xylazine

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16
Q

What may be seen on haematology of a dog with HGE?

A

marked elevation of PCV (60-80)

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17
Q

What is the 1e Tx for HGE in dogs?

A

IV balanced electrolytes @ 80ml/kg/hr.

Stop when CRT normal and PCV <50

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18
Q

What is regurgitation?

A

Passive process where undigested food covered by mucus and saliva exit the mouth

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19
Q

What is the gold standard way to assess oesophageal function?

A

Barium oesophagram + fluoroscopy.

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20
Q

What Dz does the 2M antibody test for?

A

Masticatory Muscle Myositis

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21
Q

What are 3 causes of 2e megaoesophagus?

A

MG
Oesophagitis
Hiatal hernia

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22
Q

How is idiopathic megaoesophagus treated?

A

Postural Feeding

Guarded Px - aspiration pneumonia

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23
Q

What are the 4 main causes of canine oesophagitis?

A

Ingestion of irritant
FB
Acute/persistent vomiting
Gastric reflux

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24
Q

How should the feeding regime be changed in cases of oesophagitis?

A

frequent small feeds

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25
What medicines can be given to ease oesophagitis?
Sucralfate Antacids Metoclopramide
26
What are the 3 categories of oesophageal obstruction?
Intraluminal Intramural Extramural
27
Which AB can lead to oesophageal stricture formation in cats?
doxycycline
28
What method of stricture dilatation has the lowest risk of perforation?
Balloon Dilatation Bougienage can cause longitudinal shear tears.
29
What kind of imaging is best for visualisation of oesophageal FB?
PLAIN Rx. DON'T give barium.
30
What should be given to a dog after surgical FB removal?
PEG tube Omeprazole Sucralfate
31
Define Pseudoptyalism
Failure to swallow correct volume of saliva
32
Define Megaoesophagus
Oesophageal dilation w/functional paralysis
33
What is the cause of an oesophageal stricture?
Fibrosis following ulceration of the mucosa
34
Which medication can be given locally to ease stricture tightness?
Triamcinolone Acetonide
35
Where is the most common site of oesophageal FB in the dog?
Lower oesophageal sphincter.
36
How are oesophageal FB diagnosed?
Rx - NO contrast!
37
Intermittent chronic V+, with early morning V+ w/bile, poor appetite and gastric bleeding are signs of which Dz? Tx?
Chronic Gastritis Diet w/novel protein & multiple small meals. H2 antagonist/PPI Ranitidine/Metaclopramide also useful. POSS C/S but not always.
38
Which congenital deformity in brachycephalic dogs causes vomiting 8h after eating?
Pyloric Stenosis
39
How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed? Tx?
Barium swallow + Rx Metaclopramide - prokinetic OR Ranitidine (Ach inhibitor) - stimulates empyting and dec acid output OR Low dose Erythromycin (stimulate motilin receptors)
40
A dog presenting in prayer position w/haematemesis, malaena, weight loss, and pain, could have which gastric issue?
Gastric ulcers
41
Which 2 drugs predispose dogs to peptic ulcers?
NSAIDs | Corticosteroids
42
Which licenced H2 receptor antagonist is used to Tx gastric ulcers?
Cimetidine
43
Which PPI is used to Tx gastric ulcers?
Omeprazole
44
What is the most common gastric neoplasia in: a) dogs? b) Cats?
A) Adenocarcinoma B) Lymphoma
45
What signs would lead you to suspect gastric adenocarcinoma?
``` Old Age Chronic V+ WL/Anorexia Haematemesis Anaemia Ptyalism ```
46
Which condition may cause haematochezia without tenesmus, mucous or D+?
Rectal Polyps
47
What should be done before performing canine colonoscopy?
Starve 48h Polyethylene Glycol 3x 4h apart 2x warm water enemas
48
Which 2 therapies are used exclusively for LI D+ c/f SI D+?
Fibre Supplement | Sulfasalazine
49
What are the 3 methods for Dx of tritrichomonas fetus in the cat?
Saline Smear Culture PCR
50
What test is used to measure malabsorption?
Folate/Cobalamin
51
Which test is used for hypoadrenocorticism?
ACTH stim test / Basal cortisol
52
Which test is used for hyperthyroidism?
Total Thyroxine
53
Which test is used for Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
TLI
54
Which test is used for pancreatitis?
PLI
55
Which neurological disease may lead to constipation? Tx?
Idiopathic Megacolon | Surgery
56
How is constipation managed?
Laxatives Enemas Dietary Management - high fibre
57
Which 3 feline medical conditions are associated with pancreatitis?
Cholangitis IBD Hepatic Lipidosis DM
58
Besides the non-specific malaise shown with pancreatitis, what may affected cats/dogs do which is indicative of this Dz?
Prayer Position
59
What changes are seen to a normal haem/biochem panel in pancreatitis?
Inc WBCC, Glucose, Liver enzymes, bilirubin Dec Ca
60
What is needed for a definitive diagnosis of pancreatitis?
Pancreatic biopsy
61
What is the best Tx for pancreatitis?
SUPPORT: Analgesia (not NSAID), anti-emetics (maropitant), IVFT, antibiosis. Feed AS SOON AS vomiting stops - via tube if necessary
62
What is the most common cause of EPI in dogs?
Pancreatic acinar atrophy
63
What is the most common cause of EPI in cats?
Chronic Pancreatitis
64
What faceal changes are noted with EPI?
Large volume, foul smelling, loose, greasy faeces.
65
What changes are noted to appetite with EPI?
Polyphagia | + coprophagia and pica
66
What would the TLI value be for a dog with EPI?
<2.5ug/L
67
What would the TLI value be for a dog with NO EPI?
>5ug/L
68
How is EPI Treated?
Pancreatic Enzyme Low Fibre Diet Cobalamin supplement
69
What are single, and multiple PSS's caused by?
Single - Congenital | Multiple - Acquired (cirrhosis/hypertension)
70
What is the cause of hepatic encephalopathy?
Dec urea formation from NH3 causes inc blood NH3 & altered CNS fct
71
What are 4 factors which worsen Hepatic Encephalopathy?
High Protein Diet GI bleed Dehydration Acid Base imbalance
72
What are 3 hepatic causes of haemorrhage?
Defective prod/storage of clotting factors Vit K malabsorption Portal hypertension
73
What is the most common liver abnormality in dogs?
Reactive hepatopathy
74
What are 2 bacterial, 3 viral and 1 protozoal, causes of inflammatory hepatopathy?
B: Lepto and bactrial cholangiohepatitis V: Canine Hepatitis virus, Canine herpes virus, FIP(dry) P: Toxoplasma
75
How is paracetamol toxicityin cats treated?
N acyetylcystine Vitamin C Support: IVFT, ABs, Charcoal
76
What are the 5 major DDx for feline icterus?
``` Cholangitis Complex Dry FIP Lymphoma Lipidosis Pancreatitis ```
77
What are the 2 hepatocellular markers in the DOG?
ALT | AST
78
What are the 2 cholestatic markers in the DOG?
ALP | GGT
79
Decreases of what may indicate hepatopathy?
Albumin and glucose
80
Increases of what may indicate hepatopathy?
ALT/ALP Bile Acids Bilirubin Clotting time
81
What must be done before performing a liver biopsy?
Clotting Profile!!
82
When is percutaneous liver biopsy CI'ed?
Small Liver Focal Dz Extrahepatic Cholestasis Bleeding disorder/anaemia
83
Which hepatopathy occurs in young GSDs and Rottweilers, occluding the central vein?
Juvenile Hepatic Fibrosis
84
What may be seen on biochem with a hepatic portal hypoplasia?
Inc Bile Acids
85
What are the 2 subtypes of feline cholangitis complex?
Suppurative Cholangitis | Lymphocytic Cholangitis
86
How should the diet be modified in Chronic Active Hepatits?
Low Cu high Zn Vit supplement ADEK Hepatic Diet + cottage cheese (no protein restrictions) Taurine (Cat)
87
Which 2 antibiotics are useful for minimising ammonia production in hepatic encephalopathy?
Metronidazole | Ampicillin
88
In which 2 hepatopathies should glucocorticoids be part of the Tx protocol?
Chronic Active Hepatitis Hepatic Fibrosis
89
What are the advantages of using glucocorticoids in hepatopathies?
Stimulates appetite Anti-inflammatory Immunosuppressive Anti-fibrotic
90
What are the disadvantages of using glucocorticoids in hepatopathies?
Steroid Hepatopathy Infection risk inc Fluid Retention Catabolic
91
What are the 2 approaches to Tx of Cu hepatopathy in the dog?
Chelate: D-penicillamine/222-tetramine Block Abs: Oral Zn 1h pre-feeding
92
How does S-Adenylmethionine aid in hepatopathy?
Aids detoxification and hepatic metabolism. May aid in toxicities and chemotherapy.
93
How may milk thistle be helpful for liver Dz?
Free Radical Scavenger | Inhibits Inflm
94
How can we treat ascites in dogs with liver Dz?
Low Na Diet | Diuresis

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

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