Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Uworld > Test 93: Incorrect > Flashcards

Test 93: Incorrect Flashcards

1
Q

Where does HSV-2 located

A

Sacral dorsal root ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Locomotor ataxia refers to

A

tabes dorsalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is postherpetic neuralgia? what is it seen in

A
  • persistent pain after resolution of lesions

- Varicella zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name 3 things Sertoli cells secrete

A
  1. inhibin B
  2. androgen-binding protein
  3. MIF (Mullerian inhibitory factor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Damage to the infraorbital nerve causes what

A
  • paresthesia of upper cheek, upper lip, upper gingiva

- inferior rectus muscle becomes entrapped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Corneal reflex involves what nerves

A
  • cranial nerve V1 sensory

- VII motor nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

trauma to the superior orbital fissure can cause

A

impaired corneal reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Epithelium of ovary

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drug of choice for paroxysmal supra ventricular tachycardia

A

adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

half life of adenosine

A

less than 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

side effects for adenosine

A
  • chest burning

- flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Another name for cross-sectional study

A

prevalence study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An instruction to leave the bedroom if unable to fall asleep is an example of what therapy for insomnia

A

stimulus control therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOA of Niacin

A
  • decreases hepatic synthesis of triglycerides and VLDL

- reduces clearance of HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Side effects of Niacin

A
  • gout
  • flushing
  • hyperglycemia
  • hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does orotic acuduria present

A
  • failure to thrive
  • developmental delay
  • megaloblastic anemia refractory to folate and B12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pyridoxine is supplemented with what drug

A

Isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

S1 nerve root compression causes

A
  • pain/sensory loss down posterior thigh and calf to lateral aspect of foot
  • weakness on thigh extension, knee flexion, and foot plantar flexion
  • absent ankle jerk reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

L2 or L3 radiculopathy

A
  • paid down anterior thigh

- weakness of hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

L4 radiculopathy

A
  • pain/paresthesia down anterior thigh to medial lower leg and foot
  • no Knee reflex
  • weakness on knee extension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most important mediator of coronary vascular dilation in large and pre-arteriolar vessels

A

Nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How much does the nervous system impact the coronary blood flow

A

not much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

define splitting

A

seeing all good or all bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what disorder is splitting seen in

A

borderline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why does gout occur with increased frequency in pains with activating mutations involving phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase

A
  • increase production and degradation of purines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

First-line therapy of acute gout

A

NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

2nd line therapy for acute gout

A

Colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is phospholipid composition of the viral particle surface that is highly similar to that of the cell membrane

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A virus with a phospholipid-containing particle surface is a virus with what

A

enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Genrally, enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from where? exception

A
  • plasma membrane

- Herpesvirus: get from nuclear membrane

31
Q

what therapy during pregnancy reduces the risk of perinatal transmission of HIV and is recommended for all pregnant women with HIV

A

antiretroviral therapy (enzyme inhibitor drug)

32
Q

Oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia, and severe lymphopenia during the first year of life are consistent with what

A

mother to child vertical transmission of HIV -1

33
Q

What helps down-regulate gastric secretion after a meal the most

A

intestinal influences

34
Q

femoral nerve arises from what nerve roots

A

L2-L4

35
Q

Sensory for Iliohypogastric nerve

A
  • suprapubic and gluteal regions
36
Q

motor for iliohypogastric nerve

A

anterolateral abdominal wall muscles

37
Q

Wallerian degenertaion

A

axonal degeneration and breakdown of myelin sheath that occurs distal to a site of injury

38
Q

Why does axonal regeneration not occur in CNs

A
  • myelin debri
  • secretion of neuronal inhibitory factors
  • development of dense glial scarring
39
Q

How long can myelin debris hang out in the CNS

A

for years

40
Q

Where is tennis elbow

A

lateral epicondylitis

41
Q

tennis elbow is what muscle

A
  • extensor carpi radialis brevis
42
Q

job of extensor carpi radials braves

A

wrist extension

43
Q

Role of interposes muscles

A

adduction of fingers

44
Q

what virus am I? fever for 3-5 days followed by truncal rash

A

Herves 6

45
Q

What is wrong in leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A
  • defect in LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein

- impaired migration and chemotaxis

46
Q

Protective factors for epithelial ovarian cancer

A
  • oral contraceptives
  • multiparity, breastfeading
  • tubual ligation
47
Q

risk factors for epithelial ovarian cancer

A
  • infertility
  • BRACA1
  • postmenopausal age
48
Q

What is protein marker for epithelial ovarian cancer

A
  • CA125
49
Q

Muddy brown casts are pathognominic for what

A

acute tubular necrosis

50
Q

Tinnitus, vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss

A

Miner disease

51
Q

what is the pathogenesis of Meniere disease

A
  • increase volume and pressure of endolymph in the vestibular apparatus
52
Q

Difference between acoustic neuroma and Meniere disease

A

Meniere: episodic
Neuroma: constant

53
Q

MOA for aminoglycosides

A

interfering with 30 ribosomal subunit

54
Q

MOA for Quinolones

A

mutated DNA gyrase

55
Q

single sarcomere is defined as

A

distance between 2 Z lines

56
Q

I band, what does it touch

A

actin filaments

- Z lines

57
Q

A band, what line does it touch

A

think filaments

- M lines

58
Q

Fragile X syndrome occurs when

A

meiosis of oocytes

59
Q

what does the CGG tirnucleotide repeat cause for Fragile X

A
  • FMR1 hypermethylation
60
Q

Defect in DNA mismatch repair gene causes what syndrome

A

Lynch syndrome

61
Q

what is lynch syndrome

A
  • increase risk of hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
  • extraintestinal malignancies
62
Q

Commonly associated rugs with DRESS syndrome

A
  1. Anticonvulsants

2. allopurinol

63
Q

Lab studies for DRESS will show

A

eosiniophlia

64
Q

what are clinical manifestations for DESS

A
  • fever
  • generalized lymphadenopathy
  • facial edema
65
Q

Which polio virus drug produces a stronger mucosal secretory IgA immune response

A

live attenuated oral ( Sabin)

66
Q

Fetal growth, retardation, hypertonia ( clenched hands with overlapping fingers), rocker bottom feet, and cardiac/GI/renal effects

A

Edwards syndrome

trisomy 18

67
Q

what is 5p deletion

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

- weak or cat like cry

68
Q

pneumonic for acute pancreatitis

A 
I GET SMASHED
Idiopathic
Gallstones
Ethanool
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune 
Scorpion sting
Hypercalcemia
Hypertrigliceridemia 
ERCP
drugs
69
Q

Most acute pancreatitis is caused by

A

gallstones and alcohol

70
Q

Patients who have overdoes of beta blockers should be treated with

A

glucagon, saline and atropine

71
Q

how does glucagon work on heart cells

A
  • G protein
  • adenylate cyclase
  • increase cAMP
72
Q

Patient presents with low-grade fever, anorexia/nausea, dark-colored urine, and right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is highly suggestive of what

A

acute viral hepatitis

73
Q

what characterizes hepatocyte apoptosis

A
  • cellular shrinkage

- eosinophilia

74
Q

Beta blockers exacerbate what, and masks what

A
  • exacerbate hypoglycemia

- masks its adrenergic symptoms mediated by norepinephrine and epinephrine

Uworld (63 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions