Oncology (SA) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the gold standard method for solid tumour diagnosis?

A

Histopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which biopsy technique should NOT be used in lymph nodes?

A

Needle Core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which biopsy technique can be used for cutaneous/superficial lesions only?

A

Punch biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which 3 types of tumour should be examined using an excisional biopsy?

A

Mammary Tumour
Haemorrhagic splenic mass
Pulmonary tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What information does lymphangioprahy give you?

A

Which nodes a tumour drains to - NOT if mets present!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is the most sensitive test for LN mets?

A

FNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mot sensitive test for lung mets?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the best method to test for mets to parenchymatous organs?

A

US (+FNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which solid tumours are spread haematogenously?

A

– Sarcomas

– Malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which solid tumours are spread via the lymphatic system?

A

– Mast cell tumours
– Carcinomas
– Malignant melanomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which types of cancer can be treated with single-agent therapy?

A

exquisitely sensitive tumours (Transmissible venereal tumour)
Platinum compounds in osteosarcoma
Doxorubicin in high grade STS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Below what Neutrophil count should chemo NOT be administered?

A

<3x109/l dog

<2.5x109/l cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which chemo drug may cause sterile haemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which chemodrug is hepatotoxic?

A

Lomustine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which chemo drug(s) is/are nephro toxic?

A

cisplatin, doxorubicin (cats), lomustine (dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which chemo drug causes peripheral neurotoxicity?

A

vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which chemo drug(s) cause(s) cumulative cardiotoxicity & DCM?

A

doxorubicin (&epirubicin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which chemo drug causes Fatal non-cadiogenic pulmonary oedema?

A

cisplatin - CATS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which type of chemo protocol involves low dose cyclophosphamide with piroxicam?

A

Metronomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which 2 TKIs can be used in canine MCTs?

A

Toceranib

Mastinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are MCTs diagnosed?

A

FNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are MCTs graded?

A

Histopath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are MCTs staged?

A

FNA local LN

US and Rx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What Should your surgical margins be for MCT removal?

A

3cm margins & 1 fascial plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is RT used in conjunction with surgery for MCTs?

A

target local nodes

for incompletely excised masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which chemo agents are often used alongside surgery in MCTs?

A

Vinblastine/preds
Lomustine
TKIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are feline MCTs best treated?

A

Sugrery - better Px than canine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which tumour is the most common Ddx for splenic Dz in the cat?

A

SPlenic MCT - Sx best Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Are TCCs bening or malignant?

A

Highly metastatic to local LNs and liver/spleen/bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How are TCCs treated?

A

NSAIDs alone - MST 181 days

Mitoxantrone and NSAIDs - MST 291 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which subtype of lymphoma may cause an altered position of PMI for cardiac auscultation and displacement of apex beat?

A

Craniomediastinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which subtype of lymphoma may cause weight loss, anorexia, pan-hypoproteinaemia (hypoalbuminemia),
evidence of malabsorption?

A

GI

33
Q

Epitheliotrophic lymphoma is caused by which type of immune cell?

A

T cell

34
Q

Non-Epitheliotrophic lymphoma is caused by which type of immune cell?

A

B cells

35
Q

What are the 2 most common forms of extranodal lymphoma?

A

Hepatosplenic

CNS (w/eyes)

36
Q

What are the 5 paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lymphoma

A
Hypercalcaemia
Cachexia
Monoclonal Gammopathy
IM Dz
Neuropathies
37
Q

How do you assess lymphoma Clonality and phenotype?

A

PARR

38
Q

How do you assess cell size, phenotype and expression of aberrant markers in lymphoma?

A

Flow Cytometry

39
Q

What is the gold STD Tx for lymphoma?

A

multi drug chemotherapy

40
Q

Which MD chemo protocol has the highest MST and response rate in canine lymphoma?

A

CHOP (12m MST, 90-95% RR)

41
Q

Which lymphoma chemo protocol is easy to administer to dogs in general practice?

A

High dose COP (6m MST, 60-80% RR)

42
Q

Which drugs can be used to target CNS lymphoma?

A

Cytarabine
Lomustine (CCNU)
Steroids
L-asparaginase

43
Q

Which 2 chemo protocols can be used to improve QoL for Epitheliotrophic lymphoma patients?

A

COP or CCNU + Prednisolone.

+retinoids for symptoms

44
Q

What are the 2 lymphoma rescue protocols?

A

DMAC (Dexamethasone, Melphalan, Actinomycin-D, Citarabine)

CCNU + L-asparginase + Preds

45
Q

what can be done for patients with cancer cachexia?

A

low CHO high fat diet

Omega 3 supplement to reduce inflammation

46
Q

What is the sequence of harm changes in a case of acute blood loss?

A

TP drops

then PCV drops

47
Q

Which testicular tumour can cause BM hypoplasia in male dogs and how? Tx?

A

Sertoli Cell Tumour - hyperoestrogenism causes neutrophilia and prog to BM hypoplasia

tx: castration

48
Q

What should be ruled out before treating ImHA/IMTP?

A

Lymphoproliferative disorders

49
Q

What does schistocytosis indicate?

A

microangiopathic anaemia

50
Q

how is a case of severe acute hypocalcaemia treated?

A

NaCl for rehydration (3-4x maintenance)

+Furosemide (inc Na loss)
Bisphosphonates (slow Ca bone release)

51
Q

What are the 2 main signs of superficial necrolytic dermatitis?

A

footpad hyperkeratosis

Crusting dermatitis

52
Q

What are the signs of paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

ulceration of the mucosa and mucocutaneous jct - often symmetrical

53
Q

Which forms of feline lymphoma are easy to diagnose from FNA?

A

Cranial Mediastinal

Extranodal

54
Q

How are most forms of feline lymphoma diagnosed?

A

Biopsy - wedge. (trucut only for renal).

can also use PARR to identify monoclonal gammopathy.

55
Q

Which chemo protocol offers the best chance for cats with lymphoma?

A

High dose COP

56
Q

Apart from the COP/CHOP protocol, what other Tx can be given to ALL patients?

A

Blood transfusion
Antibiotics
cytarabine infusion

57
Q

How is chronic lymphoid leukaemia treated?

A

Preds/Chlorambucil

1-3y MST

58
Q

How is leukaemia diagnosed?

A

Haem + MDWBCC and smear evaluation

59
Q

Which type of cancer causes hyperviscosity syndrome and subsequent CHF/neuro symptoms?

A

Multiple Myeloma (due to hyperproteinaemia)

60
Q

Which 3 samples shoulf be analysed for cytology of MM?

A

Liver
Spleen
BM

61
Q

Dogs must fill 2 of the following criteria to be considered MM+…

A
  1. Monoclonal gammopathy
  2. Rx evidence of osteolysis
  3. > 5% neoplasia plasma cells/>10-20% plasmacytosis in BM
  4. Bence-Jones Proteinuria
62
Q

Which 2 drugs are used to treat MM?

A

Prednisolone

Melphalan

63
Q

Which tumours often recieve neoadjunctive RT?

A

OSA

STS

64
Q

Which 3 types of sarcoma have a high metastatic risk?

A

OSA
HSC
Histiocytic Sarcoma (not at joint)

65
Q

How is OSA diagnosed?

A

Rx changes - lysis, swelling, palisades

+cytology/histology

66
Q

What is the problem with limb sparing surgery compared with amputation of a limb with OSA?

A

Patient will NEVER be pain free if limb salvaged

67
Q

Which drugs are best for OSA Tx?

A

Carboplatin/anthracyclines

+Toceranib for mets

68
Q

How is STS diagnosed?

A

Biopsy

69
Q

If STS surgery was unsusccesful - what are your other 4 options? Please list in order of suitability.

A
  1. Further, wider excision
  2. adjuvant RT
  3. Metronomic chemo (cyclo+NSAID)
  4. active monitoring
70
Q

Whats the 321 rule of FISS?

A

Persists >3m after injection
>2cm
Inc in size >1m after injection

71
Q

What is the best Tx protocol for FISS?

A

Surgical resection
RT
Chemo (doxorubicin)

72
Q

What is the best Tx protocol for histiocytic sarcoma?

A

Surgery + RT + lomustine/anthracycline chemo

73
Q

What is the best Tx protocol for HSA?

A

Surgical excision

Anthracycline based chemo

74
Q

Which other structures should be checked in ALL cases of oral cancer?

A

Local LNs

75
Q

What is the preferred Tx method for oral cancer?

A

Surgical resection (2cm margin)

76
Q

Which Tx gives the best results for oral FSA?

A

Surgery + RT

77
Q

How is oral melanoma diagnosed?

A

Melanin-containing mesenchymal cells

can also perform IHC

78
Q

When would prophylactic ABs be indicated as an adjunct to tumour surgery?

A

Debilitated patient
Clean-Contaminated or dirtier surgery
Surgery >90min

79
Q

When is LN removal indicated after 1e tumour removal?

A

Contains tumour cells on histology
Grossly abnormal at surgery
Closely associated w/margins