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Uworld > Test49: Pathology > Flashcards

Test49: Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Phosphate levels of chronic kidney disease? what does this do?

A

elevated phosphate levels

- bind calcium

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2
Q

Calcitriol

A

active form of Vitamin D

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3
Q

Elevated phosphate levels and FGF-23 do what do Calcitriol synthesis and PTH

A
  • decreased calcitriol synthesis

- increase PTH synthesis

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4
Q

Elevated PTH can lead to what bone problem

A

osteitis fibrosa

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5
Q

Most common cardiomyopathy

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

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6
Q

Most common heritable bleeding disorder

A
  • von Willebrand disease (vWD)
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7
Q

how is von Willebrand disease inherited

A

autosomal dominant with variable penetrance

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8
Q

what are 2 things prolonged in von Willebrand disease

A

PTT and leading time

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9
Q

2 functions of von Willebrand disease

A
  1. carrier protein for factor VIII

2. mediator of platelet adhesion

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10
Q

What does mitral regurgitation sound like? location

A
  • blowing, holosystolic murmur

- cardiac apex with radiation to axilla

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11
Q

What can cause mitral regurgitation in underdeveloped countries

A

rheumatic heart disease

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12
Q

66 yr old man: dizziness, bilateral limb ataxia, mass in right lunch, cerebellar Purkinje cell degeneration

A

paraneopastic cerebellar degeneration

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13
Q

Most common antibodies in paraneoplastic cerebellar deneration

A

Abs against Hu, Yo, Tr, and P/Q

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14
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma can metastasize where

A

subacute cerebellar degeneration

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15
Q

Several months to years after brain infarction, the necrotic area looks like

A

cystic cavity surrounded by wall composed of dense fibers formed by astrocytic processes ( glial scar)

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16
Q

What happens to a patient during the first week after expire to M. tuberculosis

A
  • intracellular bacterial proliferation
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17
Q

What allows M. tuberculosis to proliferate in bacterial cell

A

sulfatide virulence factor

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18
Q

Autosomal dominant Polycystic kidney disease are associated with other health probelms

A
  • Berry aneurysms
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • benign hepatic cysts
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19
Q

rupture of Berry aneurysm results in

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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20
Q

Polycystic kidney disease, sudden onset severe headache, nuchal ridigity?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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21
Q

Dandy-Walker malformation

A
  • hypoplasia/absence of cerebellar vermis

- cystic dilation of 4th ventricle

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22
Q

complication of Dandy-Walker malformation

A
  • non-communicating hydrocephalus
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23
Q

Arnold-Chiari malformation

A
  • downward displacement of cerebellar vermis and tonsils below foramen magnum
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24
Q

Where does Varicella zoster remain dormant

A
  • dorsal root ganglia
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25
Q

histo for varicella zoster

A
  • intranuclear inclusions in keratinocytes and multinucleate giant cells ( positive Tzank smear)
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26
Q

histo for dermatitis herpetiformis

A

neutrophils on tips of dermal papillae

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27
Q

Most important poor prognostic factor for post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

increased age

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28
Q

elevated creatine kinase is suggestive of what

A

myopathy

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29
Q

Patient is fatigued, weight gain myoedema ( focal mounding of muscle following percussion), elevated creatinine kinase ? what causes creatinine kinase increase

A

serum TSH

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30
Q

what makes up the uterine wall

A
  • simple columnar epithelium
  • tubular glands
  • stroma
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31
Q

Most common site of endometriosis

A

ovary, pelvis, peritoneum

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32
Q

Normal epithelium of ovary

A

simple cuboidal cells

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33
Q

transient procoagulant/anticoagulant imbalance presenting at start of warfarin therapy is caused by

A

protein C deficiency

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34
Q

Meningococcal septicemia can cause bilateral hemorrhagic infarction of adrenal glands leading to

A

Waterhouse-Friderchsen syndrome

35
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • fever
  • DIC
  • shock
36
Q

Which hepatitis increases risk for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

B and C

37
Q

HBV or HBC integrates DNA in liver cell

A

HBV has revserve transcriptase

38
Q

What does the liver do after HBV infection

A

regeneratie hyperplasia

and liver cell injury

39
Q

HBV genes disrupts cell control cycle by

A

inactivating p53

40
Q

Low-pitched, holosystolic murmur that accentuates during maneuvers that increase after load

A

ventricular septal defect

41
Q

Right-sided colon cancers grow how? and present?

A
  • exophytic masses

- occult leading and symptoms of iron deficiency anemai

42
Q

left-sided colon grow how? causes?

A
  • infiltrate intestinal wall and encircle the lumen

- constipation and symptoms of intestinal obstruction

43
Q

What is Rectosigmoid involvement of colon cancer cause

A

hematochezia

44
Q

constipation that alternates with diarrhea is characteristic of

A

irritable bowel syndrome

45
Q

What is increased in serum for hemolytic-uremic syndrome

A
  • lactate dehydrogenase
  • unconjugated bilirubin
  • BUN
  • creatinine
46
Q

Removal of excess cholesterol from body occurs 2 mechanisms

A
  1. excretion of free cholesterol into bile

2. conversion of cholesterol into bile acids

47
Q

High levels of what increase cholesterol solubility and decrease risk of gallstones

A
  • phosphatidylcholine and bile salts
48
Q

pigment stones can arise from what condition

A

unconjugated bilirubin in bile

49
Q

what can cause black pigment stones

A
  • chronic hemolysis

- ileal disease

50
Q

epigastric calcifications and history alcohol use ? consequences

A

chronic alcoholic pancreatitis

- malabsorption

51
Q

pt has, fever, neurologic symptoms, renal failure, anemia, and thrombocytopenia in setting of GI illness

A

thrombocytopenia thrombotic purport-hemolytic uremic syndrome
TTP-HUS

52
Q

Child with generalized edema, mild upper respiratory infection, proteinuria, low albumin

A

minimal change disease: effacement of podocytes

53
Q

green discoloration of pus or sputum seen during common bacterial infection is due to

A

presence of myeloperoxidase

54
Q

Most common renal malignanty

A

clear cell carcinoma

- arises from renal proximal tubular cells

55
Q

cells in renal cell carcinoma

A

polygonal clear cells filled with accumulated lipids and carbohydrates

56
Q

Name the mediators that attract neutrophils

A
  1. LTB4
  2. C5a
  3. IL8
  4. bacterial products
57
Q

Familial retinoblastoma is associated with what other disease

A

osteosarcoma

58
Q

Familial retinoblastoma occurs as a result of mutation of what

A

2 RB genes ( “two hits”)

59
Q

Most common malignant brain tumor of childhood

A

medulloblastoma

60
Q

patient with Down Syndrome, ataxia-telangiectasia and neurofibromatosis type1 has an increased risk of developing what

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia

61
Q

first sign of uncal herniation

A

fixed and dilated pupil on side of lesions

62
Q

What nerve gets compressed in Transtentorial (uncal herniation)

A

CN III: oculomotor nerve

63
Q

Translocationof CML

A

9:22

bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor

64
Q

Most common lung cancer in nonsmoker

A

non small cell adenocarcinoma

65
Q

how does shigella invade GI

A
  • microfilm cells in ill peer patches through endocytosis
66
Q

What kind of stool is passed with shigella

A

blood and mucus

67
Q

Old patient becomes aggressive and periodic jerky movements of arms

A

Huntington’s disease

68
Q

Huntington’s is loss of what neurotransmitter

A

GABA

69
Q

MEN2 syndromes are caused by gremline mutations of what

A

RET proto-oncogene

70
Q

enlarging thyroid with elevated calcitonin is what

A

medullary thyroid cancer

71
Q

PE for medullary thyroid cancer

A
  • marfanoid habitus

- mucosal neuromas

72
Q

patient with weight loss despite normal increased food intake, polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue

A

type 1 diabetes mellitus

73
Q

fasting glucose for diabetes

A

greater than 126

74
Q

calcium levels in blood and urine for calcium stones

A
  • hypercalciuria ( urine)

- normacalcemic ( blood)

75
Q

In diastolic heart failure is what is

  • left ventricular ejection fraction
  • end-diastolic volume
  • increased LV filling pressures
A
  1. normal
  2. normal
  3. increased LV filling pressure
76
Q

What is the most important determinant for prognosis for tetralogy of fallot

A

pulmonary stenosis

77
Q

Symptoms for polymyositits

A

insidious onset of symmetric proximal muscle weakness affecting the upper and lower extremities

78
Q

what antibodies are founding polymyositis

A
  1. anti-jo-1
  2. anti-Mi-2-antibodies

against histidyl-tRNA syntheses

79
Q

Grave’s disease

A
  • autoimmune response against TSH receptor
80
Q

PE for grave’s disease

A
  • pretibial myxedema
  • exopthalmos
  • periorbital edema
81
Q

atherosclerotic plaque can get an endothelial damage and cause what

A

platelet aggregation/adhesion and release of PDGF

82
Q

patient with hip pain, decreased range of motion, and underlying sickle cell disease

A

osteonecrosis

83
Q

causes of osteonecrosis

A

CAST Bent LEGS

  • Corticosteroids
  • Alcoholsim
  • Sickle Cell
  • Trauma
  • ” the bends”
  • LEgg-Calve_perthes
  • Gaucher disease
  • slipped capital fermoral epiphysis
84
Q

Epithelial ovarian cancer has elevated levels of what in serum

A

cancer antigen 125 (CA-125)

Uworld (63 decks)

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