Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary Medicine > Equine REPRO > Flashcards

Equine REPRO Flashcards

1
Q

Define Prematurity

A

Foal born <320d, displays immature physical characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define dysmaturity

A

Full term foal displaying immature characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 6 signs of dysmaturity

A 
Low Weight
Floppy Ears
Domed Head
Prolonged time to stand
Flexor Tendon laxity
IO of tarsal/carpal bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the T1/2 of maternal IgG?

A

20-23d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the time for max absorption of maternal Ig?

A

8h - must be 1L in 1st 6h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What IgG value indicates partial and full FPT?

A

Partial: 4-8g
full: <4g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a normal time to stand for a foal?

A

<1h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a normal time to suck for a foal?

A

2h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the best time to test for FPT?

A

18-24h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At what time will foals need HI plasma?

A

> 12h PP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should the sucking reflex begin in a foal?

A

20m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a normal foal body temp?

A

37.2-38.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the normal RR for a newborn foal?

A

45-60bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should foal meconium be passed yb?

A

24h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How much milk should a foal consume per day?

A

20% BW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 main presentations of sepsis in the foal?

A

Umbilical infection
Pneumonia
Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of pathogen produces a diffuse interstitial pneumonia?

A

Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which 2 drugs can be given as an infusion to provide circulatory suppport to the foal?

A

Dobutamine
OR
Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which ABs cause nephrotoxicity in foals?

A

Aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is ESSENTIAL to aid resp function of the foal?

A

Move to sternal recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 4 ways in which Septic Shock leads to death in the foal?

A

Multiple organ failure
CNS depression
Renal Failure
Circulatory decompensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At what age does SCID normally resent?

A

1-2m old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 diagnostic features of SCID?

A

clinical signs

Persistent lymphopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the predominant sign of Perinatal Asphyxia Syndrome?

A

Hypoxic encephalopathy - caused by reperfusion injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A moderate form of which Dz causes aimless wandering, “barkers” and blindness?

A

Perinatal asphyxia syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is given BID in fluids if cerebral oedema is present in foals?

A

DMSO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are foal seizures controlled?

A

Diazepam

Phenobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is your main DDx for a 2d old foal presenting with dys/stranguria?

A

Ruptured Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What haemogram changes would you noticed on a foal wiht a ruptured bladder?

A

Post-renal azotaemia.
Hypo Na/Cl
Hyper K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should be noted about foal creatinine vs adult horse?

A

30-40% higher is NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which ratio of peritoneal fluid:serum creatinine would indicate a ruptured bladder?

A

> 2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Before surgical correction, how should a ruptured bladder be managed? (4)

A

IV fluids (met acid)
0.9% saline 5% glucose to reduce HyperK+
O2 therapy
Remove abdo fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do you differentiate between blood low and haemolytic anaemia in the foal?

A

Blood loss = low protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At what age does neonatal isoerythrolysis present?

A

24h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the main Ddx for NI?

A

Jaundice: Tyzzers, EHV, Sepsis
Anaemia: Haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which test will confirm neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

Coombs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What PCV indicates the need for a blood transfusion to a foal?

A

12-15% or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the name and treatment for mild D+ in foals 5-12d old?

A

Foal Heat diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which infectious agent(s) cause(s) a severe, peracute, necrotising D+?

A

C difficile/perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does the PCR/ELISA test for in clostridial D+?

A

Clostridial Toxins - bacteria commensal so interpretation of culture difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is clostridial diarrhoea treated?

A

Metronidazole

Penicillin

42
Q

How long is the incubation period for crypto?

A

3-7d

43
Q

How is crypto diagnosed?

A

Sugar Floatation - faecal oocytes present

44
Q

Which 3 viruses cause foal D+ by invading and destroying intestinal villi?

A

Immunocompromised: Adenovirus/Coronavirus

All foals: Rotavirus

45
Q

Which disinfectant must be used for suspected rotavirus cases?

A

Phenolic Disinfectant

46
Q

When is the rotavirus vaccine administered?

A

To pregnant mare

47
Q

Which pathogen is responsible for Equine Proliferative Enteropathy (EPE) in foals 3-11m?

A

Lawsonia Intracellularis

48
Q

What are the clinica signs of EPE?

A

Weight loss, Oedema, lethargy, depression, weakness, mild colic (due to abdominal abscesses)

49
Q

Which ABs are used to treat EPE?

A

Rifampin
Erythromycin
Oxytetracycline

50
Q

At what age does a filly undergo puberty

A

12-24m

51
Q

How long is equine dioestrus?

A

16-17d

52
Q

What size is the dominant follicle at ovulation?

A

35mm

53
Q

On US scan, the ovary has a “bunch of grapes” appearance. What does this indicate?

A

Horse in transitional period between anoestrus and cyclic activity.

54
Q

What oestrus manipulation is caused by prostaglandin administration?

A

Induce luteolysis in CL.

Oestrus 3-5d post-injection.

55
Q

What SEs are common following prostaglandin administration?

A

Colic
Sweating
Diarrhoea

56
Q

What oestrus manipulation is caused by progestagen administration?

A

Oestrus suppression.

Withdrawal causes rebound activity - use to shorten transitional period.

57
Q

What oestrus manipulation is caused by oestrogen administration?

A

Behavioural signs ONLY. No true changes.

58
Q

What oestrus manipulation is caused by Chorionic Gonadotropin administration?

A

In Oestrus - induces ovulation of dominant follicle in 24h

59
Q

What oestrus manipulation is caused by GnRH analogue administration?

A

If follicle >30cm - induce oestrus within 48h

60
Q

What is the name of the commonly used GnRH analogue in horses?

A

Deslorelin

61
Q

How long should artificial light be provided over winter, in order to manipulate the breeding season?

A

16h (from 2-4w pre winter solistice)

62
Q

When should mares be served?

A

24-48h prior to ovulation

63
Q

How long are spermatozoa viable in the equine female repro tract?

A

48h

64
Q

How long after ovulation does oestrus behaviour cease in the mare?

A

24h

65
Q

What are the 4 signs of oestrus in the mare?

A

Dominant Follicle on 1 ovary
Uterine Oedema
Soft, oedematous cervix
Behavioural signs

66
Q

When should the mare first be scanned after mating? Why?

A

12-48h

Check if ovulated and if only one!

Check for post-mating endometritis & treat.

67
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms that prevent bacterial entry to the womb in mares?

A

Vulval Seal
Vestibular Seal
Cervical Competence

68
Q

What is Caslicks vulvuloplasty used for?

A

Correct poor perineal conformation when pregnant - remove close to foaling/after 2w

69
Q

How is a persistent CL treated?

A

PGs

70
Q

How are anovulatory follicles treated?

A

PGs

71
Q

How are granulosa cell tumours treated?

A

Surgical removal

72
Q

Which agents often cause chronic infectious endometritis?

A

Strep zooepidemicus
E coli
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella

73
Q

What is the cause of post-mating endometritis?

A

Inflammation due to stallions repro tract flora and semen.

Self-resolving in 24h

74
Q

What are the 3 methods for diagnosing endometririts?

A

Scan
Swab and Smear
Endometrial biopsy

75
Q

How should endometritis be treated?

A

Uterine lavage (saline)
Oxytocin
IU ABs - ceftiofur

76
Q

How is endometritis prevented?

A

AI

77
Q

At what age does endometrosis begin in horses?

A

11-12y

78
Q

What pre-breeding disease clearance is done in the mare?

A

CEM (Taylorella), Klebsiella, Psuedomonas

Sites: Clitoral Fossa, Urethral Fossa, Uterine swab

Medium: Charcoal

79
Q

When does the embryo enter the uterus?

A

d5-6

80
Q

When does the embryo implant in the uterus?

A

d15-16

81
Q

When are endometrial cups produced?

A

d35

82
Q

What do the endometrial cups secrete?

A

eCG

83
Q

What is the role of the endometrial cups?

A

Secure pregnancy for 1st 5m

84
Q

How is the pregnancy maintained at 200d?

A

Endometrial cups gone - foetal-placental progesterone acts locally

85
Q

Why must attemps to abort a foal be done before d35?

A

Cups prevent oestrus cycling - cannot breed from mare again in same season if aborted after they have formed

86
Q

Which test indicates foetal viability and when is it conducted?

A

Oestrone Sulphate

120d +

87
Q

When is 1st rectal palpation normally carried out?

A

d40 (can be done at 20d if v skilled)

88
Q

When should scanning be done?

A

1: Day 15-16
2: Day 24-26
3: 6w
To identify twins and before cups form

89
Q

If you are only performing a single PD scan, when should it be done?

A

28-35d post mating

90
Q

When is an equine “abortion”?

A

Day 40-day 300

91
Q

When is the highest rate of pregnancy loss?

A

1st 14d

92
Q

What is the most common cause of equine infectious abortion?

A

Equine Herpesvirus 1

93
Q

When do equine herpesvirus abortions occur?

A

> 5m in pregnancy

94
Q

How is EHV diagnosed?

A

PCR of aborted material or nasal swab (if resp signs)

95
Q

How is EHV prevented?

A

Vaccine at 5, 7, 9m during pregnancy

96
Q

Which viral cause of pregnancy failure is persistently shedded by stallions?

A

EVA

97
Q

What should be done before EVA vaccination?

A

Seronegativity confirmed

98
Q

Out of 100 confirmed twin pregnancies - how many foals will survive?

A

1% - 2 live foals

62% single live foal

99
Q

How is abortion induced <3m in gestation?

A

Prostaglandin injection

100
Q

How is abortion induced >3m in gestation?

A

Repeat PG injection - BID for 2-5d

101
Q

How is foaling induced?

A

oxytocin q15m until delivery starts

102
Q

What pre-breeding disease clearance is done in the stallion?

A

Uretha, Urethral Fossa, Penile Sheath, Pre-ejeculatory fluid

CEM, klebsiella, pseudomonas

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions