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Veterinary Medicine > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 6 molecular systems of innate immunity.

A 
Defensins
Lysozyme/sweat
Myeloperoxidase
Acute Phase Proteins
Complement
Interferons
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2
Q

What are the two roles of defensins?

A

Immune signalling

Direct, anti-microbial action

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3
Q

In which organ system are defensins important?

A

Skin

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4
Q

What is the MOA of lysozymes?

A

Attack peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria

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5
Q

What is to role of acute phase proteins?

A

Opsonisation

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6
Q

Where is myeloperoxidase found?

A

Lysosomes in granulocytes/macrophages

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7
Q

What is the MOA of myeloperoxidase?

A

Production of hypochlorite and singlet oxygen

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8
Q

Which cells produce IFN a and b?

A

Virally infected cells

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9
Q

Which cells produce IFNy?

A

Lymphocytes

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10
Q

IFNs are key in tackling which two pathologies?

A

Tumours, Viruses

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11
Q

What are the 4 cellar innate defences/

A

Macrophages
Polymorphs
Mast Cells
NK cells

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12
Q

What is the role of macrophages & polymorphs?

A

Phagocytosis

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13
Q

What is the role of mast cells?

A

IgE Ab receptors - inc vascular permeability

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14
Q

What is the role of NK cells?

A

Kill tumour cells, virally infected cells, and ab coated cells

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15
Q

What are the 3 cardinal features of adaptive immunity?

A

Specificity
Self/Non-self discrimination
Memory

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16
Q

Which are the two major secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Spleen

LNs

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17
Q

Which are the additional secondary lymphoid organs? (4)

A

Tonsils
Appendix
Peyers Patches
Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

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18
Q

Which histological feature is UNIQUE to the thymic medulla?

A

Hassals Corpuscles

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19
Q

Which two cell types are found in the thymic cortex?

A

Maturing Lymphocytes

Macrophages (remove apoptotic thymocytes)

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20
Q

Which three cell types are found in the thymic cortex?

A

Adult T Lymphocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic Cells

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21
Q

Which process, as part of maturation, occurs in the thymus?

A

Tolerance

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22
Q

Where do B cells develop?

A

Bone Marrow

bursa of fabricius in birds

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23
Q

What are the 3 main divisions of a LN, and which cells can be found in each section?

A

Cortex: B cells
Paracortex: T Cells
Medulla: T and B cells

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24
Q

Which 3 organ systems contain MALT?

A

GIT
Resp
UGT

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25
Q

Where are peyers patches located?

A

Ileal submucosa of SI - M cells

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26
Q

Where is complement produced?

A

Liver

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27
Q

What are the 3 antimicrobial MOAs of complement?

A

Opsonization
Chemoattraction
Membrane Lysis

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28
Q

What are the 3 complement pathways?

A

Classical
Lectin
Alternative

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29
Q

Describe the Classical Pathway.

A 
IgM/G(6) pathogen.
C1qrs binds.
C2/4 binds & cleaved
C2a/4a splits off
C2b/4b bind nearby
C3 binds to 2b/4b
C3a splits off
C3b cleaves C5
C5b binds nearby
C6/7/8/9 bind to C5b
MAC formed - lysis
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30
Q

Describe the MBL Pathway.

A

MBL cleaves C2/4 instead of qrs.

Otherwise same.

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31
Q

Describe the Alternative Pathway.

A

Bacteria > Fatcor B > C3 convertase > C3a/b

Then same.

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32
Q

How does C3a cause cell death?

A

Combines with C5a - Inflammatory response: MC degranulation

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33
Q

How does C3b cause cell death?

A

Lysis (MAC) AND

Opsonisation

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34
Q

List the 3 chemotactic agents of the complement system in order of potency.

A

c5a>c3a>c4a

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35
Q

What is recognised on a pathogen surface by the innate immune system?

A

PAMPs

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36
Q

Which part of the innate immune system recognises PAMPS?

A

PRRs

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37
Q

What are the two forms of B cell post-activation?

A

Memory Cells

Plasma Cells

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38
Q

What are the CD4+ T cells?

A

T helper cells (enhances CD8+ action & Ab response)

AND Treg cells (prevent autoimmunity)

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39
Q

What are the CD8+ T cells?

A

Cytotoxic Tc (kills infected host cell & activates mø)

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40
Q

What is the Tc antigen receptor called?

A

TCR

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41
Q

What is the role of MHC?

A

Present Ag to Tc

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42
Q

What is the role of MHC I & where is it found?

A

Most Nucleated Cells

Present Ag to CTc (Cd8+)

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43
Q

What is the role of MHC II & where is it found?

A

APCs

Present Ag to Th cell (CD4+)

44
Q

What is +ve selection in the thymus?

A

T cells which react with low affinity to self MHC + peptide survive

45
Q

What is -ve selection in the thymus?

A

T cells which react strongly to self-Ags undergo apoptosis

46
Q

What is the role of APCs?

A

present Ag to Th Cell

47
Q

What are the 3 main APCs?

A

Dendritic Cell
Bc
Mø

48
Q

What do Th1 cells do?

A

(CMI) Tc and macrophage activation in response to INTRACELLULAR infection.

49
Q

What do Th2 cells do?

A

(humoral) Assist Bc to make Ab in response to EXTRACELLULAR infection

50
Q

Name 4 Th1 Cytokines

A

IFNy
TNFa
IL2
IL12

51
Q

Name 4 Th2 Cytokines

A

IL4, IL6, IL10

TGFB

52
Q

What are NK cells?

A

Lymphocytes which respond to an ABSENCE of MHC 1

53
Q

How does passive immunity occur?

A

Maternally derived from colostrum or placenta

54
Q

Why are SQ vaccines so succesful at producing an immune response?

A

Langerhans cells capture/process Ag in skin.
Precursor to dendritic cells.
Travel to LN.
Effective T cell stimulation.

55
Q

Which bovine pathogens may cause Dz in the foetus, but not the mother?

A

BHV1, BVD, Bluetongue

56
Q

Why does interuterine infection with BVD cause the calf to succumb to the disease?

A

Builds tolerance as no maternal reaction –> no immunity when re-challenged

57
Q

In dogs and cats, state what proportion of passive immunity is gained from the maternal placenta, and the maternal colostrum.

A

5% placental

95% colostrum

58
Q

In cows/pigs/horses, state what proportion of passive immunity is gained from the maternal placenta, and the maternal colostrum.

A

100% colostrum - NONE from placenta

59
Q

What are the two features of the neonatal GIT which aid absorption of MDAs? How long do they last? (ruminant)

A

Oesophageal Groove. 20d.

Specialised Fc receptor on intestinal epithelia. 6h decline, 24h gone.

60
Q

Describe the colostrum requirements for a neonatal calf/foal.

A

1L within 6h of birth.

61
Q

How can you assess colostrum quaity?

A

Hydrometer: measures SG which correlated with Protein and IgG content.

Refractometer.

62
Q

What are IgG and IgA protective against in the newborn animal?

A

IgG: septicaemia

IgAL enteric Dz

63
Q

What are the 3 causes for FPT?

A

Failure of Production, Ingestion or Absorption.

64
Q

What is a quick, on-farm test used to measure foal IgG?

A

Zinc Turbidity Test

65
Q

How can we quantify FPT in foals?

A

Radial Immunodiffusion:

FPT: IgG <2mg/ml
Partial: IgG 204mg/ml
Adequate: >4mg/ml

66
Q

How do you treat a foal with FPT <15h old?

A

NGT/Bottle Colostrum

67
Q

How do you treat a foal with FPT >15h old?

A

Commercial IV plasma

68
Q

At what age do MDAs reach sufficient decline to allow adaptive immunity development?

69
Q

What are TLRs?

A

Subtype of PRR.

Induce Cytokines and inflammation.

70
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms bacteria use to avoid phagocytosis?

A 
Capsules.
Protein A (inactivates C3.
M protein (blocks complement &amp; opsonisation)
71
Q

What is the major ctyokine driving the Th2 response?

72
Q

What is the major ctyokine driving the Th1 response?

73
Q

Name the common endotoxin associated wiht GRam -ve bacteria.

74
Q

What is the cause of toxic shock syndrome?

A

SuperAg on bacteria hypersitmulate T cells.

Causes shock & possibly death.

75
Q

What is the most effective form of anti-fungal immunity?

A

T cell immunity

76
Q

What are the 4 way in which protozoa evade the innate immune system?

A

Resist Complement
Survive inside phagocytes
Manipulate dendritic cells
Poor PAMP expression

77
Q

What is the main immune response to helminth infections?

A

Th2 - Humoral IgE, Mast Cells & Eosinophilia

78
Q

Which stage of the helminth life cycle invokes a cTc immune response?

79
Q

What are T1 IFNs and where are they produced?

A

IFN a & b

Infected Tissue Cells (fibroblasts)

80
Q

What are T2 IFNs and where are they produced?

A

IFN y

Ag stimulated T cells and NK cells

81
Q

What do T1 IFNs stimulate?

A

NK Cell activity
IFNy secretion
MHC I expression

82
Q

What do T2 IFNs stimulate?

A

NO secretion
IFNy secretion
Mø activation

83
Q

What are the 3 major cell types involved with anti-tumour immunity?

A

CD8+ Tc
Macrophage
NK cell

84
Q

Describe the roles of Tumour-Assocaites Macrophages

A

M1 - anti-tumour

M2 - pro-tumour

85
Q

What is a common Tumour Escape Mechanism of lymphoid tumours?

A

Tumour-induced Immunosuppression

86
Q

Which type of lymphoma responds best to chemotherapy?

A

B cell Lymphoma

87
Q

How is peripheral tolerance maintained?

A

Apoptosis
Anergy (unresponsive)
Tregs and Bregs

88
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Auto-immune dz.

Anti-collagen Abs > imm. complex in joint

89
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

A

Multi AutoAbs
IC’s circulate.
Complement Deficiency.
Glomerulonephritis.

90
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

AutoAbs against AchR

Muscle doesn’t respond to Ach

91
Q

What is type I hypersensitivity??

A

IgE production in response to Ag.

Atopy.

92
Q

What is a common clinical sign of Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Urticaria
Anaphylaxis
Allergy

93
Q

What is type II hypersensitivity??

A

Ab mediated damage to host by complement & NK.

94
Q

Which 2 conditions are caused by Type II hypersensitivity?

A

Haemolytic Dz of the newborn foal

IMHA

95
Q

What is type III hypersensitivity? What may it lead to?

A

Immune complex formation/deposition.

Glomerulonephritis

96
Q

Name 2 conditions are caused by Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Canine Anterior Uveitis (adenovirus)

COPD in horses

97
Q

What is Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Chonic Ag load > Tc > cytokine > Mø

98
Q

Name a use for Type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

A

TB skin test.

99
Q

What is the cause of transplantation rejection?

A

MHC I/II differences

100
Q

Which Dz of Irish Setters and Holsteins, presents with leucocytosis and recurrent bacterial infections? Px?

A

Leucocyte Adhesion Deficiency.

FATAL - test genetics.

101
Q

Which disease of TB horses causes overwhelming infection and death at 4-6m?

A

SCID - no functional T or B cells once MDAs left

102
Q

Which disease of FELL PONIES causes overwhelming infection and death at 4-6m?

A

Foal Immunodeficiency Syndrome

103
Q

Which 2 canine diseases, preventable by vaccine, can cause immunodeficiency?

A

Distemper - leucopenia

Parvovirus - lymphopaenia

104
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma?

A

Serum = plasma - fibrinogen

105
Q

What do direct and indirect immunofluorescence tests measure?

A

Direct: Ag in sera

Indirect: Ab in sera

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

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