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Uworld > Test 75: All > Flashcards

Test 75: All Flashcards

1
Q

What is the PD-1 receptor and where is it found

A
  • found on cancer cells

- inhibit T-cell activity

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2
Q

Where is CD28 found and role

A
  • naive T cell
  • binds to APC B7 receptor
  • costimulatory signal for T cell activation
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3
Q

Normally, what are 2 sources of HCl neutralization

A
  1. submucosal (brunner) glands

2. pancreatic duct secretion

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4
Q

Presence of aid in duodenum and jejunum causes release of what

A

secretin

- stimulates secretion of bicarbonate from submucosal glands and pancreas

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5
Q

Where is bicarbonate secreted from from ileum and colon

A

ileum: villi
colon: crypts

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6
Q

What cytokines mediate systemic inflammatory response

A

IL-1
IL-6
TNF - alpha

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7
Q

what are acute phase reactants

A
  • fibrinogen
  • ferritin
  • C-reactive protien
  • serum amyloid A
  • serum Amyloid P
  • complement factors
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8
Q

role of Thromboxane A2

A
  • vasoconstriction

- platelet aggregation

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9
Q

Impact of fibrinogen on erythrocyte sedimentation rate ( ESR)

A

fibrinogen increases ESR

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10
Q

What in cyclophosphamide causes hemorrhagic cystitis

A
  • acrolein
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11
Q

Dexrazoxane

A

iron-chelating agent

- prevent anthracycline-induce cardiotoxicity

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12
Q

Filgrastim

A

G-CSF

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13
Q

Folinic acid

A

treat methotrexate overdose

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14
Q

Early systolic, high-frequency click over there right second interspace

A

bicupsid aortic valve

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15
Q

CSF flows from third ventricle to fourth ventricle via

A

cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius

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16
Q

Obstruction at foramen of Monro causes what.

A

enlargement of lateral ventricle

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17
Q

Obstruction of Magendie and Luschka causes what

A

enlargement of all 4 ventricles

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18
Q

What type of immunity is needed for listeria moncytogenes and why

A
  • cell mediated

- rocket tails via actin polymerization that allows intracellular movement and cell-in broth, avoids antibodies

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19
Q

What is the virulence factor for Listeria?

A

Listeriolysin O: lyse vacuolar membrane

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20
Q

Excess of what vitamin can cause mental status changes, muscles weakness, constipation, polyuria/polydipsia, and dehydration

A

hypercalcemia

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21
Q

Sarcoidosis produces excess what

A

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

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22
Q

25-hyroxyvitamin D is converted to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D via what and where

A

1-alpha-hydroxylase in kidneys, regulated by PTH

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23
Q

how does granulomatous diseases such as sarcoidosis and tuberculosis create hypercalemia

A

expression of 1-alpha-hydroxylate in activated macrophages

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24
Q

Amino acid Tryptophan makes what

A

Niacin and Serotonin

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25
Q

Treatment for Actinomyces israelii

A

penicillin

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26
Q

Varicocele

A
  • dilated veins in pampiniform plexus due to increase venous pressure
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27
Q

Esophageal varices, rectal varices, and periumbilical venous distention are signs of what

A

portal venous hypertension

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28
Q

what is not part of portal venous hypertension

A

renal veins

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29
Q

Tay-Sachs is a deficiency in what

A

Hexosaminidase A

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30
Q

What accumulates in Tay-Sachs

A

GM2 ganglioside

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31
Q

patient with cherry-red macular spot and neurodegeneration

A

Tay-Sachs

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32
Q

Patient with Hepatosplanomegaly, neurodegeneration, and cherry-red macular spot

A

Neiman-Pick

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33
Q

What iniates atherosclerosis

A

endothelial cell injury

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34
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

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35
Q

What does glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase convert

A

glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconate

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36
Q

What does the pentose phosphate pathway produce

A

NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate

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37
Q

Relate pentose phosphate pathway and RBC

A
  • RBC uses NADPH to maintain steady supply of glutathione
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38
Q

Yellow-green vaginal discharge and vaginal burning

A

Trichomas vaginitis

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39
Q

Best test to confirm diagnosis for Trichomas Vaginitis

A

Saline microscopy ( wet Mount)

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40
Q

Carbonxyhemoglobin, partial pressure of oxygen and methemoglobinemia concentration levels when CO poisoning

A

Carboxyhemoglobin increases

partial pressure of oxygen and methhemoglobinemia same

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41
Q

what are oxygen levels in CO poisoning

A
  • decreases oxygen-carrying capacity
  • decreases oxygen content of blood
  • Normal oxygen dissolved in plasma
42
Q

Injections given in the supermodel part of the buttock risk injury to what

A

superior gluteal nerve

43
Q

Injections where have a risk injury to the sciatic nerve

A
  • superomedial
  • inferomedial
  • inferolateral region of buttox
44
Q

Trendelenburg gait

A

hip drops down as ipsilateral foot is lifted off the ground

45
Q

Trendelenbrug gait is injury to what

A

contralateral superior gluteal nerve

- gluteus medius muscle

46
Q

What is Enoxaparin

A
  • Low molecular weight heparin
  • binds and activates antithrombin III
  • binds to factor Xa
  • prevents prothrombin to thrombin
  • primarily acts on Xa, not thrombin
47
Q

tPA converts what

A

plasminogen to plasmin

- plasmin breaks fibrin

48
Q

What is wrong in methylmalonic academy

A

complete or partial deficiency of methylmalonyl-CoA mutase

49
Q

how do newborns present with methylmalonic acidemia

A

lethary, vomiting and tachypnea

50
Q

lab values for Mathlamalonic acidemia

A

serum: hyperamminoa, ketotic hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis
urine: methylmalonyl-CaA mutase

51
Q

Acyclovir toxicity? prevention for toxicity

A
  • crystalline nephropathy
  • acute renal failure
  • need to adequately hydrate
52
Q

What drug is a resistance mechanism of substitution of D-lactate in place of D-alanine during peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis

A

vancomycin

53
Q

What is the binding site of vancyomycin

A

D-alanyl-Dalanine

54
Q

What stimulates gastric acid secretion

A

cephalic and gastric phases

55
Q

what reduced gastric acid secretion

A

intestinal influences

56
Q

What is Latanoprost

A

prostglandin analog

57
Q

MOA for Latanoprost

A

increase outflow of aqueous humor

58
Q

side effects of latanoprost

A
  • darkens color of iris (browning)

- eyelash growth

59
Q

Define open angle glaucoma

A

increased intraocular pressure

60
Q

Increased formation of new blood vessels at the optic disc is characteristic feature of what problem

A

diabetic retinopathy

61
Q

Patients treated with clozapine are required to have what monitered

A

absolute neutrophil count due to risk of life-threatening agranulocytosis

62
Q

Which second-generation antipsychotic is the only antipsychotic that has consistently shown superior efficacy in treatment-resistant schizophrenia

A

Clozapine

63
Q

what should be monitored for lithium

A

thyroid function and creatine

64
Q

common adverse effect for Ziprasidone

A

prolonged QT interval

65
Q

Adverse effect of Risperidone

A

hyperprolactinemia

66
Q

Drugs that have been shown to improve long-term survival in patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction are

A
  1. beta blockers
  2. ace inhibitors
  3. angiotensin II receptor blockers
  4. Aldosterone antagonists
67
Q

Calcitriol

A

active form of vitamin D

68
Q

Alendronate

A

inhibits osteoclast function

69
Q

Cinacalcet

A

decrease PTH

70
Q

Sevelamer

A

decrease absorption of phosphate in GI tract

71
Q

Cannulation (puncturing) above the inguinal ligament increases risk of hemorrhage where

A

retroperitoneal hemorrhage

72
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction cycle, ATP binding to myosin causes what?

A

release of myosin head from its binding site on the actin filaments

73
Q

in muscle contraction Calcium binds to what

A

Troponin C

- shifts tropomyosin away from myosin binding site on actin

74
Q

Myosin light chain kinase phosphorylates the myosin light chain, activating myosin to bind actin filaments in what type of muscle

A

smooth muscle cells

75
Q

Complete or partial loss of an X chromosome results from what process

A

paternal meiotic nondisjunciton

76
Q

Uniparental disomy

A

indivicual inherits 2 copies of a chromosome from one parent and no copies of the chromosome form other parent

77
Q

Prader-Willi

A

2 maternal copies of chromosome 15 due to deleted or unexpressed maternal chromosome

78
Q

Angelman syndrome

A

2 paternal copies of chromosome 15 due to deleted or unexpressed maternal chromosome

79
Q

Symptoms of Internal carotid artery

A
  • ipsilateral nasal hemianopia

- damage uncrossed optic nerve fibers from temporal portion of retina

80
Q

lesion in lateral aspect of optic chiasm causes

A

ipsilateral nasal hemianopia

81
Q

Interferon-gamma does what

A
  1. activates macrophages
  2. increase MHC
  3. promote T helper 1 cells differentiation
82
Q

who produced interferon-gamma

A

T lymphocytes

Natural killer cells

83
Q

Interferon-gamma release assay tests for what

A

Latent tuberculosis infection

84
Q

What arises from 3rd pharyngeal pouch

A

thymus and inferior parathyroid gland

85
Q

Myasthenia gravis patients usually have what organ problem

A

thymoma or thymic hyperplasia

86
Q

what arises from 4th bronchial pouch

A
  1. superior parathyroid
  2. ultimobranchial body
  3. parafollicular cells of thyroid
87
Q

What arises from 2nd branchial much derivatives

A

epithelial lining of palatine tonsil

88
Q

what arises from 1st branchial pouch derivative

A
  • middle ear cavity
  • eustachain tube
  • mastoid air cells
89
Q

Ethanol inhibits what glucose pathway? causes?

A

gluconeogenesis

- cause hypoglycemia once hepatic glycogen stores are depleted

90
Q

how does alcohol prevent gluconeogenesis

A
  1. pyruvate to lactate

2. Oxaloacetate to malate

91
Q

Ethanol increases what ratio

A

NADH/NAD+

92
Q

How does aflatoxin lead to hepatocellular carcinoma

A

G-to-T mutation in gene p53

93
Q

High synovial fluid leukocyte count and absent crystals on microscopic examination suggests

A

bacterial join infection

94
Q

MOA of Allopurinol

A

lowers serum uric acid levels

95
Q

MOA of Colchicine

A

reduces acute inflammation of gouty arthritis by inhibiting neutrophil migration into inflamed areas

96
Q

MOA of Selegiline? what is it used for

A
  • inhibitor of MAO, type B
  • blocks conversion of dopamine to DOPAC
  • delay progression of Parkinson disease
97
Q

Amantadine MOA for Parkinson’s

A
  • increase dopamine release

- decrease dopamine uptake

98
Q

MOA of Pergolide

A

dopamine agonist of D2 receptors

99
Q

Triad for Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A
  1. dysphagia
  2. iron deficiency anemia ( shiny red tongue, koilonychia - spoon shaped nails)
  3. esophageal web
100
Q

Progressively weakening diaphragmatic contractions during maximal voluntary ventilation with intact phrenic nerve stimulation indicates

A
  1. neuromuscular junction pathology

2. abnormal rapid diaphragmatic muscle fatigue

Uworld (63 decks)

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