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Veterinary Medicine > Derm > Flashcards

Derm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main biting louse of the dog?

A

Trichodectes Canis

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2
Q

What is the main biting louse of the cat?

A

Felicola Subrostratus

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3
Q

What is the main sucking louse of the dog?

A

Linognathus setosus

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4
Q

What are the 3 long-legged mites of small animals?

A

Cheyletiella
Otodectes
Trombicula

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5
Q

What are the short legged mites of small animals?

A

Sarcoptes

Demodex

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6
Q

which mite has a ‘lemon’ shaped egg?

A

Demodex Canis

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7
Q

Which parasite may be found on a hair pluck?

A

Demodex

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8
Q

What are the 2 main derm conditions seen in dogs <1y old?

A

Parasites

Food induced atopy

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9
Q

Which derm condition is commonly seen in dogs 6m-3y old?

A

Environmental allergen induced atopy

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10
Q

What are the 2 main causes of dermatological dz in adult dogs?

A

Immune mediated

Endocrinopathy

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11
Q

What are 2 common signs of demodex overgrowth?

A

Greasy hair and pruritis on dorsum

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12
Q

Which mite leads to extreme pruritis, crusting and excoriation?

A

Sarcoptes

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13
Q

Which mite causes “walking dandruff” w/pruritis and erythema.

A

Cheyletiella

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14
Q

Which canine/feline mites are zoonotic?

A

Cheyletiella

Sarcoptes

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15
Q

Which mites cause a dark brown, waxy discharge?

A

Otodectes

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16
Q

Which flea/mite/lice treatment is best for small furry exotics?

A

Ivermectin/milbemycin

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17
Q

What can be used to treat otodectes in cats?

A

Imidacloprid + moxidectin
OR
Selamectin

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18
Q

Which SA parasite is a possible vector of anaplasma and borrelia?

A

Neotrombicula

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19
Q

How is uncinaria treated?

A

Fenbendazole/milbemycin

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial pyoderma?

A

Staph pseudintermedius

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21
Q

What can be seen on cytology of superficial pyoderma?

A

Degenerative neutrophils

Phagocytosis of bacteria

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22
Q

What are the main clinical signs of superficial pyoderma?

A 
Macules
Papules/pustules
Collarettes
Hyperpigmentation
Erosion
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23
Q

What are the main clinical signs of deep pyoderma?

A 
systemically unwell
Furuncules, nodules, plaques
Crusts, ulcers, sinus tracts
Heat/erythema/swelling
Haemorrhagic bullae
Haemo-purulent exudate
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24
Q

Which breed of cat is predisposed to malassezia overgrowht?

A

Devon Rex

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25
Q

What are the signs of malassezia dermatitis?

A

Alopecia
Seborrhoea
Hyperpigmentation

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26
Q

How is malassezia dermatitis treated?

A

Chlorhexidine + miconazole shampoo

If unsuccessful: systemic anti-fungals

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27
Q

What are the key signs of atopic dermatitis?

A

Pruritis
Alopecia
Acral lick
Recurrent otitis externa

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28
Q

What are favrots criteria for cAD?

A

DOG PENN

Dog lives indoors
Onset <3yo
Glucocorticoid-responsive pruritus

Pruritus at onset
Ear pinnae +/- front feet
Nonaffected ear margins
Nonaffected dorso-lumbar area

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29
Q

How is canine food allergy diagnosed?

A

+ response to 6-8w diet trial w/novel or hydrolysed protein

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30
Q

What is the onset of improvement for allergen-specific immunotherapy?

A

3-9m

MUST DO FOR 12m

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31
Q

How can we control allergies medically?

A 
Glucocorticoids (low dose)
JAK inhibitor (oclacitinib)
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32
Q

What are the 2 contraindications for apoquel use?

A

<12m

<3kg

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33
Q

Name 3 glucocorticoids used to treat cAD.

A

Hydrocortisone
Ciclosporin
Tacrolimus

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34
Q

How would self-induced alopecia appear on a trichogram?

A

frayed/broken tips

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35
Q

What is the main cause of ringworm in dogs and cats?

A

Microsporum Canis

ALSO: M. gypseum & T. mentagrophytes

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36
Q

What is the gold standard test for ringworm in cats/dogs?

A

External lab fungal culture.

woods lamp and trichography have false +/-‘s.

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37
Q

Which antifungal treatment can be given to cats?

A

Itraconazole

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38
Q

Which antifungal treatment(s) can be given to dogs?

A

Itraconazole

Ketoconazole

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39
Q

What treatment is given for juvenile onset demodicosis?

A

None - most spontaneously resolve

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40
Q

What treatment is given for adult onset demodicosis?

A

Aggressive Tx:
Manage underlying Dz.
ABs as often 2e infection.

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41
Q

What are the two mites causing feline demodicosis and how do they differ?

A

D. Cati: non-pruritic, usually due to immunosuppresive drugs.
D. gatoi: pruritic and infectious.

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42
Q

How is feline demodicosis treated?

A

treat pyoderma

Imidacloprid 1st

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43
Q

When should demodicosis tx be stopped?

A

2-3 consecutive skin scrapes (4w apart)

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44
Q

What are the clinical signs of alopecia areata?

A

Focal to MF alopecia

Variable hyperpigmentation

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45
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to dermatomyositis?

A

Collies

Shetland sheepdogs

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46
Q

How does dermatomyositis present?

A 
6m old
patchy alopecia on face/extremities
erythema
scale
hyperpigmented
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47
Q

How is dermatomyositis treated?

A

Preds
Pentoxifylline
Vit E

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48
Q

What is sebaceous adenitis?

A

autoimmune attack on sebaceous glands

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49
Q

What are the derm signs of an endocrine Dz?

A

generalised alopecia
dull/dry/scaly
comedones
atrophic skin/poor healing

50
Q

Which endocrine Dz presents with weight gain, tragic expression and truncal alopecia?

A

hypothyroidism

51
Q

Which cancers cause feline paraneoplastic alopecia?

A

pancreatic/bile duct carcinoma

52
Q

How does feline paraneoplastic alopecia present?

A

shiny, translucent skin.

Alopecia ventrum & legs.

53
Q

How is alopecia X diagnosed?

A

Breed - plush coat

Exclude Ddx

54
Q

Which 2 dog breeds are prone to pattern alopecia affecting the pinnae?

A

YRT

Daxie

55
Q

Which 2 breeds are predisposed to sebaceous adenitis?

A

Akitas

Poodles

56
Q

Clinical signs of sebaceous adenitis are…

A

Alopecia
Dry/Dull coat
Large adherent scales
Bacterial folliculitis

57
Q

What is the treatment for sebaceous adenitis?

A

Skin care
Intense moisturisation
Manage 2e infection

58
Q

What are the 5 main causes of head and neck pruritis in the cat?

A 
FBH
Otodectes
Neotrombicula
Bacteria
Malassezia
59
Q

What are the 3 presentations of eosinophilic granuloma complex in the cat?

A

Eosinophilic plaque
Eosinophilic granuloma
Eosinophilic ulcer

60
Q

What is a feline Eosinophilic plaque?

A

Raised, alopecic, erythematous, erosive to ulcerative plaque

HIGHLY PRURITIC

61
Q

What is a feline Eosinophilic Granuloma?

A

Raised, alopecic, erythematous, erosive to ulcerative plaque.
Non-pruritic!!!

62
Q

What is a feline Eosinophilic Ulcer?

A

Well circumscribed, red/brown ulcer with raised border on upper lip.
Non-pruritic, non-painful.

63
Q

What is atopic dermatitis?

A

Genetically predisposed inflammatory & pruritic allergic skin disease - commonly environmental or food associated

64
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is CAD?

A 
Type I (IgE)
Type IV Th2
65
Q

What is an atopic flare?

A

Inc in staph and malassezia pyoderma due to defective skin barrier function

66
Q

What are the 4 key features of cAD treatment?

A

Improve skin barrier
Allergen avoidance/AST
Control inflammation and pruritis
Control flare factors

67
Q

How does Food-Induced Atopy differ for CAD?

A

Younger onset
Concurrent GI signs present
Not seasonal

68
Q

What is the gold std Tx for FIA?

A

Home cooked diet trial with novel protein (min 6w)

69
Q

What ways can we improve skin barrier function?

A

Non-irritating shampoos
Supplementation of EFAs
Topical EFA containing formulations

70
Q

Name 2 topical lipid formulations that can aid skin barrier function.

A

Alladerm Spot on

Dermoscent

71
Q

Via which 2 route can glucocorticoids be given in CAD? Give examples of each.

A

Systemic: Preds, methypreds
Topical: Betamethasone, hydrocortisone

72
Q

What systemic calcineurin inhibtors can be given in CAD?

A

Ciclosporin

73
Q

What topical calcineurin inhibtors can be given in CAD?

A

Tacrolimus

74
Q

How does oclacitinib work?

A

Janus Kinase Inhibitor

75
Q

What is Lokivetmab?

A

Monoclonal Antibody against IL-31 (pruritic IL)

76
Q

How should Glucocorticoids be used in CAD?

A

Crisis busting - relieve flares

77
Q

Why is topical hydrocortisone a low-risk Tx for CAD flares?

A

MEtabolised in skin so very little drug reaches circulation

78
Q

How do calcineurin inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit Tc function

79
Q

How is oclacitinib (apoquel) given?

A

BID 2w then SID

80
Q

What are the 2 contraindications of oclacitinib?

A

<12m

<3kg

81
Q

What is the CI for lokivetmab?

A

<3kg

82
Q

Which 2 anti-histamines show some effect at relieving CAD when combined?

A

Chlorpheniramine and hydroxyzine

83
Q

What is the most important source of environmental allergen for CAD and how can we reduce this?

A

House Dust mites

Environmental Flea Sprays and cleaning!

84
Q

What is ASIT?

A

Expose dog to gradually increasing allergen dose over 12m

85
Q

What is the Tx for ear margin seborrhoea?

A

Emollient rinse
VAseline
Propylene Glycol

Backup: surgery

86
Q

What are the 3 Ps of otitis?

A

Primary (pathogen/disorder)
Predisposing (hair, morphology)
Perpetuating Factors

87
Q

What is the best Tx for localised otodectes cyanosis?

A

Selamectin/moxidectin spot on

88
Q

What is the best Tx for secondary Dz to otodectes cyanosis?

A

Cleaner +/- steroids

89
Q

What are the signs of otitis externa?

A

Malodour
Head Tilt
Aural pruritis
Deafness

90
Q

What are the signs of otitis media?

A

Pain
Concurrent OE
Deafness
Pain Eating

91
Q

What are 3 potential complications of Otitis Media?

A

Conductive Deafness
Horners
Vestibular Syndrome

92
Q

What is the first diagnostic method used to asses OM?

A

Video otoscopy - assess drum

93
Q

What Tx is indicted in cases of chonric OM or evidence of TM bulging/fluid behind it?

A

Myringotomy (w catheter)
+ swabs
+ saline flush

94
Q

What is the best method for assessing internal damage caused by OM?

A

MRI

95
Q

What are the clinical signs of Otitis Interna?

A

Ipsilateral head tilt
rotatory nystagmus
asymmetric ataxia/falling
Vomiting +/- anorexia

96
Q

What is the underlying cause of “dry coffee ground” exudate from the ears?

A

Otodectes cyanotis

97
Q

What is the underlying cause of “moist brown” exudate from the ears?

A

Staph spp/Malassezia

98
Q

What is the underlying cause of “purlent yellow/green, malodorous” exudate from the ears?

A

Gram negative infection

99
Q

What is the underlying cause of ceruminous discharge from the ears?

A

Allergy
Endocrinopathy
Bacteroides Spp

100
Q

How should wax samples be stained?

A

Methylene blue only

101
Q

How should purulent ear samples be stained?

A

Diffquick

102
Q

How should parasites from the ear be prepared for microscopic exam?

A

Mix in LP

103
Q

Which 3 flushing solutions are most commonly used in canine medicine?

A

Saline
Dilute Chlorhexidine
Povidone Iodine

104
Q

What 3 medications are sued to treat otitis?

A

AB + Anti-inflam + Anti-fungal

105
Q

Which drugs are ototoxic? (4 ABs, 2 cleaners)

A

Gentamicin
Polymixin B
Ticarcillin
Imipenem

Propylene Glycol
Chlorhexine (conc)

106
Q

What is the best method of identifying the pathogen responsible for otitis?

A

Charcoal Swab and Culture

107
Q

Why does pseudomonas otitis cause ear drum rupture?

A

Bacteria produces collagenase

108
Q

What 2 Tx cane be used for a multi-resistant otitis?

A

Flamazine 1:9 in sterile water

Ticarcillin solution

109
Q

What are the 4 Tx for stenosis?

A

Potent topical steroids
Oral steroids
Tacrolimus ointment BID
Intralesional steroids

110
Q

What is the Tx of choice for an end-stage ear?

A

TECA

111
Q

What are the 3 signs of surface bacterial pyoderma?

A

Hotspots
Intertrigo
Bacterial Overgrowth

112
Q

How should Malassezia be sampled?

A

If dry: acetate tape

If greasy: indirect smear w/cotton bud

113
Q

What can be seen on cytology with superficial pyoderma?

A

Degen neutrophils and phagocytosis of bacteria

114
Q

What are the signs of superficial bacterial pyoderma?

A 
Papule/Pustules/Colarettes
ALopecia
Erythema
Hyperpigmentation
Lichenification
115
Q

What are the signs of DEEP pyoderma?

A 
Inflammation
furuncules/nodules/bullae
plaques
sinus tracts
ulcers/exudation/crusts

Sytemically unwell!!

116
Q

How should a direct impression smear be performed on a pustule?

A

Pop it/lift crust - then apply slide SEVERAL times

117
Q

How should acetate strips be stained?

A

Eosin and Basophil stains ONLY - no fixative

118
Q

What size needle and syringe should be used for an FNA?

A

21G

2-5ml

119
Q

What is the 1st line Tx for malassezia dermatits?

A

Chlorhexidine + miconazole shampoo

120
Q

What is the Tx for chronic malassezia dermatits?

A

systemic antifungals

121
Q

How longs should ABs be prescribed for a superficial pyoderma?

A

2-3w past clinical cure

122
Q

How longs should ABs be prescribed for a deep pyoderma?

A

3m past clinical cure

Veterinary Medicine (68 decks)

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