Fund 16 and 17 2.0 Flashcards
agent that is capable of killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms
antibiotic
substance capable of killing or suppressing the multiplication and growth of microorganisms
antimicrobial
Chemical compound used on skin or tissue to eliminate microorganisms
antiseptic
destruction and/or containment of infectious agents after they leave the body of a patient with an infectious disease
asepsis
free of microorganisms
aseptic
single-celled microorganisms lacking a nucleus, which can reproduce as quickly as every few minutes, depending on conditions
bacteria
agent that destroys infection-producing organisms
disinfectant
tiny, primitive organisms of the plant kingdom that contain no chlorophyll and reproduce by means of spores; present in soil, air, and water EX: yeast and mold
fungi
parasitic worms or flukes that belong to the animal kingdom. EX: roundworms and tapeworms and pinworms (most common in children)
helminths
reaction of the body to substances interpreted as non-self
immune response
biologic response modifier that affects cellular growth
interferon
the practice of reducing the number of organisms present or reducing the risk for transmission of organisms
medical asepsis
organism only visible with a microscope
microorganism
any disease-producing organism
pathogen
proteinaceous particles believed to be responsible for transmissible neurodegenerative diseases. Example is Creutzfeldt-jakob disease (a human version of mad cow disease)
prions
one-celled microscopic organisms belonging to the animal kingdom. Causes diarrhea
protozoa
Genus of small, rod-shaped to round microorganisms found inn tissue cells of lice, fleas, ticks, and mites and transmitted to humans by their bites. EX: rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus
Rickettsia
precautions that protect both the nurse and the patient from infection and are to be used for every patient contact
standard precautions
without pathologic organisms
sterile
the process of rendering an article free of microorganisms and their pathogenic products
sterilization
the practice of preparing and handling materials in a way that prevents the patient’s exposure to living microorganisms
surgical asepsis
Extremely small particles of nucleic acids, either DNA or RNA, with a coat of protein, and in some cases a membranous envelope, that can trigger an immune reaction or damage cells in other ways
viruses
Nonpathogenic organisms that are prevalent on and in the body are called ___. It prevents more harmful microorganisms from colonizing and multiplying within the body
normal flora
___ are responsible for the symptoms seen in diseases such as botulism, tetanus, diphtheria, and Escherichia coli infection. They are found in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria, they are released when the cell ruptures. They stimulate fever inflammation, hypotension, and changes in blood clotting.
endotoxins
The specimen to be tested for bacteria is placed on a slide, stained, and then treated with a contrasting dye; those retaining the stain are ___, and those losing the stain and taking up the counterstain are ___.
Gram Positive ; Gram Negative
(know) many gram-negative bacteria are more dangerous than gram-positive bacteria because they may produce an endotoxin that can cause hemorrhagic shock and severe diarrhea and can alter resistance to other bacterial infection.
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Classification of bacteria according to their morphology (shape) places and places them into groups (3 main and 3 others)
#1 cocci (round) #2 bacilli (rod shaped) #3 spirochetes (spiral) #4 chains (streptococci) #5 pairs (diplococci) #6 clusters (staphylococci)
(know) you need to acquire a culture sensitivity before prescribing or giving an antibiotic
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(know) The sensitivity results, available 48 to 72 hours after the culture, typically show the organism is resistant, susceptible, or has intermediate resistance. The nurse must be sure the primary care provider is aware of the sensitivity results in case treatment needs to be altered
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What is the Chain of infection (6)
#1 causative agent #2 reservoir #3 portal of exit #4 mode of transfer #5 portal of entry #6 susceptible host
What are the 4 stages of the infection process
#1 incubation #2 prodrome #3 illness #4 convalescence
(know) the most effective means for destroying viruses and all other kinds of microorganisms is to expose them to a high temperature for a specified amount of time; the temperature should be at least 250F (121C) for 20 to 30 minutes if using a steam sterilizer, and at least 320F (160C) for 90 minutes to 3 hours if using dry sterilization. This can be accomplished by using a special machine called an autoclave
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(know) standard precautions are used to prevent the spread of infection from the reservoir
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(know) portal-of-exit transmission can be interrupted by identifying and treating infected patients. Isolation techniques and barrier precautions that include the proper handling and disposal of secretions, urine, feces, and exudate can prevent pathogen transfer
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What are the 5 modes of transfer of pathogens
#1 direct personal contact with body excretions or drainage such as from an infected wound #2 indirect contact with contaminated inanimate objects #3 vectors such as fleas, ticks, mosquitoes, and other insects that harbor infectious agents and transmit infection to humans through bites and stings #4 droplet infection, or contamination by the aerosol route through sneezing and coughing #5 spread of infection from one part of the body to another
objects or materials which are likely to carry infection, such as clothes, utensils, and furniture.
