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Veterinary Medicine > Clinical GI (SA) > Flashcards

Clinical GI (SA) Flashcards

1
Q

Describe acute enteritis.

A

Profuse large volume diarrhoea.

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2
Q

Describe acute colitis.

A

Frequent small volume diarrhoea

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3
Q

Haematochezia comes from bleeding where?

A

Colon

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4
Q

Name 3 causes of acute colitis.

A

Dietary indiscretion
Whipworm
Protozoa

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5
Q

Which 2 snap test can be performed on canine faeces?

A

Giardia

Parvovirus

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6
Q

What is the most important factor when treating enteritis?

A

HYDRATION

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7
Q

How should a non-vomiting/severely dehydrated animal be given fluids?

A

ORT:

Glucose-electrolyte solution

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8
Q

Apart from maintaining hydration, what else must be done to aid acute enteritis?

A

restrict food intake 12-24h.

Reintroduce bland diet.

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9
Q

How does maropitant work as an anti-emetic?

A

NK-1 receptor antagonist

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10
Q

If vomiting persists, a gastric mucosal protectant should be given. Name 3.

A

Cimetidine (H2 antagonist)
Sucralfate
Antacids

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11
Q

How does kaolin-pectin act as an anti-diarrhoeal?

A

Binds toxins and excess water to protect mucosa.

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12
Q

How do opioids act as an anti-diarrhoeal?

A

Slow gut transit

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13
Q

What are the 3 indications for ABs in GE?

A

Haemorrhagic D+
D+ and pyrexia
Known infection

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14
Q

Which antiemetic is given to dogs?

A

Apomorphine

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15
Q

Which antiemetic is given to cats?

A

xylazine

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16
Q

What may be seen on haematology of a dog with HGE?

A

marked elevation of PCV (60-80)

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17
Q

What is the 1e Tx for HGE in dogs?

A

IV balanced electrolytes @ 80ml/kg/hr.

Stop when CRT normal and PCV <50

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18
Q

What is regurgitation?

A

Passive process where undigested food covered by mucus and saliva exit the mouth

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19
Q

What is the gold standard way to assess oesophageal function?

A

Barium oesophagram + fluoroscopy.

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20
Q

What Dz does the 2M antibody test for?

A

Masticatory Muscle Myositis

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21
Q

What are 3 causes of 2e megaoesophagus?

A

MG
Oesophagitis
Hiatal hernia

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22
Q

How is idiopathic megaoesophagus treated?

A

Postural Feeding

Guarded Px - aspiration pneumonia

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23
Q

What are the 4 main causes of canine oesophagitis?

A

Ingestion of irritant
FB
Acute/persistent vomiting
Gastric reflux

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24
Q

How should the feeding regime be changed in cases of oesophagitis?

A

frequent small feeds

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25
Q

What medicines can be given to ease oesophagitis?

A

Sucralfate
Antacids
Metoclopramide

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26
Q

What are the 3 categories of oesophageal obstruction?

A

Intraluminal
Intramural
Extramural

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27
Q

Which AB can lead to oesophageal stricture formation in cats?

A

doxycycline

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28
Q

What method of stricture dilatation has the lowest risk of perforation?

A

Balloon Dilatation

Bougienage can cause longitudinal shear tears.

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29
Q

What kind of imaging is best for visualisation of oesophageal FB?

A

PLAIN Rx.

DON’T give barium.

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30
Q

What should be given to a dog after surgical FB removal?

A

PEG tube
Omeprazole
Sucralfate

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31
Q

Define Pseudoptyalism

A

Failure to swallow correct volume of saliva

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32
Q

Define Megaoesophagus

A

Oesophageal dilation w/functional paralysis

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33
Q

What is the cause of an oesophageal stricture?

A

Fibrosis following ulceration of the mucosa

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34
Q

Which medication can be given locally to ease stricture tightness?

A

Triamcinolone Acetonide

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35
Q

Where is the most common site of oesophageal FB in the dog?

A

Lower oesophageal sphincter.

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36
Q

How are oesophageal FB diagnosed?

A

Rx - NO contrast!

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37
Q

Intermittent chronic V+, with early morning V+ w/bile, poor appetite and gastric bleeding are signs of which Dz? Tx?

A

Chronic Gastritis

Diet w/novel protein & multiple small meals.
H2 antagonist/PPI
Ranitidine/Metaclopramide also useful.
POSS C/S but not always.

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38
Q

Which congenital deformity in brachycephalic dogs causes vomiting 8h after eating?

A

Pyloric Stenosis

39
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed? Tx?

A

Barium swallow + Rx

Metaclopramide - prokinetic
OR
Ranitidine (Ach inhibitor) - stimulates empyting and dec acid output
OR
Low dose Erythromycin (stimulate motilin receptors)

40
Q

A dog presenting in prayer position w/haematemesis, malaena, weight loss, and pain, could have which gastric issue?

A

Gastric ulcers

41
Q

Which 2 drugs predispose dogs to peptic ulcers?

A

NSAIDs

Corticosteroids

42
Q

Which licenced H2 receptor antagonist is used to Tx gastric ulcers?

A

Cimetidine

43
Q

Which PPI is used to Tx gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole

44
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasia in:

a) dogs?
b) Cats?

A

A) Adenocarcinoma

B) Lymphoma

45
Q

What signs would lead you to suspect gastric adenocarcinoma?

A 
Old Age
Chronic V+
WL/Anorexia
Haematemesis
Anaemia
Ptyalism
46
Q

Which condition may cause haematochezia without tenesmus, mucous or D+?

A

Rectal Polyps

47
Q

What should be done before performing canine colonoscopy?

A

Starve 48h
Polyethylene Glycol 3x 4h apart
2x warm water enemas

48
Q

Which 2 therapies are used exclusively for LI D+ c/f SI D+?

A

Fibre Supplement

Sulfasalazine

49
Q

What are the 3 methods for Dx of tritrichomonas fetus in the cat?

A

Saline Smear
Culture
PCR

50
Q

What test is used to measure malabsorption?

A

Folate/Cobalamin

51
Q

Which test is used for hypoadrenocorticism?

A

ACTH stim test / Basal cortisol

52
Q

Which test is used for hyperthyroidism?

A

Total Thyroxine

53
Q

Which test is used for Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

54
Q

Which test is used for pancreatitis?

55
Q

Which neurological disease may lead to constipation? Tx?

A

Idiopathic Megacolon

Surgery

56
Q

How is constipation managed?

A

Laxatives
Enemas
Dietary Management - high fibre

57
Q

Which 3 feline medical conditions are associated with pancreatitis?

A

Cholangitis
IBD
Hepatic Lipidosis
DM

58
Q

Besides the non-specific malaise shown with pancreatitis, what may affected cats/dogs do which is indicative of this Dz?

A

Prayer Position

59
Q

What changes are seen to a normal haem/biochem panel in pancreatitis?

A

Inc WBCC, Glucose, Liver enzymes, bilirubin

Dec Ca

60
Q

What is needed for a definitive diagnosis of pancreatitis?

A

Pancreatic biopsy

61
Q

What is the best Tx for pancreatitis?

A

SUPPORT: Analgesia (not NSAID), anti-emetics (maropitant), IVFT, antibiosis.
Feed AS SOON AS vomiting stops - via tube if necessary

62
Q

What is the most common cause of EPI in dogs?

A

Pancreatic acinar atrophy

63
Q

What is the most common cause of EPI in cats?

A

Chronic Pancreatitis

64
Q

What faceal changes are noted with EPI?

A

Large volume, foul smelling, loose, greasy faeces.

65
Q

What changes are noted to appetite with EPI?

A

Polyphagia

+ coprophagia and pica

66
Q

What would the TLI value be for a dog with EPI?

67
Q

What would the TLI value be for a dog with NO EPI?

68
Q

How is EPI Treated?

A

Pancreatic Enzyme
Low Fibre Diet
Cobalamin supplement

69
Q

What are single, and multiple PSS’s caused by?

A

Single - Congenital

Multiple - Acquired (cirrhosis/hypertension)

70
Q

What is the cause of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Dec urea formation from NH3 causes inc blood NH3 & altered CNS fct

71
Q

What are 4 factors which worsen Hepatic Encephalopathy?

A

High Protein Diet
GI bleed
Dehydration
Acid Base imbalance

72
Q

What are 3 hepatic causes of haemorrhage?

A

Defective prod/storage of clotting factors
Vit K malabsorption
Portal hypertension

73
Q

What is the most common liver abnormality in dogs?

A

Reactive hepatopathy

74
Q

What are 2 bacterial, 3 viral and 1 protozoal, causes of inflammatory hepatopathy?

A

B: Lepto and bactrial cholangiohepatitis

V: Canine Hepatitis virus, Canine herpes virus, FIP(dry)

P: Toxoplasma

75
Q

How is paracetamol toxicityin cats treated?

A

N acyetylcystine
Vitamin C
Support: IVFT, ABs, Charcoal

76
Q

What are the 5 major DDx for feline icterus?

A 
Cholangitis Complex
Dry FIP
Lymphoma
Lipidosis
Pancreatitis
77
Q

What are the 2 hepatocellular markers in the DOG?

78
Q

What are the 2 cholestatic markers in the DOG?

79
Q

Decreases of what may indicate hepatopathy?

A

Albumin and glucose

80
Q

Increases of what may indicate hepatopathy?

A

ALT/ALP
Bile Acids
Bilirubin
Clotting time

81
Q

What must be done before performing a liver biopsy?

A

Clotting Profile!!

82
Q

When is percutaneous liver biopsy CI’ed?

A

Small Liver
Focal Dz
Extrahepatic Cholestasis
Bleeding disorder/anaemia

83
Q

Which hepatopathy occurs in young GSDs and Rottweilers, occluding the central vein?

A

Juvenile Hepatic Fibrosis

84
Q

What may be seen on biochem with a hepatic portal hypoplasia?

A

Inc Bile Acids

85
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of feline cholangitis complex?

A

Suppurative Cholangitis

Lymphocytic Cholangitis

86
Q

How should the diet be modified in Chronic Active Hepatits?

A

Low Cu high Zn
Vit supplement ADEK
Hepatic Diet + cottage cheese (no protein restrictions)
Taurine (Cat)

87
Q

Which 2 antibiotics are useful for minimising ammonia production in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Metronidazole

Ampicillin

88
Q

In which 2 hepatopathies should glucocorticoids be part of the Tx protocol?

A

Chronic Active Hepatitis

Hepatic Fibrosis

89
Q

What are the advantages of using glucocorticoids in hepatopathies?

A

Stimulates appetite
Anti-inflammatory
Immunosuppressive
Anti-fibrotic

90
Q

What are the disadvantages of using glucocorticoids in hepatopathies?

A

Steroid Hepatopathy
Infection risk inc
Fluid Retention
Catabolic

91
Q

What are the 2 approaches to Tx of Cu hepatopathy in the dog?

A

Chelate: D-penicillamine/222-tetramine

Block Abs: Oral Zn 1h pre-feeding

92
Q

How does S-Adenylmethionine aid in hepatopathy?

A

Aids detoxification and hepatic metabolism.

May aid in toxicities and chemotherapy.

93
Q

How may milk thistle be helpful for liver Dz?

A

Free Radical Scavenger

Inhibits Inflm

94
Q

How can we treat ascites in dogs with liver Dz?

A

Low Na Diet

Diuresis

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

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