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Veterinary Medicine > ID (y1/y2) > Flashcards

ID (y1/y2) Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3 common staphylococci species are coagulase +?

A

S. aureus S. pseudintermedius S. hyicus

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2
Q

Which pathogen is often the underlying cause of pyoderma?

A

s. pseudintermedius

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3
Q

Which pathogen is often the underlying cause of greasy pig disease?

A

s. hyicus

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4
Q

Which pathogens are often the underlying cause of bumblefoot?

A

S. gallinarum/Aureus

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5
Q

What is the underlying pathogen for caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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6
Q

What are the 3 major types of staph infection?

A

superficial infection toxinoses systemic infection

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7
Q

What are the two mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A

Conjugation (plasmid). Bacteriophage

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8
Q

What are the 6 “S’s” of staphylococcal pathogenesis?

A

Swim Stick Scavenge Spread Survive Scatter

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9
Q

What is the role of adhesins in osteomyelitis/septic arthritis?

A

Adhesins allow staph to attach to collagen

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10
Q

Which surface protein aids staph in causing endocarditis?

A

Clumping Factor

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11
Q

Which surface protein of staphs binds to IgG?

A

Protein A

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12
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms staph uses to prevent phagocytosis?

A

Chemotaxis Inhibition Protein Fibrogen-Binding protein (complement c3) Staph Complement Inhibitor (stop complement activation) Staphylokinase (cleaves off bound Ig/C3)

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13
Q

What feature of staphs makes them potent mastitis potentiators?

A

Capsular Polysaccharides (prevents phagocytosis)

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14
Q

What are the 4 general toxin types produced by staphs?

A

TSS-1 Enterotoxin Exfoliative toxins Cytolytic toxins

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15
Q

What do the alpha and beta toxins of staphs damage?

A

Membranes !! esp RBCs

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16
Q

Which staph toxins are responsible for necrotising pneumonia?

A

Leukocidins

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17
Q

Which gene in MRSA confers resistance?

A

mecA

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18
Q

How do beta lactam drugs work?

A

Inhibit penicillin binding proteins and disrupt cell wall

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19
Q

How do we diagnose MRSP/A?

A

Culture Methicillin-resistant? Coagulase test + genetic testing?

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20
Q

Are mycobacteria Aerobes or Anaerobes?

A

Aerobes

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21
Q

Describe mycobacterial morphology

A

Rod Shaped (Bacilli)

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22
Q

Describe staining fo mycobacteria.

A

Gram + OR Gram - but Acid Fast!

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23
Q

Where does TB replicate?

A

Host Macrophages

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24
Q

What are the clinical signs of advanced bTB?

A

cough & intermittent pyrexia

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25
Q

How many days after infection is the tuberculin test positive?

A

30-50

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26
Q

Which pathogen is responsible for feline leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium lepraemurium

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27
Q

What are the clinical signs of avian TB?

A

chronic, prog wasting weakness diarrhoea Decreased egg prod

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28
Q

Which oathogen is responsible for Johnes?

A

M. Avium Paratuberculosis

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29
Q

How is Johnes transmitted?

A

Faecal shedding contaminated milk

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30
Q

What is the pathogenesis of M. avium paratuberculosis?

A

Immune mediated granulomatous thickening of intestinal mucosa –> loss of plasma proteins & nutrient malabsorption

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31
Q

How long is the incubation period for johnes?

A

2-4y

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32
Q

What are the common Cx of Johnes?

A

Diarrhoea, weight loss, anorexia

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33
Q

Is salmonella anerobic or aerobic?

A

Facultative Anaerobe

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34
Q

Describe the gram staining of salmonella

A

Gram Negative

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35
Q

Describe the morphology of salmonella

A

Rod

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36
Q

An influx of which immune cell is caused by enteric salmonella infection?

A

Neutrophils

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37
Q

How does salmonella survive acidic GI conditions?

A

Surface pumps to remove H+ ions

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38
Q

How does salmonella survive GI flow?

A

Pili and fimbriae adhere to gut wall

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39
Q

What is the enteropathogenesis of salmonella?

A

PAMPS bind TLR4/5 –> invasion —> CXC chemokines attract phagocytes –> pathology & immune activation

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40
Q

Inside which cells does salmonella survive?

A

Macrophages

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41
Q

How does salmonella produce a systemic infection?

A

infected macrophages travel via lymph to spleen & liver where they replicate

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42
Q

Are clostridia anerobic or aerobic?

A

Anaerobes

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43
Q

are clostridia gram + or -?

A

positive

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44
Q

Describe the morphology of clostridia

A

Rod shaped (spore forming)

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45
Q

Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type A?

A

Necrotic enteritis (poultry) Gas Gangrene

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46
Q

Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type b?

A

Lamb dysentry Ovine Enterotoxaemia Bovine/Eq HGE

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47
Q

Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type C?

A

Piglet necrotic enteritis

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48
Q

Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type D?

A

Pulpy Kidney Sheep/Goat/Cow enterotoxaemia

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49
Q

Which diseases are caused by clostridium perfringens type E?

A

Rabbit enterotoxaemia

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50
Q

What are Kochs postulates?

A

Organism must be… Found in abundance in sick Isolated & grown Causes disease on infection Re-isolated

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51
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial alpha toxin?

A

RBC/PLT/Neut lysis

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52
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial theta toxin?

A

Vasular injury Leukocyte degeneration Shock

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53
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial beta toxin?

A

Dermonecrotic Cytotoxin Inc capillary permeability

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54
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the clostridial epsilon toxin?

A

inc vasc perm in: intestine, kidney, pericardium, lung, brain

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55
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a clostridium tetani infection?

A

acutely fatal: spores block inhibitory neurotransmitter in motor neurones

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56
Q

How is C. botulinum most commonly spread?

A

ingestion (can be via wound)

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57
Q

What is the Cx for c. botulinum?

A

weak/flaccid paralysis

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58
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a clostridium botulinum infection?

A

neurotoxin attacks stimulatory motor neurons

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59
Q

What is the Cx for C. tetani?

A

spastic paralysis

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60
Q

What is the pathogensis of equine grass sickness?

A

Neurodegenerative disease. Acute presents as colic, Chronic as weight loss.

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61
Q

Which pathogen causes blackleg?

A

Clostridium Chauvoei

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62
Q

Which pathogen causes malignant oedema?

A

C. septicum

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63
Q

Which pathogen causes black disease?

A

C. Novyi Type B

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64
Q

Describe the staining of E. coli.

A

Gram Negative

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65
Q

What shape are e. coli?

A

Bacilli

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66
Q

Which pathogen constitutes 90% of healthy intestinal microflora?

A

E coli

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67
Q

Which organ system is most commonly afected by E coli?

A

GI tract

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68
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ETEC?

A

ETEC bind enterotoxins enter cell hypersecretion of electrolytes h2o follows rapid dehydration & shock

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69
Q

What is the pathogenesis of EPEC?

A

destroys microvilli & becomes firmly attached w/actin

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70
Q

What is the pathogenesis of EHEC?

A

destroys microvilli. inserts shigatoxins. ST destroy ribosomes. cell death.

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71
Q

What is the pathogenesis of EAEC?

A

Aggregate and colonise mucosa –> release cytotoxins

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72
Q

What is the pathogenesis of EIEC?

A

binds with adhesin enters via villi mechanical damage

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73
Q

Which E. coli caused disease is repsonsible for significant broiler mortality at 4-6w?

A

Colibacillosis (APEC)

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74
Q

What clinical signs are associated with avian colibacillosis?

A

airsacculitis cellulitis pericarditis perihepatitis respiratory distress

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75
Q

Which E. coli caused disease is repsonsible for significant piglet mortality?

A

Colibacillosis (ETEC)

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76
Q

What clinical signs are associated with porcine colibacillosis?

A

profuse watery diarrhoea dehydration acidosis death

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77
Q

Which spirochaete is transmitted to domestic animals through an arachnid vector?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (via ixodes)

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78
Q

What are the 3 stages of lyme disease?

A
  1. Erythema Migrans (not in domestic spp.) 2. Early disseminated disease 3. Persistent/Chronic disease
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79
Q

What are the clinical signs of lyme disease?

A

Neurological Shifting Arthritis

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80
Q

How is Lyme disease diagnosed?

A

Serology

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81
Q

How is lyme disease treated?

A

Doxycycline or amoxicillin

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82
Q

Which spirochaete is transmitted in the urine od rodents/dogs/deer and ruminants?

A

Leptospira

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83
Q

Which organs are most severly effected by leptospirosis?

A

Liver Kidney

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84
Q

What are common clinical signs of leptospirosis?

A

Jaundice (eye) Vomiting Fever Failure to Eat Reduced Urine Lethargy

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85
Q

How is leptospira detected?

A

Serology and PCR

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86
Q

How is leptospirosis treated?

A

Penicillin if bacteraemia Tetracycline/doxy if dog is a carrier +SUPPORT

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87
Q

Are treponemes aerobes or anaerobes?

A

Anaerobes

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88
Q

Which condition do treponemes cause in the dog?

A

Oral Infections

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89
Q

Which condition do treponemes cause in cattle/sheep?

A

Digital Dermatitis

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90
Q

How is treponeme-caused dental disease treated?

A

Penicillin derivatives - amoxicillin

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91
Q

Which toxin turns red agar green on colonisation? Give an example of a bacteria which produces this.

A

alpha. Strep Pneumoniae

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92
Q

Which toxin turns red agar yellow on colonisation? Give an example of a bacteria which produces this.

A

Beta Strep Equi

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93
Q

Which toxin does not haemolyse red agar on colonisation? Give an example of a bacteria which produces this.

A

Gamma Enterococcus spp.

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94
Q

What are the 3 types of Ab/Ag testing available?

A

Direct immunofluorescence ELISA Immunochromatography (SNAP)

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95
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is caused by the tuberculin test?

A

Type IV

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96
Q

What is the hallmark cytokine of a Th1 response?

A

IFN gamma

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97
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

Proportion of true positives

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98
Q

What is specificity?

A

Proportion of true negatives

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99
Q

Name a 1st Gen cephalosporin

A

Cephalexin

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100
Q

Name a 2nd Gen cephalosporin

A

Cefuroxime, Cefoitin

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101
Q

What is special about 3rd and 4th gen cephalosporins in veterinary medicine?

A

SHOULD BE LAST RESORT: WHO CIA!!

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102
Q

How do aminoglycosides work?

A

Target ribosomes

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103
Q

How do fluoroquinolones work?

A

inhibit DNA metabolism

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104
Q

Which antbiotics alter metabolic pathways?

A

Trimethoprim Sulphonamides

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105
Q

Which flu subtype can jump from birds to humans?

A

H5N1

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106
Q

Which flu subtype can jump from pigs to humans?

A

H1N1

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107
Q

Which flu subtype is common in horses?

A

H3N8

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108
Q

Name the two most common viral respiratory diseases of UK cats

A

Calicivirus Herpesvirus

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109
Q

What are the signs of feline calicivirus?

A

Conjunctivitis Oral Ulcers ON discharge Lameness

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110
Q

What are the signs of feline herpesvirus

A

Lethargy ON discharge Sneezing Salvation Keratitis

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111
Q

When are live vaccines NOT licenced?

A

Pregnancy

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112
Q

Which vaccine type has a greater association with sarcomas - Live or Killed?

A

Killed

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113
Q

What are the two biotypes of feline coronaviruses?

A

FECoV FIPV

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113
Q

How does FIPV occur?

A

Evolves from FECoV in infected cats

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113
Q

How does Rotavirus cause enteritis

A

Destroys absorptive enterocytes

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114
Q

Which cells are targeted by parvovirus?

A

Intestinal crypt Bone Marrow

115
Q

What are the clinical findings associated parvovirus?

A

V+ Severe D+ Leucopenia

116
Q

Describe the morphology and Gram staining of Salmonella.

A

Bacillus Gram -ve

117
Q

Is salmonella aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Facultative anaerobe

118
Q

Which species of salmonella most commonly affects cats/dogs?

A

S. typhimurium

118
Q

How is salmonella transmitted to SAs? (2)

A

Ingestion - food/water/fomites Direct contact - infected animal/human

118
Q

What are the clinical signs of a SA salmonella infection?

A

Malaise: pyrexia/anorexia/V+/D+ Abdominal pain Bacteraemia Abortion/stillbirth

118
Q

How is salmonella infection of the SA diagnosed?

A

Isolation from faeces

118
Q

how is salmonellosis in the dog/cat treated?

A

Supportive If bacteraemic: ABs! (trimethoprim/sulfonamide or amoxicillin)

118
Q

Which subspp of campylobacter causes disease in dogs?

A

C. upsaliensis

118
Q

How is canine campylobacter diagnosed?

A

Fresh faeces with special transport/growth media.

118
Q

How is E coli transmitted in the SA?

A

NOT! its a commensal

118
Q

Where does leptospira multiply?

A

Blood

118
Q

Which tissues are infected by leptospira?

A

Liver Kidney Spleen CNS Eyes UGT

118
Q

How is Ehrlichia Canis spread in dogs?

A

Rhiphicephalus Sanguiens ticks! ONLY in travelled dogs

118
Q

Where does E. canis live?

A

Intracellularly - monocytes

118
Q

What are 2 common co-infections with E. canis?

A

Leishmania Babesia

118
Q

How is an E. Canis infection treated?

A

Doxycycline

118
Q

What are common signs of mycobacterial infection in cats?

A

Cutaneous Nodules Draining sinuses Panniculitis

118
Q

How is feline mycobacterial infection diagnosed?

A

Culture

118
Q

How is feline mycobacterial infection treated?

A

Rifampicin Clarithromycin Enrofloxacin

118
Q

Which pathogen is responsible for Feline Infectious Anaemia?

A

Mycoplasma Haemofelis

118
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Feline Infectious Anaemia?

A

M. haemofelis adheres to & damages RBCs. Damages membranes Removes RBCs from spleen/liver

118
Q

How is Feline Infectious Anaemia transmitted?

A

via fleas possibly also vertical transmission

118
Q

What are the clinical signs of Feline Infectious Anaemia?

A

IF IMM SUPP: Anaemic Splenomegaly Pyrexia Jaundice

118
Q

How do we diagnose Feline Infectious Anaemia?

A

Haem: regen anaemia (polychromasia, nucleated RBCs. Smear: Giemsa stain to reveal small dots adherent to RBC

118
Q

How do we treat Feline Infectious Anaemia?

A

Oxytet/Doxy for 3w to control Preds to prevent IMHA

118
Q

Which pathogen causes FIP?

A

Feline Coronavirus

118
Q

How are cats infected with FCoV?

A

faeco-oral transmission in kittens Transplacental too

118
Q

What are the risk factors for developing FIP?

A

Large groups Stress Viral Load Poor immune status

118
Q

What are the two biotypes of FCoV?

A

FIPV FECoV

118
Q

Why does FCoV readily cause FIP?

A

Mutations to FIPV common and RNA virus

118
Q

Which immune cells are protective against the development of FIP?

A

Macrophages

118
Q

What does FCoV infection with partial CMI lead to?

A

Dry FIP

118
Q

What does FCoV infection with poor CMI lead to?

A

Wet FIP

118
Q

Why can we not develop a vaccine for FIP?

A

ANTIBODY ENHANCEMENT Pre-existing Ab accelerates disease

118
Q

Where do feline coronaviruses replicate?

A

Enterocytes FIPV: also in macrophages

118
Q

What is the underlying pathology behind FIPV?

A

Immune complex Dz Causes vasculitis

118
Q

What is the prognosis for a cat with wet FIP?

A

Death - fatal Dz

118
Q

How would a cat with wet FIP present?

A

fluid accumulation in body cavity Malaise Abdo swelling Jaundice Hepatomegaly Dyspnoea Muffled heart sounds

118
Q

What is the prognosis for a cat with dry FIP?

A

Death - fatal Dz

118
Q

How would a cat with dry FIP present?

A

Fluctuating unresponsive fever Malaise Variable signs: CNS, eyes, abdo organ failure

118
Q

How is FIP diagnosed pre-mortem?

A

COMBO Clinical signs Fluid exam Clin Path FCoV serology

118
Q

What changes would be noted on haematology of cat with FIP?

A

Neutrophilia Hyperproteinaemia Inc bilirubin, urea, liver enzymes Alb:glob ratio decreased Lymphopenia Non-regen anaemia

118
Q

Describe the qualities of FIP fluid.

A

Viscous Straw Coloured Frothy Clots if standing High protein (G>A)

118
Q

What test can be done on FIP fluid?

A

Rivaltas

118
Q

Which serological test can be done for FCoV?

A

IFA

118
Q

What does the rivaltas test do?

A

Differentiate transudate from exudate. Drop dissipates; transudate (-) Drop sinks: exudate (+)

118
Q

How should FCoV be controlled in endemically infected households?

A

Isolate queen 1-2w prepartum Wean kittens early Strictly isolate kittens Check seronegative at 10w old

118
Q

Which are the two main feline retroviruses?

A

Feline Leukaemia Virus (oncornavirus) Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (lentivirus)

118
Q

Describe the genome of a retrovirus.

A

ssRNA with RTase and Integrase

118
Q

What are the subtypes of FeLV?

A

A/B/C A: transmissiable B/C: recombinant of A + endogenous virus

118
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of death in young cats?

A

FeLV

118
Q

What are the 4 main syndromes causes by FeLV?

A

Neoplasia Immunodeficiency Anaemia Repro failure

118
Q

What are the routes of infection for FeLV?

A

Excreted: Saliva, Urine, Faeces, Milk ALSO vertical transmission

118
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of FeLV

A

Ingestion Replicates (oropharynx & local LN) 1e Viraemia Replication in other lymph tissues 2e viraemia Persistance & Dz Death

118
Q

What factors affect the pathogenesis of FeLV?

A

Viral Load Age (persistence increase w/age) Immune status (Ab protective)

118
Q

How may FeLV cause oncogenesis?

A

inserts close to cellular oncogenes May activate proto-oncogene OR disrupt suppressor gene

118
Q

What are the 4 main types of feline lymphoma?

A

Mediastinal Multicentric Aimentary Leukaemic

118
Q

What is a common presentation for feline mediastinal lymphoma?

A

Young (3yo) Tachy/dys-pnoea Regurgitation and WL Muffled CV sounds

118
Q

What may be noticed in a plerual aspirate of a cat with mediasitnal lymphoma?

A

Neoplastic lymphocytes

118
Q

How is Mediastinal Lymphoma diagnosed?

A

US. Rx, Biopsy, Cytology

118
Q

What are the clinical features of multicentric lymphoma?

A

Peripheral gross lymphadenopathy Mild Anaemia Other organs may be involved i.e. renal failure

119
Q

What are the clinical features of alimentary lymphoma?

A

Abdo masses (duodenum-colon common) Anorexia, WL, ?V+/D+, anaemia

120
Q

How is alimentary lymphoma diagnosed?

A

radiography or a biopsy

121
Q

What are the haem/ biochem features of lymphoid leukaemia?

A

starts in BM so: Raised WBC, anaemia, TCP, dec RBC production

122
Q

What are the clinical signs of lymphoid leukaemia?

A

pyrexia, weakness, anorexia

123
Q

How is lymphoid leukaemia diagnosed?

A

haematology or BM biopsy

124
Q

What are the clinical features of myeloid leukaemia?

A

Anaemia Weight loss TCP petechial haemorrhage

125
Q

What are the primary causes of FeLV-related anaemia in cats?

A

red cell aplasia total marrow aplasia non-regen: normocytic, normochromic

126
Q

What are the secondary causes of FeLV-related anaemia in cats?

A

space-occupying myeloid tumours in BM REGEN ?mildly haemolytic

127
Q

Which FeLV subtype most commonly causes non-regen anaemia?

A

C

128
Q

When is the FeLV vaccine given?

A

1st: 8-9w 2nd: 3w later Booster: ?annual - can titre test!

129
Q

What may help prolong survival of FeLV + cats?

A

IFN

130
Q

What complication is the FeLV vaccine associated with?

A

FISS

131
Q

How is FIV transmitted?

A

Biting (most common) Transplacental and milk possible

132
Q

How does FIV cause disease in cats?

A

Infects CD4 Tc AND macrophage, kuppfer cell, astrocytes

133
Q

How long do ctas infected with FIV remain healthy?

A

3-5y. possibly life.

134
Q

How can your treat cats with FIV?

A

AZT - RT inhibitor

135
Q

What do we look for when testing for FeLV?

A

Antigen

136
Q

What do we look for when testing for FIV?

A

Antibody

137
Q

What is Feline Panleucopenia?

A

Feline Parvovirus

138
Q

What are the targets of the pathogen reponsible for feline panleucopenia? (4)

A

Villous crypt epithelia –> enteritis BM/lymph –> panleucopenia Neonatal cerebellum –> cerebllar hypoplasia Early pregnancy foetus –> foetal death

139
Q

what are the clinical signs of feline panleucopenia?

A

Sudden Death Profuse D+ Pyrexia/Dep/anorexia Panleucopenia Cerebellar hypoplasia

140
Q

how is feline panleucopenia treated?

A

IFN Fluid Therapy ABs for 2e infection

141
Q

How is feline panleucopenia diagnosed?

A

isolation form faeces PM histopath

142
Q

How is feline panleucopenia prevented?

A

Vaccine (live)

143
Q

What are the 4 main feline enteric viruses?

A

Rotavirus Coronavirus Astrovirus Torovirus

144
Q

Which dermatological zoonotic virus may cats have?

A

Cowpox

145
Q

Which cats are most affected by cowpox?

A

Rural Hunting Cats in summer/autumn

146
Q

How is feline cowpox treated?

A

Spontaneous recover in 1-3w

147
Q

Which canine disease is caused by a morbillivirus?

A

Canine Distemper

148
Q

How is canine distemper spread?

A

Oronasal infection

149
Q

Where does canine distemper replicate?

A

Respiratory lymphoid tissue Prog to: widespread lymph, BM and spleen

150
Q

Which systems are infected by canine distemper? (4)

A

Lymphoid & BM Spleen Epithelium CNS

151
Q

What are the clinical signs of distemper? (7)

A

Malaise Oculonasal discharge Cough V+/D+ Conjunctivitis Hyperkeratosis Neurological

152
Q

how is canine distemper diagnosed?

A

RT-PCR. Ab/Ag in CSF diagnostic

153
Q

How is canine distemper treated?

A

NO CURE! Supportive Tx AB for 2e

154
Q

How can we prevent canine distemper?

A

Live vaccine at 8-12w

155
Q

Which virus causes Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Canine Adenovirus-1

156
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Adenovirus-2 infection?

A

Respiratory Dz ONLY

157
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Adenovirus-1 infection?

A

Systemic Dz and Resp Dz

158
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Oronasal infection Viraemia Spread to many tissues Localises in liver and vascular endothelium

159
Q

Where does Canine Infectious Hepatitis persist?

A

kidneys

160
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

dogs <1y Malaise Hepatomegaly Abdo pain Petechiae Haemorrhagic V&D

161
Q

How is Canine Infectious Hepatitis diagnosed?

A

Virus isolation from faecal/Oropharynx swab OR serology

162
Q

How do we treat Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Supportive Tx ABs for 2e

163
Q

Which CAV can we vaccinate for?

A

CAV 2 only! CAV 1 causes corneal oedema

164
Q

What is the target of canine parvovirus in a dog?

A

Rapidly dividing cells - intestinal villi

165
Q

What is the target of canine parvovirus in a puppy/in utero?

A

Myocardium

166
Q

What are the clinical signs of canine parvovirus?

A

<12w GI signs (V+/D+) Malaise Dehydration Sepsis & DIC

167
Q

How do we diagnose canine parvovirus?

A

Hx and Cx Viral detection in faeces (ELISA/culture/PCR)

168
Q

What can be seen on PM gut histology in canine parvovirus?

A

Intranuclear inclusion bodies in intestinal cells Short/absent villi Lymphoid depletion

169
Q

How do we treat canine parvovirus?

A

IVFT AB Anti-emetic IFN

170
Q

How is canine parvovirus transmitted? (4 Fs)

A

Fomites, Faeces, Floor and Fur

171
Q

How long is canine parvovirus shed in faeces?

A

10-12d

172
Q

Which bacteria is commonly associated with Kennel cough?

A

Bordetella Bronchiseptica

173
Q

Which viruses are commonly associated with Kennel cough? (4)

A

Canine Parainfluenza CAV 1 & 2 Canine Herpesvirus Canine Distemper

174
Q

Which is the most common virus isolated from KC cases?

A

Parainfluenza

175
Q

What clinical signs would be present with Canine Parainfluenza infection ONLY?

A

mild cough serous nasal discharge

176
Q

where does Canine Parainfluenza virus multiply?

A

RT lypmh/epithelia

177
Q

Which virus causes fading puppy syndrome in dogs <2w old?

A

Canine herpesvirus

178
Q

What are the clinical signs of a bordetella bronchiseptica infection in the dog?

A

Cough & Sneeze Nasal Discharge Bronchopneumonia

179
Q

how is bordetella bronchiseptica infection diagnosed?

A

Nasal swab/BAL/TTW Selective agar (charcoal or cephalexin)

180
Q

Describe the morphology & gram staining of bordetella bronchiseptica

A

Gram negative Coccobacillus

181
Q

What is the incubation period for bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

6d

182
Q

What is the treatment for bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

Systemic Antibacterial Antitussive Bronchodilator Expectorant

183
Q

Which antimicrobials is bordetella bronchiseptica 100% sensitive to?

A

Tetracycline Doxycycline Amoxiclav Enrofloxacin

184
Q

What are to zoonotic risks of bordetella bronchiseptica infection?

A

Affects pregnant and immunocompromised! SO DOES VACCINE!

185
Q

Which dogs comonly suffer from nasal aspergillosis?

A

Young, Dolicocephalic dogs

186
Q

How is nasal aspergillosis treated?

A

Systemic/Topical antifungals Surgical removal of affected turbinates

187
Q

What are the clinical signs of aspergillosis?

A

Chronic Nasal Discharge Haemorrhage Depigmented nose Pain at muzzle/when eating

188
Q

Name 4 Ddx of Nasal Aspergillosis.

A

Nasal tumour Idiopathic rhiniitis FB Trauma

189
Q

How is nasal aspergillosis diagnosed?

A

Rx Serology Fungal culture

190
Q

Which viruses are associated with Cat flu? (2)

A

Feline Herpesvirus Feline Calicivirus

191
Q

Which bacteria are associated with Cat flu? (4)

A

Bordetella Bronchiseptica Chlamydophila Mycoplasma Haemophilus felis

192
Q

What are the clinical signs of Feline Herpesvirus infection?

A

Sneezing/coughing Nasal/ocular discharge conjunctivitis Hypersalivation Pyrexia/Lethargy

193
Q

How long does it take for signs of Feline Herpesvirus to resolve?

A

10-20d

194
Q

How is Feline Herpesvirus diagnosed?

A

OP swab and VTM - Isolation (2w for culture) Also: serology/PCR

195
Q

What are the clinical signs of Feline Calicivirus infection?

A

Pyrexia Sneezing/Pneumonia Nasal discharge Oral ulcers Lameness Conjunctivitis

196
Q

Which virus of cats may cause lameness syndrome?