fomites
(know) influenza immunization is recommended YEARLY for all health care workers and anyone over 6 months of age
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Health-care associated infections are also called ___
nosocomial infection
What are the 3 lines of defense, in order
#1 Skin #2 Fever, inflammation, interferon #3 Immune response
Bactericidal. An enzyme that catalyzes the destruction of the cell walls of certain bacteria, occurring notably in tears and egg white.
lysozyme
Once exposed to a microorganism, the body produces antibodies against that invader. ___ occurs. Examples are: varicella (chickenpox) and influenza
naturally acquired immunity
___ occurs when a person is given an antitoxin or antiserum that contains antibodies or antitoxins that have been developed in another person. Example is : tetanus antitoxin
passive acquired immunity
___ occurs when the fetus receives antibodies from the mother through placental blood before birth. This type of immunity is also acquired by the breastfeeding infant.
naturally acquired passive immunity
___ is achieved through injection of vaccines or immunizing substances that contain dead or inactive microorganisms or their toxins. Examples are : vaccinations against polio, measles, hepatitis B, influenza, tetanus, and diphtheria
artificially acquired immunity
___ is provided by injection with antibodies derived from the infected blood of people or animals
artificially acquired passive immunity
(know) if contact with spores is likely to have occurred, wash hands with soap and water. The physical action of washing and rinsing hands is recommended because alcohols, chlorhexidine products, iodophors, and other antiseptic agents have poor activity against spores
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(know) perform hand hygiene before eating and after using the bathroom, bedpan, or commode. Wash hands thoroughly after handling raw meat. Use supermarket-provided sanitizing wipes to clean the grocery cart handle before using it. Perform hand hygiene after handling money
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(know) infectious disease can be controlled by interrupting the chain of infection at any link, thus breaking the transmission cycle. The CDC has developed Standard Precautions to facilitate breaking the chain of infection. These precautions protect both the nurse and the patient and are to be used for every patient contact; they include the use of hand hygiene and PPE
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How do you remove personal protective equipment in order? (6)
#1 Remove gloves #2 Remove eyewear #3 If used, remove head cover #4 Remove gown #5 Remove the face mask #6 Perform hand hygiene
(know) Wear an n95 respirator mask when entering an area where airborne microorganisms less than 5 microns in size are known to be present. Change the mask any time it becomes moist
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When do you wear eyewear?
#1 performing oral care #2 nasotracheal #3 performing wound irrigations #4 performing or assisting with procedures in which blood or other body fluids might splatter
What are the 6 steps to cleaning an object?
#1 Rinse the object with cold water to remove organic material #2 wash the object in hot, soapy water #3 Use a stiff-bristled brush or abrasive to clean equipment with grooves and narrow spaces #4 rinse the object well with moderately hot water #5 dry the object #6 disinfect the cleaning equipment and the sink when you have finished cleaning soiled objects
A ___ solution destroys bacteria
bactericidal
A ___ solution prevents the growth and reproduction of some bacteria
bacteriostatic
What are the 5 methods of sterilization
#1 steam under pressure (moist heat) #2 dry heat (hot air) #3 ethylene oxide #4 liquid chemicals (low temperature gas plasma) #5 hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (radiation)
Patients at high risk for infection are : (7)
#1 weakened by injury or severe illness #2 have another chronic illness #3 have a central venous catheter, IV cannula, indwelling drainage tube, or endotracheal tube for mechanical ventilation #4 are very young or very old #5 have an open wound #6 have a surgical incision #7 have a compromised immune system from chemotherapy or immunosuppression
the process of recovering after an illness and regaining health
convalescence period
the third stage of infection, where localized and systemic signs and symptoms appear
illness period
Not affording a passage
impervious
the time from invasion of the body by the microorganisms to the onset of symptoms
incubation period
the use of medical and surgical asepsis and standard precautions to prevent or control the spread of microorganisms
infection prevention and control
discomfort, uneasiness, or indisposition, often indicative of infection
malaise
early or very beginning stage of an illness
prodromal period
According to the IHI (2012), institute for healthcare improvement, health care providers can decrease the incidence of VAP (ventilator acquired pneumonia) by: (5)
#1 elevate head of bed 30 to 45 degrees #2 reduce sedation for assessing the patient's ability to breath independently #3 Prophylaxis for preventing peptic ulcer disease #4 prophylaxis for preventing deep vein thrombosis #5 daily oral care using chlorhexidine, an antimicrobial oral rinse
(know) isolation is a means of preventing contact between a patient and others to prevent the spread of infection. Emphasis is placed on containing microorganisms and preventing their spread
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What precaution would you use for Measles (rubella), Varicella (including disseminated zoster), and pulmonary tuberculosis
airborne precautions
What precautions would you use for invasive haemophilus influenzae type B disease (meningitis, pneumonia, and epiglottitis), invasive Neisseria meningitidis disease (meningitis, pneumonia, and sepsis), diphtheria (pharyngeal), Mycoplasma pneumonia, pertussis, and pneumonic plague, streptococcal (group A) pharyngitis, pneumonia, or scarlet fever
droplet precautions
When do you need to wear a mask regarding droplet precaution patients
When you are within 3 feet of the patient
What type of precaution would you use for gastrointestinal, respiratory, skin, or wound infections or colonization with multidrug-resistant organisms. Enteric infections like Clostridium difficile. For diapered or incontinent patients, enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli, shigella, hepatitis A, or rotavirus infection. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), parainfluenza virus, or enteroviral infections. Skin infections that occurs with dry skin, herpes simplex virus, impetigo, major abscesses, cellulitis, pressure injuries, pediculosis, scabies, staphylococcal furunculus’s, zoster. Viral or hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, Ebola, Lassa, or Marburg virus
contact precautions
___ delineate methods for avoiding direct contact with all body secretions except sweat, whether or not visible blood is present. This includes the mucous membranes and all nonintact skin
standard precautions
___ are based on interrupting the mode of transmission by identifying the specific secretions, body fluids, tissues, or excretions that might be infective.
transmission-based precautions
How do you don PPE in order (4)
#1 gown #2 mask #3 goggles #4 gloves
Steps to collecting specimen
#1 verify provider order and complete lab form #2 label the specimen container #3 Don gloves #4 collect specimen #5 apply the lid #6 disinfect containers #7 place in specimen bag #8 complete the lab requisition form and place it in the envelope pocket on specimen bag
(know) Wash your hands before eating; before, during, and after handling or preparing food; before dressing a wound, giving medicine, or inserting contact lenses; after contact with body fluids or blood; after changing a diaper; after using the bathroom; after handling animals or their toys, leashes, or waste; after handling anything contaminated, such as trash, drainage, or soil
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(know) the bathroom should be cleaned daily with standard household cleaning agent or a 1:10 solution of chlorine bleach water
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What are the 4 rules of surgical asepsis
#1 know what is sterile #2 know what is not sterile #3 separate sterile from unsterile #4 remedy contamination immediately
(know) the goal in surgical asepsis is to keep an area free of microorganisms
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(know) a 2 to 4 minute scrub is average
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What are the principles to observe when opening sterile packages? (
#1 perform hand hygiene #2 open the sterile kit away from the body #3 Touch only the outside of the wrapper #4 Do not reach across a sterile field #5 Always face the sterile field, even when moving to the other side #6 allow sufficient space (at least 6 inches) between the body and the sterile field
