Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Uworld > Test92: Incorrect > Flashcards

Test92: Incorrect Flashcards

1
Q

what is holoprosencephaly? when does this occur

A

incomplete division of forebrain

- weeks 5-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Heleprosencephaly is an example of what type of mechanism

A

malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is malformation

A

intrinsic defect in cells or tissues that form a structure, leading to downstream effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

agenesis

A

absent organ due to absent primordial tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

deformation

A

extrinsic disruption; after embryonic period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

disruption

A

secondary breakdown of a previously normal tissue or structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

chest tube for drainage of pleural effusion at 5th intercostal space on mid axillary line goes through what msucles

A
  • serratus anterior muscles
  • intercostal muscles
  • parietal pleura
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is not functioning in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Both T and B cells

- T cell unable to recognize actin cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is PCR used for and how

A

amplify small fragments of DNA by repeated replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In PCE primers are required that are complementary to what

A

regions of DNA flanking the segment of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how is spina bifida inherited

A

mulitfactorial condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are multfactorial diseases

A
  • spina bifida
  • cleft lip and palate
  • diabetes mellitus
  • coronary artery disease
  • hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is myoclonic epilepsy and lever hereditary optic neuropathy inherited

A

mitochondiral DNA from mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is sickle cell anemia inherited

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA for Trimethoprim

A

inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

- reducing bacteria’s ability to synthesize thymidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MOA for Tacrolimus

A
  • inhibits calcineurin, ( protein involved in activation of transcription factors related to T lymphocyte proliferation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

First line treatment for trigmeinal neuralgia? MOA?

A

Carbaamazepine: decrease sodium current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Someone who produces repetitive, unilateral, shooting pain in the distribution of CN V that last for greater than a minute

A

trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patient has several-week history of depressed mood, loss of interest, fatigue, hypersonic, poor concentration, weight loss, and thoughts of death has

A

major depressive disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

First line therapy for major depressive disorder

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

A

FLashbacks PARalyze SEnior CITizens

  • Fluoxetine
  • Paroxetine
  • Sertraline
  • Citalopram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MOA for serotonin reuptkae inhibitors

A

blocks serotonin transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Valsalva increases what? to abolish what?

A
  • vagal tone

- paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what happens to preload if you increase intrathoracic pressure

A
  • decrease preload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Immunization with diphtheria toxoid induces production of what

A

IgG against exotoxin B subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is phencyclidine

A

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Distinguishing features of PCP

A

ataxia, nystagmus and memory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Patient has combative behavior, confusion, and hallucinations accompanied by nystagmus and ataxia on PE, what overdose of what

A

phencyclidine PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MOA for Phencyclidine

A

N-methyl-Daspartate receptor antagonist

30
Q

Glomerulonephritis, photosensitive skin rash, and arthraligas in a young women indicate

A

SLE

31
Q

having antiphospholipid antibodies can cause what

A
  • paradoxical aPTT prolongation

- false-positive RPR/VDRL

32
Q

lab testing for antiphospholipid syndrome

A
  • false positive VDRL/RPR

- prolonged PTT

33
Q

how is diagnosis for antiphospholipid syndrome

A
  1. history of thrombosis

2. spontaneous absorption

34
Q

RBC filled with multiple, smaller rings suggests

A

Plasmodium malaria (trophozoite)

35
Q

Primiquine is special to kill what

A

P vivax

P ovale

36
Q

treatment of choice for malaria. if there is resistence, what else do you use

A
  • chloroquine

- mefloquine

37
Q

why can clindamycin be used against alcoholic apsiration

A

good against oral anaerobes and aerobic

38
Q

Immunocompromised patient has fever, headache with ring-enhancing lesion on brain MRI, respiratory symptoms with pulmonary nodules, and sputum studies revealing branching gram-positive organism

A

Nocardia

39
Q

Best way to prevent tetanus

A

Vaccine!!

Like vaccine mother and not prophylactic antibiotics

40
Q

What can cause neonatal tetanus

A
  • unhygienic deliveries or cord care
41
Q

glucose-6-phosphate catalyzses conversion of what

A
  • glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone
42
Q

What is the point of the pentose phosphate shunt

A

generate NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate

43
Q

what do RBC use NADPH for

A

maintain steady supply of glutathione

44
Q

Reed-Sternberg cell is diagnostic for what

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

45
Q

what age do people get Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Bimodal

46
Q

what causes direct hernias

A

weakness of transversals fascia

47
Q

what covers direct hernias

A

spermatic fascia

48
Q

how can renal plasma flow be determined from renal blood flow ?

A

(renal blood flow)( 1-hematocrit)

49
Q

superior gluteal nerve innervates

A
  • gluteus medius
  • gluteus minimus
  • tensor fasciae latae muscles
50
Q

Femoral nerve does what motor

A
  • flex thigh

- extend leg

51
Q

injury to obturator nerve causes

A

impaired thigh adduction and medial thigh sensory loss

52
Q

Sciatic nerve innervates what muscles of thigh

A

hamstring

53
Q

Anal fissures most commonly occur where

A
  • posterior midline distal to the dentate line
54
Q

female with menorrhagia and epistaxis will have what platelet disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

55
Q

von Willebrand disease binds what

A

platelet glycoprotein to subendothelial collagen on injured blood vessel walls

56
Q

D-xylose is what type of sugar

A

monosaccharide

57
Q

what type of molecules is useful for treating visceral nausea due to GI insults?

A

serotonin receptor antagonists

58
Q

what drugs are good for vestibular nausea

A
  • antihistamines

- anticholinergics

59
Q

what drug is good for nausea associated with migraine

A

dopamine

60
Q

for class 1 antiarrhythmics, sodium-channel-binding strength is ranked what

A

1C > 1A > 1B

61
Q

patient with respiratory failure, hypoxia, and thickened branchial walls with neutrophilic infiltrates, lymphatic infiltration, patchy squamous metaplasia on bronchial mucosa and mucous glands enlargement has what

A

chronic bronchitis

62
Q

leading cause of chronic bronchitis

A

smoking

63
Q

working in a nickel factory can expose you to what

A

silica dust exposure

64
Q

What medication selectively binds to Interleukin-1 inducible enzyme that is highly expressed by inflammatory cells and undetectable in surrounding normal tissue

A

Celecoxib

65
Q

where is COX-2 usually gound

A

inflammatory cells

66
Q

main MOA of progestins in contraceptives is

A

decrease FSH and LH

67
Q

Progesterone withdrawal causes endometrial cells to undergo what process, causing?

A

apoptosis

- menstrual bleeding

68
Q

what does parasympathetics do to bladder

A
  • detrusor muscle contraction

- internal urethral sphincter relaxation

69
Q

initial process involved in pathogenesis of infective endocarditis is disruption of what? then what follows

A
  • disruption of normal endocardial surface

- forming sterile fibrin-platelet nidus

70
Q

what is pure red cell aplasia

A
  • anemia with low reticulocyte count
  • hypoplasia of marrow erythroid elements
  • normal platelets and WBC
71
Q

what does pyruvate kinase convert

A

phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

- creates ATP

72
Q

What part of the spleen is part of the removal of RBC

A
  • red pulp

Uworld (63 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions