ID (y1/y2) Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3 common staphylococci species are coagulase +?

A

S. aureus S. pseudintermedius S. hyicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which pathogen is often the underlying cause of pyoderma?

A

s. pseudintermedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which pathogen is often the underlying cause of greasy pig disease?

A

s. hyicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which pathogens are often the underlying cause of bumblefoot?

A

S. gallinarum/Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the underlying pathogen for caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 major types of staph infection?

A

superficial infection toxinoses systemic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A

Conjugation (plasmid). Bacteriophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 6 “S’s” of staphylococcal pathogenesis?

A

Swim Stick Scavenge Spread Survive Scatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the role of adhesins in osteomyelitis/septic arthritis?

A

Adhesins allow staph to attach to collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which surface protein aids staph in causing endocarditis?

A

Clumping Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which surface protein of staphs binds to IgG?

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms staph uses to prevent phagocytosis?

A

Chemotaxis Inhibition Protein Fibrogen-Binding protein (complement c3) Staph Complement Inhibitor (stop complement activation) Staphylokinase (cleaves off bound Ig/C3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What feature of staphs makes them potent mastitis potentiators?

A

Capsular Polysaccharides (prevents phagocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 4 general toxin types produced by staphs?

A

TSS-1 Enterotoxin Exfoliative toxins Cytolytic toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do the alpha and beta toxins of staphs damage?

A

Membranes !! esp RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which staph toxins are responsible for necrotising pneumonia?

A

Leukocidins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which gene in MRSA confers resistance?

A

mecA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do beta lactam drugs work?

A

Inhibit penicillin binding proteins and disrupt cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do we diagnose MRSP/A?

A

Culture Methicillin-resistant? Coagulase test + genetic testing?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Are mycobacteria Aerobes or Anaerobes?

A

Aerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe mycobacterial morphology

A

Rod Shaped (Bacilli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe staining fo mycobacteria.

A

Gram + OR Gram - but Acid Fast!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where does TB replicate?

A

Host Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the clinical signs of advanced bTB?

A

cough & intermittent pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How many days after infection is the tuberculin test positive?
30-50
26
Which pathogen is responsible for feline leprosy?
Mycobacterium lepraemurium
27
What are the clinical signs of avian TB?
chronic, prog wasting weakness diarrhoea Decreased egg prod
28
Which oathogen is responsible for Johnes?
M. Avium Paratuberculosis
29
How is Johnes transmitted?
Faecal shedding contaminated milk
30
What is the pathogenesis of M. avium paratuberculosis?
Immune mediated granulomatous thickening of intestinal mucosa --\> loss of plasma proteins & nutrient malabsorption
31
How long is the incubation period for johnes?
2-4y
32
What are the common Cx of Johnes?
Diarrhoea, weight loss, anorexia
33
Is salmonella anerobic or aerobic?
Facultative Anaerobe
34
Describe the gram staining of salmonella
Gram Negative
35
Describe the morphology of salmonella
Rod
36
An influx of which immune cell is caused by enteric salmonella infection?
Neutrophils
37
How does salmonella survive acidic GI conditions?
Surface pumps to remove H+ ions
38
How does salmonella survive GI flow?
Pili and fimbriae adhere to gut wall
39
What is the enteropathogenesis of salmonella?
PAMPS bind TLR4/5 --\> invasion ---\> CXC chemokines attract phagocytes --\> pathology & immune activation
40
Inside which cells does salmonella survive?
Macrophages
41
How does salmonella produce a systemic infection?
infected macrophages travel via lymph to spleen & liver where they replicate
42
Are clostridia anerobic or aerobic?
Anaerobes
43
are clostridia gram + or -?
positive
44
Describe the morphology of clostridia
Rod shaped (spore forming)
45
Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type A?
Necrotic enteritis (poultry) Gas Gangrene
46
Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type b?
Lamb dysentry Ovine Enterotoxaemia Bovine/Eq HGE
47
Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type C?
Piglet necrotic enteritis
48
Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type D?
Pulpy Kidney Sheep/Goat/Cow enterotoxaemia
49
Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type E?
Rabbit enterotoxaemia
50
What are Kochs postulates?
Organism must be... Found in abundance in sick Isolated & grown Causes disease on infection Re-isolated
51
What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial alpha toxin?
RBC/PLT/Neut lysis
52
What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial theta toxin?
Vasular injury Leukocyte degeneration Shock
53
What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial beta toxin?
Dermonecrotic Cytotoxin Inc capillary permeability
54
What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial epsilon toxin?
inc vasc perm in: intestine, kidney, pericardium, lung, brain
55
What is the pathogenesis of a clostridium tetani infection?
acutely fatal: spores block inhibitory neurotransmitter in motor neurones
56
How is C. botulinum most commonly spread?
ingestion (can be via wound)
57
What is the Cx for c. botulinum?
weak/flaccid paralysis
58
What is the pathogenesis of a clostridium botulinum infection?
neurotoxin attacks stimulatory motor neurons
59
What is the Cx for C. tetani?
spastic paralysis
60
What is the pathogensis of equine grass sickness?
Neurodegenerative disease. Acute presents as colic, Chronic as weight loss.
61
Which pathogen causes blackleg?
Clostridium Chauvoei
62
Which pathogen causes malignant oedema?
C. septicum
63
Which pathogen causes black disease?
C. Novyi Type B
64
Describe the staining of E. coli.
Gram Negative
65
What shape are e. coli?
Bacilli
66
Which pathogen constitutes 90% of healthy intestinal microflora?
E coli
67
Which organ system is most commonly afected by E coli?
GI tract
68
What is the pathogenesis of ETEC?
ETEC bind enterotoxins enter cell hypersecretion of electrolytes h2o follows rapid dehydration & shock
69
What is the pathogenesis of EPEC?
destroys microvilli & becomes firmly attached w/actin
70
What is the pathogenesis of EHEC?
destroys microvilli. inserts shigatoxins. ST destroy ribosomes. cell death.
71
What is the pathogenesis of EAEC?
Aggregate and colonise mucosa --\> release cytotoxins
72
What is the pathogenesis of EIEC?
binds with adhesin enters via villi mechanical damage
73
Which E. coli caused disease is repsonsible for significant broiler mortality at 4-6w?
Colibacillosis (APEC)
74
What clinical signs are associated with avian colibacillosis?
airsacculitis cellulitis pericarditis perihepatitis respiratory distress
75
Which E. coli caused disease is repsonsible for significant piglet mortality?
Colibacillosis (ETEC)
76
What clinical signs are associated with porcine colibacillosis?
profuse watery diarrhoea dehydration acidosis death
77
Which spirochaete is transmitted to domestic animals through an arachnid vector?
Borrelia burgdorferi (via ixodes)
78
What are the 3 stages of lyme disease?
1. Erythema Migrans (not in domestic spp.) 2. Early disseminated disease 3. Persistent/Chronic disease
79
What are the clinical signs of lyme disease?
Neurological Shifting Arthritis
80
How is Lyme disease diagnosed?
Serology
81
How is lyme disease treated?
Doxycycline or amoxicillin
82
Which spirochaete is transmitted in the urine od rodents/dogs/deer and ruminants?
Leptospira
83
Which organs are most severly effected by leptospirosis?
Liver Kidney
84
What are common clinical signs of leptospirosis?
Jaundice (eye) Vomiting Fever Failure to Eat Reduced Urine Lethargy
85
How is leptospira detected?
Serology and PCR
86
How is leptospirosis treated?
Penicillin if bacteraemia Tetracycline/doxy if dog is a carrier +SUPPORT
87
Are treponemes aerobes or anaerobes?
Anaerobes
88
Which condition do treponemes cause in the dog?
Oral Infections
89
Which condition do treponemes cause in cattle/sheep?
Digital Dermatitis
90
How is treponeme-caused dental disease treated?
Penicillin derivatives - amoxicillin
91
Which toxin turns red agar green on colonisation? Give an example of a bacteria which produces this.
alpha. Strep Pneumoniae
92
Which toxin turns red agar yellow on colonisation? Give an example of a bacteria which produces this.
Beta Strep Equi
93
Which toxin does not haemolyse red agar on colonisation? Give an example of a bacteria which produces this.
Gamma Enterococcus spp.
94
What are the 3 types of Ab/Ag testing available?
Direct immunofluorescence ELISA Immunochromatography (SNAP)
95
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is caused by the tuberculin test?
Type IV
96
What is the hallmark cytokine of a Th1 response?
IFN gamma
97
What is sensitivity?
Proportion of true positives
98
What is specificity?
Proportion of true negatives
99
Name a 1st Gen cephalosporin
Cephalexin
100
Name a 2nd Gen cephalosporin
Cefuroxime, Cefoitin
101
What is special about 3rd and 4th gen cephalosporins in veterinary medicine?
SHOULD BE LAST RESORT: WHO CIA!!
102
How do aminoglycosides work?
Target ribosomes
103
How do fluoroquinolones work?
inhibit DNA metabolism
104
Which antbiotics alter metabolic pathways?
Trimethoprim Sulphonamides
105
Which flu subtype can jump from birds to humans?
H5N1
106
Which flu subtype can jump from pigs to humans?
H1N1
107
Which flu subtype is common in horses?
H3N8
108
Name the two most common viral respiratory diseases of UK cats
Calicivirus Herpesvirus
109
What are the signs of feline calicivirus?
Conjunctivitis Oral Ulcers ON discharge Lameness
110
What are the signs of feline herpesvirus
Lethargy ON discharge Sneezing Salvation Keratitis
111
When are live vaccines NOT licenced?
Pregnancy
112
Which vaccine type has a greater association with sarcomas - Live or Killed?
Killed
113
What are the two biotypes of feline coronaviruses?
FECoV FIPV
113
How does FIPV occur?
Evolves from FECoV in infected cats
113
How does Rotavirus cause enteritis
Destroys absorptive enterocytes
114
Which cells are targeted by parvovirus?
Intestinal crypt Bone Marrow
115
What are the clinical findings associated parvovirus?
V+ Severe D+ Leucopenia
116
Describe the morphology and Gram staining of Salmonella.
Bacillus Gram -ve
117
Is salmonella aerobic or anaerobic?
Facultative anaerobe
118
Which species of salmonella most commonly affects cats/dogs?
S. typhimurium
118
How is salmonella transmitted to SAs? (2)
Ingestion - food/water/fomites Direct contact - infected animal/human
118
What are the clinical signs of a SA salmonella infection?
Malaise: pyrexia/anorexia/V+/D+ Abdominal pain Bacteraemia Abortion/stillbirth
118
How is salmonella infection of the SA diagnosed?
Isolation from faeces
118
how is salmonellosis in the dog/cat treated?
Supportive If bacteraemic: ABs! (trimethoprim/sulfonamide or amoxicillin)
118
Which subspp of campylobacter causes disease in dogs?
C. upsaliensis
118
How is canine campylobacter diagnosed?
Fresh faeces with special transport/growth media.
118
How is E coli transmitted in the SA?
NOT! its a commensal
118
Where does leptospira multiply?
Blood
118
Which tissues are infected by leptospira?
Liver Kidney Spleen CNS Eyes UGT
118
How is Ehrlichia Canis spread in dogs?
Rhiphicephalus Sanguiens ticks! ONLY in travelled dogs
118
Where does E. canis live?
Intracellularly - monocytes
118
What are 2 common co-infections with E. canis?
Leishmania Babesia
118
How is an E. Canis infection treated?
Doxycycline
118
What are common signs of mycobacterial infection in cats?
Cutaneous Nodules Draining sinuses Panniculitis
118
How is feline mycobacterial infection diagnosed?
Culture
118
How is feline mycobacterial infection treated?
Rifampicin Clarithromycin Enrofloxacin
118
Which pathogen is responsible for Feline Infectious Anaemia?
Mycoplasma Haemofelis
118
What is the pathogenesis of Feline Infectious Anaemia?
M. haemofelis adheres to & damages RBCs. Damages membranes Removes RBCs from spleen/liver
118
How is Feline Infectious Anaemia transmitted?
via fleas possibly also vertical transmission
118
What are the clinical signs of Feline Infectious Anaemia?
IF IMM SUPP: Anaemic Splenomegaly Pyrexia Jaundice
118
How do we diagnose Feline Infectious Anaemia?
Haem: regen anaemia (polychromasia, nucleated RBCs. Smear: Giemsa stain to reveal small dots adherent to RBC
118
How do we treat Feline Infectious Anaemia?
Oxytet/Doxy for 3w to control Preds to prevent IMHA
118
Which pathogen causes FIP?
Feline Coronavirus
118
How are cats infected with FCoV?
faeco-oral transmission in kittens Transplacental too
118
What are the risk factors for developing FIP?
Large groups Stress Viral Load Poor immune status
118
What are the two biotypes of FCoV?
FIPV FECoV
118
Why does FCoV readily cause FIP?
Mutations to FIPV common and RNA virus
118
Which immune cells are protective against the development of FIP?
Macrophages
118
What does FCoV infection with partial CMI lead to?
Dry FIP
118
What does FCoV infection with poor CMI lead to?
Wet FIP
118
Why can we not develop a vaccine for FIP?
ANTIBODY ENHANCEMENT Pre-existing Ab accelerates disease
118
Where do feline coronaviruses replicate?
Enterocytes FIPV: also in macrophages
118
What is the underlying pathology behind FIPV?
Immune complex Dz Causes vasculitis
118
What is the prognosis for a cat with wet FIP?
Death - fatal Dz
118
How would a cat with wet FIP present?
fluid accumulation in body cavity Malaise Abdo swelling Jaundice Hepatomegaly Dyspnoea Muffled heart sounds
118
What is the prognosis for a cat with dry FIP?
Death - fatal Dz
118
How would a cat with dry FIP present?
Fluctuating unresponsive fever Malaise Variable signs: CNS, eyes, abdo organ failure
118
How is FIP diagnosed pre-mortem?
COMBO Clinical signs Fluid exam Clin Path FCoV serology
118
What changes would be noted on haematology of cat with FIP?
Neutrophilia Hyperproteinaemia Inc bilirubin, urea, liver enzymes Alb:glob ratio decreased Lymphopenia Non-regen anaemia
118
Describe the qualities of FIP fluid.
Viscous Straw Coloured Frothy Clots if standing High protein (G\>A)
118
What test can be done on FIP fluid?
Rivaltas
118
Which serological test can be done for FCoV?
IFA
118
What does the rivaltas test do?
Differentiate transudate from exudate. Drop dissipates; transudate (-) Drop sinks: exudate (+)
118
How should FCoV be controlled in endemically infected households?
Isolate queen 1-2w prepartum Wean kittens early Strictly isolate kittens Check seronegative at 10w old
118
Which are the two main feline retroviruses?
Feline Leukaemia Virus (oncornavirus) Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (lentivirus)
118
Describe the genome of a retrovirus.
ssRNA with RTase and Integrase
118
What are the subtypes of FeLV?
A/B/C A: transmissiable B/C: recombinant of A + endogenous virus
118
What is the most common infectious cause of death in young cats?
FeLV
118
What are the 4 main syndromes causes by FeLV?
Neoplasia Immunodeficiency Anaemia Repro failure
118
What are the routes of infection for FeLV?
Excreted: Saliva, Urine, Faeces, Milk ALSO vertical transmission
118
Describe the pathogenesis of FeLV
Ingestion Replicates (oropharynx & local LN) 1e Viraemia Replication in other lymph tissues 2e viraemia Persistance & Dz Death
118
What factors affect the pathogenesis of FeLV?
Viral Load Age (persistence increase w/age) Immune status (Ab protective)
118
How may FeLV cause oncogenesis?
inserts close to cellular oncogenes May activate proto-oncogene OR disrupt suppressor gene
118
What are the 4 main types of feline lymphoma?
Mediastinal Multicentric Aimentary Leukaemic
118
What is a common presentation for feline mediastinal lymphoma?
Young (3yo) Tachy/dys-pnoea Regurgitation and WL Muffled CV sounds
118
What may be noticed in a plerual aspirate of a cat with mediasitnal lymphoma?
Neoplastic lymphocytes
118
How is Mediastinal Lymphoma diagnosed?
US. Rx, Biopsy, Cytology
118
What are the clinical features of multicentric lymphoma?
Peripheral gross lymphadenopathy Mild Anaemia Other organs may be involved i.e. renal failure
119
What are the clinical features of alimentary lymphoma?
Abdo masses (duodenum-colon common) Anorexia, WL, ?V+/D+, anaemia
120
How is alimentary lymphoma diagnosed?
radiography or a biopsy
121
What are the haem/ biochem features of lymphoid leukaemia?
starts in BM so: Raised WBC, anaemia, TCP, dec RBC production
122
What are the clinical signs of lymphoid leukaemia?
pyrexia, weakness, anorexia
123
How is lymphoid leukaemia diagnosed?
haematology or BM biopsy
124
What are the clinical features of myeloid leukaemia?
Anaemia Weight loss TCP petechial haemorrhage
125
What are the primary causes of FeLV-related anaemia in cats?
red cell aplasia total marrow aplasia non-regen: normocytic, normochromic
126
What are the secondary causes of FeLV-related anaemia in cats?
space-occupying myeloid tumours in BM REGEN ?mildly haemolytic
127
Which FeLV subtype most commonly causes non-regen anaemia?
C
128
When is the FeLV vaccine given?
1st: 8-9w 2nd: 3w later Booster: ?annual - can titre test!
129
What may help prolong survival of FeLV + cats?
IFN
130
What complication is the FeLV vaccine associated with?
FISS
131
How is FIV transmitted?
Biting (most common) Transplacental and milk possible
132
How does FIV cause disease in cats?
Infects CD4 Tc AND macrophage, kuppfer cell, astrocytes
133
How long do ctas infected with FIV remain healthy?
3-5y. possibly life.
134
How can your treat cats with FIV?
AZT - RT inhibitor
135
What do we look for when testing for FeLV?
Antigen
136
What do we look for when testing for FIV?
Antibody
137
What is Feline Panleucopenia?
Feline Parvovirus
138
What are the targets of the pathogen reponsible for feline panleucopenia? (4)
Villous crypt epithelia --\> enteritis BM/lymph --\> panleucopenia Neonatal cerebellum --\> cerebllar hypoplasia Early pregnancy foetus --\> foetal death
139
what are the clinical signs of feline panleucopenia?
Sudden Death Profuse D+ Pyrexia/Dep/anorexia Panleucopenia Cerebellar hypoplasia
140
how is feline panleucopenia treated?
IFN Fluid Therapy ABs for 2e infection
141
How is feline panleucopenia diagnosed?
isolation form faeces PM histopath
142
How is feline panleucopenia prevented?
Vaccine (live)
143
What are the 4 main feline enteric viruses?
Rotavirus Coronavirus Astrovirus Torovirus
144
Which dermatological zoonotic virus may cats have?
Cowpox
145
Which cats are most affected by cowpox?
Rural Hunting Cats in summer/autumn
146
How is feline cowpox treated?
Spontaneous recover in 1-3w
147
Which canine disease is caused by a morbillivirus?
Canine Distemper
148
How is canine distemper spread?
Oronasal infection
149
Where does canine distemper replicate?
Respiratory lymphoid tissue Prog to: widespread lymph, BM and spleen
150
Which systems are infected by canine distemper? (4)
Lymphoid & BM Spleen Epithelium CNS
151
What are the clinical signs of distemper? (7)
Malaise Oculonasal discharge Cough V+/D+ Conjunctivitis Hyperkeratosis Neurological
152
how is canine distemper diagnosed?
RT-PCR. Ab/Ag in CSF diagnostic
153
How is canine distemper treated?
NO CURE! Supportive Tx AB for 2e
154
How can we prevent canine distemper?
Live vaccine at 8-12w
155
Which virus causes Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Canine Adenovirus-1
156
What are the clinical signs of Canine Adenovirus-2 infection?
Respiratory Dz ONLY
157
What are the clinical signs of Canine Adenovirus-1 infection?
Systemic Dz and Resp Dz
158
What is the pathogenesis of Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Oronasal infection Viraemia Spread to many tissues Localises in liver and vascular endothelium
159
Where does Canine Infectious Hepatitis persist?
kidneys
160
What are the clinical signs of Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
dogs \<1y Malaise Hepatomegaly Abdo pain Petechiae Haemorrhagic V&D
161
How is Canine Infectious Hepatitis diagnosed?
Virus isolation from faecal/Oropharynx swab OR serology
162
How do we treat Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Supportive Tx ABs for 2e
163
Which CAV can we vaccinate for?
CAV 2 only! CAV 1 causes corneal oedema
164
What is the target of canine parvovirus in a dog?
Rapidly dividing cells - intestinal villi
165
What is the target of canine parvovirus in a puppy/in utero?
Myocardium
166
What are the clinical signs of canine parvovirus?
\<12w GI signs (V+/D+) Malaise Dehydration Sepsis & DIC
167
How do we diagnose canine parvovirus?
Hx and Cx Viral detection in faeces (ELISA/culture/PCR)
168
What can be seen on PM gut histology in canine parvovirus?
Intranuclear inclusion bodies in intestinal cells Short/absent villi Lymphoid depletion
169
How do we treat canine parvovirus?
IVFT AB Anti-emetic IFN
170
How is canine parvovirus transmitted? (4 Fs)
Fomites, Faeces, Floor and Fur
171
How long is canine parvovirus shed in faeces?
10-12d
172
Which bacteria is commonly associated with Kennel cough?
Bordetella Bronchiseptica
173
Which viruses are commonly associated with Kennel cough? (4)
Canine Parainfluenza CAV 1 & 2 Canine Herpesvirus Canine Distemper
174
Which is the most common virus isolated from KC cases?
Parainfluenza
175
What clinical signs would be present with Canine Parainfluenza infection ONLY?
mild cough serous nasal discharge
176
where does Canine Parainfluenza virus multiply?
RT lypmh/epithelia
177
Which virus causes fading puppy syndrome in dogs \<2w old?
Canine herpesvirus
178
What are the clinical signs of a bordetella bronchiseptica infection in the dog?
Cough & Sneeze Nasal Discharge Bronchopneumonia
179
how is bordetella bronchiseptica infection diagnosed?
Nasal swab/BAL/TTW Selective agar (charcoal or cephalexin)
180
Describe the morphology & gram staining of bordetella bronchiseptica
Gram negative Coccobacillus
181
What is the incubation period for bordetella bronchiseptica?
6d
182
What is the treatment for bordetella bronchiseptica?
Systemic Antibacterial Antitussive Bronchodilator Expectorant
183
Which antimicrobials is bordetella bronchiseptica 100% sensitive to?
Tetracycline Doxycycline Amoxiclav Enrofloxacin
184
What are to zoonotic risks of bordetella bronchiseptica infection?
Affects pregnant and immunocompromised! SO DOES VACCINE!
185
Which dogs comonly suffer from nasal aspergillosis?
Young, Dolicocephalic dogs
186
How is nasal aspergillosis treated?
Systemic/Topical antifungals Surgical removal of affected turbinates
187
What are the clinical signs of aspergillosis?
Chronic Nasal Discharge Haemorrhage Depigmented nose Pain at muzzle/when eating
188
Name 4 Ddx of Nasal Aspergillosis.
Nasal tumour Idiopathic rhiniitis FB Trauma
189
How is nasal aspergillosis diagnosed?
Rx Serology Fungal culture
190
Which viruses are associated with Cat flu? (2)
Feline Herpesvirus Feline Calicivirus
191
Which bacteria are associated with Cat flu? (4)
Bordetella Bronchiseptica Chlamydophila Mycoplasma Haemophilus felis
192
What are the clinical signs of Feline Herpesvirus infection?
Sneezing/coughing Nasal/ocular discharge conjunctivitis Hypersalivation Pyrexia/Lethargy
193
How long does it take for signs of Feline Herpesvirus to resolve?
10-20d
194
How is Feline Herpesvirus diagnosed?
OP swab and VTM - Isolation (2w for culture) Also: serology/PCR
195
What are the clinical signs of Feline Calicivirus infection?
Pyrexia Sneezing/Pneumonia Nasal discharge Oral ulcers Lameness Conjunctivitis
196
Which virus of cats may cause lameness syndrome?
Calicivirus - shifting lameness with spontaneous resolution
197
Which virus of cats may cause virulent systemic disease?
Feline Calicivirus
198
What are the clinical signs of virulent systemic disease in the cat?
Face/Paw oedema Face/Paw Necrosis & ulcers Resp Dz Haemorrhage (nose/faeces) Jaundice
199
How are feline respiratory viruses spread?
cat-cat contact via discharge also via fomites/environment
200
How does the carrier status differ in Feline herpesvirus and calicivirus?
HV: latent and reactivates. 100% carriers. Calicivirus: Persistent infection
201
What are the clincial signs of B. bronchiseptica infection in the cat?
Pyrexia Sneeze/Cough Nasal Discharge Dyspnoea SM lymphadenopathy
202
How does B. bronchiseptica cause Dz in the cat?
Causes ciliary stasis
203
Which cells does Leishmania survive in?
Macrophages
204
What type of immune response is protective against leishmania?
Th1 (CMI)
205
What are the 3 main clinical signs of leishmania?
Lymphadenopathy Scaling/excoriative dermatitis Weight loss
206
What age do dogs suffer worst from leishmania?
\<3yo and \>8yo
207
What can be seen on cytology from the BM/LN of Leishmania + dog?
Promastigotes in macrophages
208
Which 2 treatments are often given to Leishmania + dogs?
Meglumine Antimoniate (inhibits leishmania glycolysis) Allopurinol (inhibits Leish synthesis of purine)
209
What are the 4 clinical stages of leishmania?
A: Exposed B: Infected C: Unwell D: Severly sick
210
Which products are used to prevent leishmaniasis?
Synthetic Pyrethroids - stop sandflies Domperidone - skew to Th1-like immune response
211
What is the infectious stage of leishmania?
Promastigote
212
Apart from sandflies, how is leishmania transmitted?
Transplacental Blood Transfusion
213
When is treatment initiated for leishmania?
Positive serology/cytology **_AND_** Clinical Signs
214
Which Ehrlichia species causes Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis?
E. Canis
215
What si the vector for E. canis?
Rhiphicephalus Sanguiens
216
What does Chronic Ehrlichiosis lead to?
Pancytopenia (due to BM hypoplasia)
217
How is active infection of E. canis confirmed?
PCR
218
What is the Tx of choice for E. canis infection?
Doxycycline
219
What are the clinical sigsn of acute infection with E. canis?
Lethargy/inappetance/polyarthritis Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly EYES: uveitis, retinal haemorrhage, retinal detachment SKIN: cutaneous petechiae/ecchymoses Neurological signs
220
What lab abnormalities are seen on CBC, Biochem and urinalysis in E canis?
CBC: TCP, Non-regen anaemia, pancytopenia BIO:Low Alb:Glob ratio, Inc ALT/ALP Urine:Proteinuria, inc UPCR
221
If Doxycycline doesn't successfully treat E canis - what should be given?
Imidocarb diproprionate, enrofloxacin
222
How is E canis infection prevented?
Pyrethroids or Permethrin Early removal of ticks
223
Which species of babesiosis is associated with dog fighting?
B. gibsoni
224
What are the main 3 clinical signs of babesiosis?
Fever Haemolytic Anaemia (+hypoxia) Splenomegaly - TCP
225
Which cats are most predisposed to B felis infection?
Young cats
226
What is the best Tx for Large babesia?
Imidocarb diproprionate
227
What is the best Tx for feline babesiosis?
Primaquine Phosphate
228