Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Uworld > Test 4-7: All > Flashcards

Test 4-7: All Flashcards

1
Q

which cells in the heart have the fastest firing rate

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are Beta1 adrenergic receptors found

A
  1. cardiac tissues

2. renal juxtaglomerular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MOA for atenolol

A

selective Beta 1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MOA for propranolol

A

nonselective beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glycolysis of a single glucose molecule always yields pyruvate but sometimes generates no net ATP? What cell am i in?

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Role of 2,3-BPG

A

decrease hemoglobin affinity for oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What molecule makes 2,3-BPG, via? What is special about this reaction

A
  • 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate via mutase

- bypasses ATP generating step of glycolysis, causing no net gain in ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is used to measure GFR

A

creatinine and inulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PAH is used to calculate what

A

renal plasma flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is G6PD deficiency inherited

A

X-linked recessive disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Role of viral encoded surface glycoprotein

A

mediates vision attachment to target host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A reduced Left ventricular heart compliance is what type of heart failure

A

diastolic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy causes diastolic dysfunction

A

restrictive/infiltrative cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Decreased protein/albumin levels in capillaries change what pressures

A
  • lowers plasma oncotic pressure

- increases net plasma filtration in capillary beds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pulmonary tuberculosis infection is controlled through the action of what cells

A
  • CD4+ TH1 lymphocytes

- macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hematocrit

A

ratio of RBC to total volume of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In patients with sickle cell anemia and other chronic hemolytic disorders, the most common viral infection of erythroid progenitor cells is what

A

parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the difference between aplastic crisis and aplastic anemia

A

crisis: Sickle cell patient, Parvovirus, infection of erythroid precursor cell
anemia: pancytopenia not just anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

genome for Parvovirus B19

A

non-envoloped single-stranded DNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Both adenosine and dipyridamole have what same MOA

A

vasodilators of coronary vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is coronary steal syndrome

A
  • blood flow in ischemic ares is reduced due to arteriolar vasodilation in nonischemic areas .
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Epicardial vessles

A

Large coronary arteries of heart, RC, LAD, LCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many patients need to be treated with Superstation to prevent one additional myocardial infarction. What calculation is this asking for

A
  • Number needed to treat

- number of patients who need to be exposed to be treated for 1 patient to benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

equation for number needed to treat

A

1/ARR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

arrangement in which a payor pays a fixed, predetermined fee to provide all the services required by the patient

A

Capitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

payment arrangement in which an insurer pays a provider for each individual service provided at a pre-arranged, discounted rate

A

Discounted fee-for-service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

arrangment in which an insurer pays a provider a single payment to cover all expenses associated with an incident of care

A

Global payment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

patients have access to personal physician who coordinates care and sees the patient through all aspects of care
- can include captivated or fee-for-service

A

Patient-centered medical home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  • patients must have primary care provider and obtain referrals for specialty consultations
  • allows patients to see providers outside the network, (different from HMO)
A

Point-of-service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common site for unilateral fetal hydronephrosis

A

ureteropelvic junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

All 3 prokaryotic DNA polymerases have what same job

A
  • remove misatched nucleotides via their 3’ to 5’ exonuclease ( “proofreading”) activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What unique function does DNA polymerase I have

A

excises RNA primer with 5’ to 3’ exonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Electron microscopy for acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A
  • subepithelial immune complex humps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T-lymphocyte, moncytes and eosinophilic infiltration may be seen in what kidney problem

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prominent fibrin deposition is characteristic of what kidney disease

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hyaline, acellular deposits composed of plasma protein deposited in kidney is seen in what

A

Kimmelsteil-Wilson nodules of diabetic nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is chronic granulomatous disease inherited

A

X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How can one test for Chronic granulomatous disease

A
  1. abnormal dihydrorhodamine (flow cytometry) test
    - decrease green fluorescence
  2. Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test obsolete
39
Q

Left anterior descending artery arises from what

A

left main artery

40
Q

How does the left anterior descending artery course on the heart

A

-Anterior aspect of the anterior inter ventricular groove toward apex of heart

41
Q

Where is coronary sinus located

A

runs transversely in the left AV groove on the posterior side of the heart

42
Q

Deletion of a single nucleotide from the DNA sequence can cause what type of mutation

A

frameshift mutation

43
Q

conservative mutation

A
  • type of missense

- one amino acid is replaced with another amino acid similar in chemical structure

44
Q

Missense mutation

A
  • point mutation (nucleotide substitution) resulting in change in amino acid
45
Q

Nonsense mutation

A
  • single base substitution that introduces a premature stop codon
46
Q

Silent mutation

A
  • single base substitution within a codon that does not change amino acid coded for by codon
47
Q

What are stop codons

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

48
Q

What is minute ventilation? equation

A

total volume of gas entering lungs per minute

= tidal volume * Respiratory rate

49
Q

how does increased elastic resistance in lung impact minute ventilation

A
  • increase respiratory rate (rapid shallow breaths)

- decrease tidal volume

50
Q

how does high airflow resistance in lung impact minute ventilation

A
  • increase tidal volume

- decrease respiratory rates ( slow, deep breaths)

51
Q

Leads I and aVL corresponds to what on the heart

A

Lateral Circumflex

52
Q

What does lateral circumflex supply

A
  • lateral and posterior walls of left ventricle, anterolateral papillary muscles
53
Q

Anterior chest leads V1-V4 refer to what part of the heart and blood supply

A
  • Left anterior descending artery

- anterior aspect of left ventricle and inter ventricular septum

54
Q

Right coronary artery corresponds an ST elevation in what leads

A

II, III, aVF

55
Q

Ureteric bud gives rise to what

A

collecting system of kidney

collecting tubule and ducts, major and minor calyces, real pelvis, and ureters

56
Q

The metanephric mesoderm (blastema) gives rise to

A
  • Glomeruli
  • Bowman’s space
  • proximal tubules
  • Loope of Henle
  • distal convoluted tubules
57
Q

In phenotypically normal parents, the probability that a female sibling of male affected by an X-linked recessive disease will give birth to an affected child is what

A

1/8

58
Q

Who produces interleukin-2

A

All T cells

59
Q

What does IL-2 activate

A
  • CD4 and CD 8 T cells
  • B cells
  • Natural killer cells
  • monocytes
60
Q

What part of the immune system is responsible for it’s anti-cancer effect on metastatic melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

A

T cells release IL-2 to activated natural killer cells release

61
Q

pulmonary elastase enzyme is derived from what cell

A

alveolar macrophage and neutrophils

62
Q

What gets rid of pulmonary elastase

A

antiprotease

63
Q

Where are club cells found

A

terminal portions of bronchioles

64
Q

What do club cells secrete

A
  1. proteins ( protect against airway inflammation)

2. surfactant components

65
Q

Name the 5 dimorphic fungi

A
  1. sporothrix
  2. coccidioides
  3. histoplasma
  4. blastomyces
  5. paracoccidioides
66
Q

What is the form os Aspergillus

A

mold

67
Q

What is the form of candidia

A

budding yeast or forming pseudohyphae

68
Q

Cyrptococcus is in what form

A

yeast

69
Q

What is the FEV1/FEC ration, TLC, and diffusing capacity in emphysema

A
  1. decreased ( FEV1/FVC)
  2. increased ( TLC )
  3. decreased ( diffusing capacity)
70
Q

What happens to the diffusing capacity in asthma

A

increased

71
Q

What is the diffusing capacity for intrinsic restrictive lung disease and extrinsic

A

intrinsic: decrease
extrinsic: increase

72
Q

What does carbon monoxide bind to in body and what is it called

A
  • heme iron in hemoglobin

- carboxyhemoglobin

73
Q

If only 1 out of the 4 heme sites has a CO molecule, how are the 3 remaining groups changed

A

increase oxygen affinity

74
Q

At the cellular level, what does CO bind to

A

cytochrome oxidase

75
Q

The probability that a child of parents from 2 populations with different mutant alley carrier frequencies will inherit an autosomal recessive disease is what

A

25% * carrier frequencies

76
Q

What is the principal stabilizing force for the secondary structure of proteins

A

hydrogen bonds

77
Q

A proteins’ primary structure is a sequence of amino acids linked by what bonds

A

covalent

78
Q

disulfide bond connects what

A

2 cysteine residues

79
Q

What is SaO2 lab value tell you

A

oxygen saturation of hemoglobin

80
Q

what does PaO2 tell you

A

partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in blood

81
Q

What are oxygen lab values for anemia

A
  1. decrease [Hb]

2. normal SaO2 and PaO2

82
Q

What are oxygen lab values for cyanide

A

All normal

83
Q

What causes tetralogy of fallout

A

anterosuperior displacement of infundibular septum

84
Q

Primary infection with HSV-1 can cause

A
  • gingivostomaitis

- dehydration

85
Q

How does latent HSV-1 present

A

mild perioral vesicles

86
Q

Homozygous DeltaF508 mutation is what disease

A

cystic fibrosis

87
Q

What is sweat content of someone with cystic fibrosis

A

sweat high with sodium and high chloride

88
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance is most likely to cause symptoms in cystic fibrosis

A

hyponatremia

89
Q

Lesion in optic tract cuases

A
  • contralateral homonymous hemianopia

- afferent pupillary defect ( marcus Gunn pupil) in pupil contralateral to tract lesion

90
Q

18 year old college student as fever, petechial rash on trunk and extremities, including palms and soles. What does she have

A

Neisseria species

91
Q

Deficiency of complement factors that form membrane attack complex results in recurrent infections of ?

A

Neisseria species

92
Q

Some vaccines have what conjugated to them , enhancing immunogenicity by promoting T-cell activation and class swtiching

A

polysacharide capsule antigens

93
Q

KRAS mutations are seen in what diseases

A

colon cancer, lung cancer, pancreatic cancer

Uworld (63 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions