Test 62: All Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common path of embolus to retinal artery

A
  1. internal carotid artery,
  2. ophthalmic artery
  3. retinal artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

toxic shock syndrome toxins releases what type of antigen

A

superantigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Superantigens bind to what

A

MHC on APC and variable region of Lymphocytes

- release IL-2 and IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Genetic composition of Dengue fever

A

single-stranded RNA virus with 4 different serotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

compare primary and secondary infection with Dengue

A

Primary: asymptomatic or self-limited
Secondary: infection with different serotype, more severe illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Formula for incidence

A

(# of new cases) / (# people at risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is required to convert pyruvate to lactate

A

NAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate converts to what via

A

1-3-bisphosphoglycerate via NAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Keratin is a cell marker for what cell origin

A

Epithelial cell origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patient presenting with involuntary movements, depression, and a family history of a movement disorder has what

A

Huntington disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pleiotropy

A

one gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mosaicism

A

presence of genetically distinct cell lines in same individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Trinucleotide expansion occurs during what transmission in Huntington

A

Paternal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chromosomes 21 codes for what protein that is connected to Alzheimers

A

Amyloid precursor protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what causes error in RNA polymerase in Hepatitis C

A

no proofreading 3’ –>5’ exonuclease activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Alkapotnuria

A

AR: deficiency of homogentisate oxidase which allows tyrosine to fumarate
- accumulation of homogentisic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clinical features of Alkaptonuria

A
  • black urine color when exposed to air,
  • blue-black pigmentation nf face
  • orchronotic arthropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Valine to glutamate

A

sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Leucine to acetoacetate

A

maple syrup urine disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In Babesiosis what does peripheral blood smear show

A

intraerythrocytic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aedes mosquito is a vector for

A
  1. dengue fever

2. chikungunya

22
Q

What are Potassium levels in diabetic ketoacidosis intracellularly and extracellularly

A

intra: decreased
extra: normal or increased

23
Q

Pyridoxine ( B6 vitamin) is necessary for what processes for gluconeogensis

A
  1. transamination

2. decarboxylation of amino acids

24
Q

Transamination reactions occur between what

A

amino acid and alpha-ketoacid

25
Q

How does L5 Radiolupathy present in patient

A
  • back pain radiating down leg with sensory loss over buttocks, lateral thigh and calk, and dorsal foot
  • Weakness of foot dorsiflexion, inversion, eversion, and toe extension
26
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency blocks what

A

conversion of kininogen to bradykinin

- increase bradykinin

27
Q

What does ACE do to bradykinin levels

A

degrades bradykinin

28
Q

MOA for Tamoxifen

A

selective estrogen receptor modulators

  • estrogen agonist on uterus
  • estrogen antagonist at breast
29
Q

What is seen in primary and secondary m. tuberculosis in lung

A

primary: Ghon foci in lower lobes
Secondary: apical cavitary lesion

30
Q

Inulin clearance can be used to calculate what value

A

GFR

31
Q

High altitude exposure results in what

A

hypoxemia with respiratory alkalosis

32
Q

Define Bulimia nervosa

A

recurrent binge eating and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors
- usually normal weight

33
Q

factitious disorder is what

A

intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological symptoms for purpose of assuming sick role

34
Q

What are melanocytes derived from

A

neural crest cells

35
Q

Reaction formation

A

defense mechanism that involves replacing unacceptable feelings and impulses with their extreme opposites

36
Q

Splitting

A

seeing others as all bad or all good

37
Q

Suppression

A

Putting unwanted feelings aside to cope with reality

38
Q

Projection

A

Attributing one’s own feelings to others

39
Q

Displacement

A

transferring feelings to a more acceptable object

40
Q

MOA for Niacin

A
  • decreases hepatic synthesis of triglycerides and VLDL

- reduces clearance of HDL

41
Q

Risk factor for taking Niacin

A
  • decrease renal excretion of uric acid

- precipitating acute gouty arthritis

42
Q

What nerve goes through obturator foramen

A

obtruator nerve

43
Q

what happens when you hurt the obturator nerve

A
  • weakness on thigh adduction

- sensory loss over distal medial thigh

44
Q

ventral posterior lateral nucleus receives input from where

A
  1. spinothalamic tract

2. dorsal columns

45
Q

ventral posterior medial nucleus receives input from

A

trigeminal pathway

46
Q

If patient is deaf, what do you do for communication

A

1st: interpreter
2nd: use other tools like writing

47
Q

Bipolar 1

A
  • manic episodes

- depressive episodes not required but common

48
Q

Bipolar II

A

Hypomanic episodes

49
Q

MOA of Bosentan

A

competitive antagonist of endothelin receptors used for treatment of idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension

50
Q

Inherited or acquired hypertriglyceridemia with triglyceride levels exceeding over 1000 mg/dL, what organ can be damaged

A

acute pancreatitis

51
Q

after 12-18 hours of fasting, what is the principal source of blood glucose

A
  • gluconeogenesis
52
Q

What is the primary source of glucose for the first 12-18 hours of fasting

A

glycogenolsys