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Uworld > Test78: All > Flashcards

Test78: All Flashcards

1
Q

Absent P waves, narrow QRS complexes, and irregularly irregular R-R intervals?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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2
Q

Conditions where atria undergo rapid depolarization, what regulates the number of impulses that reach ventricles

A

AV node refractory period

- also determines ventricular contraction rate

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3
Q

Bundle branch conductivity determines what in EKG

A

QRS complex

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4
Q

what is the assume pacemaker in patients with severe bradycardia

A

Purkinje system

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5
Q

Patient with no apparent liver disease who have mild uncojucated hyperbilirubinemia, suggetsts

A

Gilbert

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6
Q

When does surfactant get made in fetal baby

A

end of pregnancy

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7
Q

what is a component of surfactant

A

Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine

- type of lecithin

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8
Q

What ratio indicates mature fetal lungs

A

lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio greater than 1.9

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9
Q

How is betamethasone administration to a pregnant women before 32 weeks delivery do to the baby

A

accelerates maturation of type II pneumocytes

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10
Q

Chronic lithium toxicity can be caused by what?

A
  • volume depletion
  • Thiazide
  • Diuretics
  • ACE inhibitors
  • NSAIDS
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11
Q

Positive and negative predictive values are influenced by what

A

disease prevalence

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12
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma can produce whwat

A

HyperCalcemia from PTHrP

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13
Q

Growth hormone causes the release of what from where

A

Insulin-like growth factor -1 from liver

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14
Q

Laron dwarfism

A

defective GH receptors

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15
Q

Role of Homeobox genes

A
  • encode DNA-binding transcription

- segmental organization of embryo along crania-caudal axis

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16
Q

Releasing factors recognize what

A

stop codons and terminate protein synthesis

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17
Q

What are the stop codons

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

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18
Q

Role of elongation factors

A

facilitate tRNA binding and translocation steps of protein synthesis

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19
Q

2 year old healthy boy with fever and mouth pain. Swollen gums and vesicular inflamed lesions of hard palate and lips. Enlarged tender cervical lymph nodes. probably has

A

HSV-1

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20
Q

Genome for HSV-1

A

Enveloped double stranded DNA

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21
Q

Genome for Adenovirus

A

non-enveloped double stranded DNA

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22
Q

Single-stranded, non-enveloped DNA

A

parvovirus

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23
Q

Double-stranded, positive sense, non-envoloped RNA

A

rotavirus

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24
Q

Genome for Coxsackievirus

A
  • single stranded

- positive sense RNA virus

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25
Q

Difference between Coxsackie and HSV PE on child

A

HSV involves gums and hard palate not Hand-foot-mouth disease

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26
Q

Which drugs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase

A
  • Trimethoprim
  • Methotrexate
  • Pyrimethamine
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27
Q

What is Imipenem always given with and why

A

Cilastatin - inhibits renal dehydropeptidase I

- decrease inactivation of Imipenem

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28
Q

MOA of imipenem

A

binds penicillin binding proteins

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29
Q

MOA for metronidazole

A

binds to DNA within susceptible cells

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30
Q

MOA of sulfamethoxazole

A

competes with PABA in inhibit dihydropteroate syntheses

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31
Q

Fever, cough, rhinorrhea, and conjunctivitis followed by maculoopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads downwards? Tiny white/blue gray lesions on buccal mucosa

A

Measles

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32
Q

PE for Galactokinase deficiency

A
  • galactose in blood
  • galactose in urine
  • infantile cataracts
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33
Q

11 year old girl: blurry vision, bilateral lens opacities and reducing substances found in urine. What enzyme is deficient

A

Galactokinase

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34
Q

lactose is broken down into what

A
  • galactose

- glucose

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35
Q

What causes cataracts in galactokinase deficiency

A
  • galactitol
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36
Q

Aldolase B deficiency can’t metabolize what

A

fructose

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37
Q

Tay-Sachs disease is a deficiency of what

A

hexosaminidase A deficiency

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38
Q

Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in what disease

A

Niemann-Pick disease

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39
Q

2-year old boy has giardiasis which is treated. One week later gets frothy, loose, stools and abdominal bloating and cramping. What is the defective enzyme

A

Lactase

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40
Q

Acidosis stimulates what in the kidney

A

remal ammoniagensis

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41
Q

What is renal ammoniagenesis

A
  • renal tubular epithelial cells metabolize glutamine to glutamate generating
    1. ammonium that is excreted in urine
    2. Bicarbonate is absorbed into blood
42
Q

What does Alanine get converted to

A

pyruvate

43
Q

What does aspartate get converted to

A

oxaloacetate

44
Q

Role of Arginine

A

remove nitrogenous bases from blood

45
Q

Pernicious anemia impacts what part of the stomach

A

body of stomach rather than antrum

46
Q

What part of the stomach does H. pylori usually impact

A

gastric antrum

47
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is what? inheritance pattern

A
  • Deficiency of NADPH oxidase

X-linked

48
Q

Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test is obsolete

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

49
Q

Who produces Lecithinase

A

Clostridium perfingens

50
Q

Where does intussusception usually occur

A

ileocecal valve

51
Q

how does intussusception manifest

A
  • intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain
  • “current jelly” stool
  • sometimes palpable mass
52
Q

MOA for polyethylene glycol

A
  • provide osmotic load to draw water into the GI lumen
53
Q

How is Polyethylene glycol and lactase deficiency similar

A

both osmotic

54
Q

Anterior compartment of the leg contains what nerve

A

deep perennial (fibular) nerve

55
Q

What is located in the anterior compartment of the leg

A
  1. anterior tibial artery

2. deep perennial fiber

56
Q

lateral compartment of leg contains what nerve

A

superficial peroneal nerve

57
Q

the deep posterior compartment of the leg contains what nerve

A

tibial nerve

58
Q

Branching papillary structures with interspersed calcified bodies of thyroid

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

59
Q

Extensive stromal fibrosis that extends beyond the thyroid capsule in thyroid

A

Riedel thyroiditis

60
Q

Follicular hyperplasia with tall cells forming intrafollicular papillary projections in thyroid

A

Papillary thyroid

61
Q

Mixed cellular infiltration with occasional multinucleate giant cells in thyroid

A

Subacute ( de quervian, granulomatous) thyroditis

62
Q

Mononucelar parenchymal infiltration with well developed germinal centers

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

63
Q

Brain natriuretic peptide has what 2 roles

A
  1. diuretic natruretic

2. vasodilator effect

64
Q

What is Neprilysin

A

Metalloprotease that cleaves and inactivates endogenous peptides including natriuretic peptides

65
Q

28 year old women with eye irritation and double vision. Complains of weight loss, mood swings, and heart palpitation. High BP. Bilateral eye redness and severe proptosis. What does she have? txt?

A

Grave’s disease

- Glucocorticoids, antithyroid drugs do not have an impact of ophthalmopathy

66
Q

which group of women have a higher bone density and lower risk of fractures than other women

A

African American

67
Q

Flutamide MOA

A

competitive inhibitor of testosterone receptors

68
Q

What is flutamide used for? What is it combined with

A

Prostate carcinoma

- Lueprolide

69
Q

Inferior wall of left ventricle forms most of the interior surface of the heart and is supplied by who

A

Posterior descending artery

Right dominant: right coronary artery

70
Q

What does right dominant heart mean

A
  • Right coronary artery gives rise to posterior descending artery
71
Q

Specifically where is the trigeminal nerve located

A

middle cerebellar peduncle at lateral aspect of mid pons

72
Q

Function of Trigeminal nerve

A
  1. muscles of mastication
  2. Facial sensation
  3. Somatosensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue
73
Q

Location of facial nucleus

A

Dorsolateral aspect of caudal pons

- exits at ventrolateral pontomedullary junction

74
Q

Location of hypoglassal nuclea

A

medially on floor of 4th ventricle at level of medulla

75
Q

Location of exit of trochlear nucleus

A

caudal midbrain and nerve exists dorsal midbrain just below inferior colliculus

76
Q

What artery runs with the radial nerve

A

deep brachial artery

77
Q

What type of injury can hurt both the radial nerve and deep brachial artery

A

mid shaft of humerus

78
Q

Axillary nerve runs with what artery? type of injury

A

Posterior circumflex

- Surgical neck of humerus

79
Q

Fluphenazine is what type of drug

A

1st generation antipsychotic

80
Q

What are the high potency antipsychotics

A

Trifluoperazine
Fluphenazine
Haloperidol

81
Q

Side of effects of high potency antipyschotics

A

neurologic /extrapyramidal symptoms

82
Q

What are low potency Antipsychotics

A
  • Chlorpromazine

- Thioridzine

83
Q

Side effects of low dow antipsychotics

A
  • histaminergic
  • cholinergic
  • noradernergic

blockade

84
Q

What is the mitochondiral enzyme that activates capsizes and indirectly brings about cell death through intrinsic pathway apoptosis

A

cytochrome C

85
Q

What prevents cytochrome c release

A

bcl-2

86
Q

Who usually gets Hemosiderin accumulation

A
  • hemolytic anemia

- frequent blood transfusion

87
Q

Role of Succinate dehydrogenase

A

in electron transport chain that acts by oxidizing succinate into fumarate and reducing FAD to FADH2

88
Q

What does bcl-2 bind to and what are their roles

A
  • binds APAF-1

- normally binds cytochrome c and induces activation of capsize 9

89
Q

MOA for organophosphate toxicity

A

prevent ACh degradation within synaptic cleft

90
Q

MOA for Botulism

A

blocks presynaptic exocytosis of ACh vesicles

91
Q

How can Botulinum toxicity be prevented

A

it is heat labile, throughly heating food prior to consumption

92
Q

What organ is spared in polyarteritis Nodosa

A

lungs

93
Q

Most common disorder of porphyrin heme synthesis

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

94
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda is deficient in what enzyme

A
  • uroprophyrinogen decarboxylase
95
Q

Enyzme deficiencies in early steps of porphyrin synthesis causes what physical exam findings

A
  • neuropsychiatric without photosensitivity
96
Q

Late step enzyme deficiency leads to what physical exam

A

photosensitivity

97
Q

Role of bilirubin glucuronyl transferase

A
  • conjugation of bilirubin with glucuronide

- improves solubility for biliary excretion

98
Q

What cofactor is needed for ALA synthase

A

pyridoxal phosphate

vitamin B6

99
Q

PBG deaminase deficiency is seen in what problem

A

acute intermittent porphyria

100
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome

A

severe stenosis of proximal subclavian artery

- reversal blood flow from contralateral vertebral artery to ipsilateral vertebral artery

101
Q

Symptoms of subclavian steal syndrome

A
  • arm ischemia

- vertebrobasilar insufficiency ( dizziness, vertigo)

102
Q

equation for relative risk reduction

A

( absolute risk control - absolute risk treatment) /( absolute risk control)

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