A

Calicivirus - shifting lameness with spontaneous resolution

197
Q

Which virus of cats may cause virulent systemic disease?

A

Feline Calicivirus

198
Q

What are the clinical signs of virulent systemic disease in the cat?

A

Face/Paw oedema Face/Paw Necrosis & ulcers Resp Dz Haemorrhage (nose/faeces) Jaundice

199
Q

How are feline respiratory viruses spread?

A

cat-cat contact via discharge also via fomites/environment

200
Q

How does the carrier status differ in Feline herpesvirus and calicivirus?

A

HV: latent and reactivates. 100% carriers. Calicivirus: Persistent infection

201
Q

What are the clincial signs of B. bronchiseptica infection in the cat?

A

Pyrexia Sneeze/Cough Nasal Discharge Dyspnoea SM lymphadenopathy

202
Q

How does B. bronchiseptica cause Dz in the cat?

A

Causes ciliary stasis

203
Q

Which cells does Leishmania survive in?

A

Macrophages

204
Q

What type of immune response is protective against leishmania?

A

Th1 (CMI)

205
Q

What are the 3 main clinical signs of leishmania?

A

Lymphadenopathy

Scaling/excoriative dermatitis

Weight loss

206
Q

What age do dogs suffer worst from leishmania?

A

<3yo and >8yo

207
Q

What can be seen on cytology from the BM/LN of Leishmania + dog?

A

Promastigotes in macrophages

208
Q

Which 2 treatments are often given to Leishmania + dogs?

A

Meglumine Antimoniate (inhibits leishmania glycolysis)

Allopurinol (inhibits Leish synthesis of purine)

209
Q

What are the 4 clinical stages of leishmania?

A

A: Exposed

B: Infected

C: Unwell

D: Severly sick

210
Q

Which products are used to prevent leishmaniasis?

A

Synthetic Pyrethroids - stop sandflies

Domperidone - skew to Th1-like immune response

211
Q

What is the infectious stage of leishmania?

A

Promastigote

212
Q

Apart from sandflies, how is leishmania transmitted?

A

Transplacental

Blood Transfusion

213
Q

When is treatment initiated for leishmania?

A

Positive serology/cytology

AND

Clinical Signs

214
Q

Which Ehrlichia species causes Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis?

A

E. Canis

215
Q

What si the vector for E. canis?

A

Rhiphicephalus Sanguiens

216
Q

What does Chronic Ehrlichiosis lead to?

A

Pancytopenia (due to BM hypoplasia)

217
Q

How is active infection of E. canis confirmed?

A

PCR

218
Q

What is the Tx of choice for E. canis infection?

A

Doxycycline

219
Q

What are the clinical sigsn of acute infection with E. canis?

A

Lethargy/inappetance/polyarthritis

Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly

EYES: uveitis, retinal haemorrhage, retinal detachment

SKIN: cutaneous petechiae/ecchymoses

Neurological signs

220
Q

What lab abnormalities are seen on CBC, Biochem and urinalysis in E canis?

A

CBC: TCP, Non-regen anaemia, pancytopenia

BIO:Low Alb:Glob ratio, Inc ALT/ALP

Urine:Proteinuria, inc UPCR

221
Q

If Doxycycline doesn’t successfully treat E canis - what should be given?

A

Imidocarb diproprionate, enrofloxacin

222
Q

How is E canis infection prevented?

A

Pyrethroids or Permethrin

Early removal of ticks

223
Q

Which species of babesiosis is associated with dog fighting?

A

B. gibsoni

224
Q

What are the main 3 clinical signs of babesiosis?

A

Fever

Haemolytic Anaemia (+hypoxia)

Splenomegaly - TCP

225
Q

Which cats are most predisposed to B felis infection?

A

Young cats

226
Q

What is the best Tx for Large babesia?

A

Imidocarb diproprionate

227
Q

What is the best Tx for feline babesiosis?

A

Primaquine Phosphate

228
Q
A

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

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