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Veterinary Medicine > FARM ID (Cows, Sheep) > Flashcards

FARM ID (Cows, Sheep) Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Which 2 major bovine repsiratory pathogens are paramyxoviruses?

A

BRSV PI3

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3
Q

How do paramyxoviruses infect cells?

A

Fusion Proteins fuse viral envelope to cell membrane. Viral Nucelocaspids enter cytoplasm.

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4
Q

Which bovine respiratory pathogen causes interstitial pneumonia and emphysema?

A

BRSV

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5
Q

Which bovine respiratory pathogen causes bronchitis, bronchiolitis and alveolar thickening?

A

PI3

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6
Q

Which bovine respiratory pathogen causes intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the lungs?

A

PI3

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7
Q

Which bovine respiratory pathogen causes eosinophilic inclusion bodies in the lungs?

A

BRSV

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8
Q

Which bovine respiratory pathogen causes disease in cattle 6-18m old?

A

IBR

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9
Q

Which bovine respiratory virus causes necrosis, predisposing to “shipping fever”?

A

IBR

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10
Q

Which bovine respiratory pathogen causes IBR?

A

BHV-1

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11
Q

Which bovine respiratory pathogen destroys alveolar macrophages and lymphoid tissue?

A

BVDV

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12
Q

Describe what occurs if a cow is infected with BVDV in its 1st trimester.

A

Abortion

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13
Q

Describe what occurs if a cow is infected with BVDV in its 2nd trimester.

A

PI calf produced & ?teratogenic effects

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14
Q

Describe what occurs if a cow is infected with BVDV in its 3rd trimester.

A

Foetus Fights off virus

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15
Q

Bovine respiratory disease complex is a product of which four viruses?

A

BRSV PI3 BHV BVDV

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16
Q

What is OPA?

A

Retrovirus –> causes pulmonary adenocarcinoma

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17
Q

What is Maedi?

A

Retrovirus –> progressive smooth muscle hyperplasia in lungs

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18
Q

Which bovine pathogen causes cuffing pneumonia, septic arthritis, otitis media and mastitis?

A

Mycoplasma Bovis

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19
Q

Which pathogen targets the cranioventral lung lobes, and is referred to as enzootic pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma Bovis (also M haemolytica and pasturella)

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20
Q

Which two bacteria are responsible for shipping fever in cattle?

A

M haemolytica Pasturella Multocida

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21
Q

What is the characteristic pathology of shipping fever?

A

Fibrinous pleurisy

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22
Q

Which bacteria is commensal in the UGT but pathogenic in the respiratory tract of cattle?

A

Histophilus Somnii

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23
Q

Which 2 bacteria are responsible for pasturellosis in sheep?

A

M. Haemolytica Bibersteinia trehalosi

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24
Q

How is Maedi-visna tested for in sheep?

A

ELISA

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25
Q

How do we test for BRDC?

A

ELISA or PCR

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26
Q

What is special about the myocplasma vaccine for cattle?

A

Autogenous not commercial

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27
Q

Which virus causes enteritis is calves and winter dysentry in cows?

A

Coronavirus

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28
Q

What are the two major diarrhoeal viruses of cattle?

A

Rotavirus and Coronavirus

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29
Q

Which coccidial disease causes a zoonotic diarrhoea of calves/lambs?

A

Cryptosporidium Parvum

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30
Q

Which gram -ve pathogen may cause calf diarrhoea?

A

E coli

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31
Q

Which pathogen causes acute, fatal diarrhoea in calves <5d old?

A

ETEC

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32
Q

Which zoonotic pathogen poses no Dz risk to animals, but a large one to humans.

A

E coli 0157 (VTEC)

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33
Q

What are your main ddx for diarrhoea in a cald >6d old?

A

Rota/corona/crypto

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34
Q

What type of diarrhoea is caused by ETEC and cholera?

A

Hypersecretion

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35
Q

What type of diarrhoea is caused by viruses/crypto?

A

Malabsorptive

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36
Q

how do we treat calf diarrhoea?

A

IVFT - NOT ABs!

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37
Q

What is the major route of infection for Johnes?

A

Faeco-Oral

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38
Q

For each clincial case of Johnes, how many animals on the farm are infected?

A

10-25

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39
Q

At what age do cattle tend to present with clinical signs of johnes?

A

>3yo

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40
Q

What is the impact of subclinical johnes disease?

A

Lower Yield Inc lameness Inc mastitis

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41
Q

How long does MAP survive in the environemnt?

A

12m water 2y soil

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42
Q

Where does MAP survive in the body?

A

Macrophages

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43
Q

What is the underlying pathology of Johnes?

A

Granulomata in ileum and LNs Diffuse thickening of gut wall.

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44
Q

Which immune response is protective against MAP?

A

Th1 response - CMI!

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45
Q

What is the gold standard test for MAP?

A

Faecal culture

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46
Q

What is the use of ELISA for MAP?

A

Can detect infectious as detects Ab. Poor for detecting infected. Sens only 30-40%

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47
Q

What are the clinical signs of Johnes?

A

Bright and alert Weight loss Profuse Diarrhoea Bottle Jaw

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48
Q

At what time point is most of Johnes transmitted?

A

80% in 1st 4w of life

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49
Q

How can we control Johnes?

A

Traffic light system Snatch Calving No pooled/waste milk Pen cleaning Purchase history!

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50
Q

What is the danger of the MAP vaccine to TB testing?

A

Increases chance of false neg - reduced sensitivity

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51
Q

Name the 5 contagious mastitis pathogens

A

Staph Aureus Strep Uberis Strep Dysgalactiae Strep Agalactiae Coag negative Staph Mycoplasma

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52
Q

Name the 3 environmental mastitis pathogens

A

Strep Uberis E coli Klebsiella Pneumonia

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53
Q

What is the best way to diagnose common mastitis pathogens?

A

PCR

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54
Q

Describe the staining/morphology of S aureus.

A

Gram + cocci

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55
Q

What is the most common mastitis pathogen?

A

Staph Aureus

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56
Q

What are the 3 ways staph aureus is spread?

A

Milking Parlous Heifer Teat sucking Flies

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57
Q

why is staph aureus mastitis hard to diagnose?

A

intermittent shed, survives intracellularly

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58
Q

Which pathogen may cause gangrenous mastitis, or blockage of secretory ducts and abscessation?

A

Staph aureus

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59
Q

Describe the staining/morphology of S agalactiae.

A

Gram + cocci NON-haemolytic

60
Q

How severe is S agalactiae mastitis usually?

A

Subclinical or grade 1/2.

61
Q

How is S agalactiae treated?

A

PREVENT w/ hygiene Responds well to Tx

62
Q

What are the 3 grades of mastitis?

A
  1. Mild - milk chanegs only 2. Moderate - milk and udder changes 3. Severe - cow systemically unwell
63
Q

Describe the staining/morphology of S dysgalactiae.

A

Gram + coccus Alpha haemolytic

64
Q

What are the common sources of S. dysgalactiae infection?

A

Teat licking Summer mastitis SKIN DAMAGE major RF

65
Q

How do we treat s dysgalactiae infection?

A

Penicillins

66
Q

What are the signs of mycoplasma mastitis?

A

Marked Milk Drop Swollen/destroyed quarter No systemic illness

67
Q

Why should mycoplasma milk not be fed to calves?

A

Pneumonia and otitis risk

68
Q

How is Mycoplasma mastitis controlled/treated?

A

Hygiene & cull POOR AB response!

69
Q

What type of mastitis is caused by coagulase negative staphs?

A

Mild, High SCC

70
Q

How is coag negative staph mastitis treated?

A

Penicillins

71
Q

Describe the morphology and staining of E coli.

A

Gram - Rod Both haemolytic and non-haemolytic

72
Q

Why are housed cattle more at risk of E coli mastitis?

A

Hygiene issue - RF is faeces!

73
Q

When are clinical cases of E coli mastitis most commonly seen?

A

EARLY lactation - acquired in dry/peri-parturient period.

74
Q

Which mastitis can cause endotoxic shock?

75
Q

What is the use of “startvac” for mastitis?

A

Reduced severity of E coli toxic mastitis

76
Q

Describe the morphology/staining of strep uberis.

A

Gram + cocci Non-heamolytic

77
Q

What are the 3 RFs for strep uberis mastitis?

A

Straw yard Starw Bedding Muddy Fields

78
Q

What is the most common presentation of strep uberis mastitis?

A

Persistent sub-clinical infection

79
Q

Which spp of fly spread summer mastitis?

A

Hydrotea irritans

80
Q

What are the clinical signs of summer mastitis?

A

Hot, hard swollen udder Thick purulent secretion Possible lameness & systemic illness

81
Q

Define metritis.

A

Iflm of uterus caused by bacterial infection. Foul smelling discharge +/- fever <21 DIM

82
Q

What are the 4 most common bacterial pathogens associated with metritis?

A

E coli (w1) T pyogenes F necrophorum Prevotella

83
Q

Describe the staining/O2 activity of F necrophorum.

A

Gram -ve, anaerobe

84
Q

Describe the staining of T pyogenes

85
Q

Which virus is associated with metritis in the cow?

86
Q

Define endometritis

A

inflm of endometrium caused by bacterial infection. Purulent Discharge. >21 DIM

87
Q

What are the 4 grades of endometritis?

A

0 clear discharge 1 some fleck of white 2 <50% white material 3 >50% white material

88
Q

Which pathogen is respinsible for viral vaginitis?

A

IBR - BHV1

89
Q

How is viral vaginitis spread & what is the result?

A

Infected bull Abortion

90
Q

Which STD in cows may cause abortion and chronic endometritis?

A

Campylobacter fetus venerealis

91
Q

Define bovine pyometra.

A

Intrauterine accumulation of pus w/ persistent CL and no signs of heat

92
Q

Define abortion in the cow.

A

Fetus born <270d post conception

93
Q

What are potential reproductive signs of Leptospira infection in cattle?

A

Abortion Weak Calves RFM Infertility

94
Q

Which serovar of salmonella is most commonly associated with abortion?

95
Q

what is special about the IBR vaccine?

A

Marker vaccine - can tell infected form vaccinated

95
Q

what is special about the IBR vaccine?

A

Marker vaccine - can tell infected form vaccinated

96
Q

Which type of virus is BVD?

A

Pestivirus

97
Q

Describe the clinical signs of BVD.

A

Mild diarrhoea and enteritis

98
Q

What leads to a cow being persistently infected with BVD?

A

Infected as neonate in 1st 90d gestation

99
Q

How do we diagnose a carrier of BVD?

A

Presence of virus

100
Q

Which type of virus is BVD?

A

Pestivirus

101
Q

Describe the clinical signs of BVD.

A

Mild diarrhoea and enteritis

102
Q

What leads to a cow being persistently infected with BVD?

A

Infected as neonate in 1st 90d gestation

103
Q

How do we diagnose a carrier of BVD?

A

Presence of virus

104
Q

What are the clinical signs of foul in the foot?

A

severe, acute lameness fever/anorexia swollen interdigital space

105
Q

How is foul in the foot treated?

A

3d systemic penicillin/oxytet/macrolide

106
Q

How long is ovine gestation?

107
Q

What are the 4 main abortive agents of the sheep?

A

Chlamydia Toxoplasma Salmonella Campylobacter

108
Q

Which bacteria causes abortion in indoor lambs in sheep infected >90d in lamb?

109
Q

Which pathogen causes abortion storms in sheep?

110
Q

How can we control chlamydia in sheep?

A

Vaccination

111
Q

What is the definitive host of toxoplasma gondii?

112
Q

In which two populations of sheep is immunity to toxoplasma likely?

A

Aborted Ewes Non-pregnant infected ewes

113
Q

Which abortive agent produces “frosted strawberry cotyledones”? (sheep)

A

Toxoplasma

114
Q

How is toxoplasma prevented in sheep?

A

Vaccination 3w pre-tupping

115
Q

Which ovine pathogen causes abortion in the last 1/3 of pregnancy with metritis post-abortion?

A

Salmonella abortus ovis

116
Q

How do we prevent salmonella abortion in sheep?

A

Biosecurity Closed Flock Antibiotics (oxytetracycline)

117
Q

Which bacteria causes abortion in last 6w OR weak born lambs?

A

Campylobacter fetus fetus

118
Q

What is the cause of border dz?

A

Pestivirus

119
Q

What are the signs of border dz in a flock of sheep?

A

Barren ewe Still birth Small/weak lambs Hairy Shakers

120
Q

What happens if a ewe is infected with border Dz <60d in lamb?

A

Abortion of 50%, 50% normal

121
Q

What happens if a ewe is infected with border Dz 60-85d in lamb?

A

Abortion Weak/shaky lamb

122
Q

What happens if a ewe is infected with border Dz >85d in lamb?

A

Normal Ab + lamb

123
Q

What is the risk factor for listeria monocytogenes in sheep?

124
Q

What are the 3 potential illnesses from listeria in sheep?

A

Encephalitis Abortion Septicaemia

125
Q

Which pathogen, carried by ticks, causes infertility, abortion and immunosuppresion?

A

Anaplasma phagoctyophila

126
Q

Which pathogen, spread by ticks, causes abortion storms, still births and poor lambs?

127
Q

What are the two main histopathological features of priondisease?

A

Vacuolation of brain Neuron loss Spongiform changes ot brain

128
Q

Which disease of sheep is caused by prions?

129
Q

What are the clinical signs of scrapie?

A

Ataxia, Tremors, Rubbing, Loss of BCS, Death

130
Q

What are the typical signs of BSE?

A

ataxia, nervousnes, aggression, loss of BCS

131
Q

Which spirochete is spread by ixodes ticks?

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

132
Q

What are the clinical signs of lyme disease?

A

Fever, lameness, joint swelling, swollen LNs & lethargy

133
Q

What are the clinical signs of foul in the foot?

A

severe, acute lameness fever/anorexia swollen interdigital space

133
Q

What are the clinical signs of foul in the foot?

A

severe, acute lameness fever/anorexia swollen interdigital space

133
Q

How is foul in the foot treated?

A

3d systemic penicillin/oxytet/macrolide

134
Q

Which pathogen, causing purulent placentitis, is the UK free of?

A

Brucella Abortus

135
Q

Which pathogen is responsible for CODD?

A

Dcihelobacter nodosus

136
Q

What are the clinical signs of CODD?

A

Interdigital dermatitis > under-running hoof wall

137
Q

How is CODD treated?

A

Trim and apply topic disinfectants. CuSO4 foot baths good

138
Q

What is the cause of bovine foot rot & foul?

A

F necrophorum

139
Q

What is the tick vector or canine babesiosis?

A

Dermacentor Reticularis

140
Q

Which porcine Dz is spread by ornithodirus ticks?

A

African Swine Fever

141
Q

What is the vector for dilofilaria in dogs?

142
Q

Which fatal Dz of horses and humans is spread by mosquitoes?

A

West nile virus

143
Q

What is the vector of both blue tongue virus and african horse sickness?

A

Culicoides biting midges

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

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