Test 64: All Flashcards

1
Q

Normal A-a gradient for lung

A

5-15 mmHg

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2
Q

What is an important cause of hypoxemia with normal alveolar to arterial oxygen gradient

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

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3
Q

c-Jun is what type of protein

A

DNA-binding protein

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4
Q

Southwestern blotting is used to detect what

A

DNA-binding proteins

- transcription factors, nucleases, and histones

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5
Q

S-100 is a marker for what type of cell

A

neural crest derivation

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6
Q

Positive predictive equation

A

TP / (TP+FP)

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7
Q

What is MOA of Abacavir and Use

A
  • nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

- HIV/AIDS

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8
Q

Abacavir hypersensitivity reaction occurs with an associated with what

A

HLA-B*57:01 allele

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9
Q

Patient has microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia? treatment

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenia

- plasma exchange

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10
Q

What is wrong in thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

A

decrease ADAMTS13

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11
Q

patient has cyst on back of neck, lymphedema, diminished femoral pulses , what does she have

A

Turner syndrome

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12
Q

What is Turner syndrome

A

45X

- loss of paternal chromosome X

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13
Q

Rotator cuff muscles

A
  1. supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. teres minor
  4. subscapularis
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14
Q

MOA for supraspinatous

A
  • shoulder abduction
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15
Q

MOA for infraspinatus

A

external rotation

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16
Q

MAO for teres minor

A

adduction and external rotation

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17
Q

MOA subscapularis

A

adduction and internal rotation

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18
Q

3 things that stimulate gastric acid secretion in stomach

A
  1. histamine
  2. acetylcholine
  3. gastrin
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19
Q

What is systemic mastocytosis

A

clonal mast cell proliferation

- release histamine

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20
Q

Clinical features of histoplasmosis

A

oral ulcers
lymphadenopathy
hepatosplenomegaly

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21
Q

Patient with HIV, with seizures and mulitple ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect has what

A

cerebral toxoplasmosis

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22
Q

Treatment for Toxoplasma Gondii

A

Sulfadiazine and Pyrimethamine

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23
Q

What is the second most common cause of ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect in HIV

A

Primary central nervous system lymphoma

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24
Q

Primary central nervous system lymphoma is composed of what

A

B-lymphocytes

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25
Q

Location of cortisol receptor

A

corticosteroid-binding globulin

- intracellular receptor

26
Q

what is the main treatment for malaria

A
  • Chloroquine

- if resistant use Mefloquine

27
Q

Red blood cells filled with multiple, smaller rings suggest what

A

Plasmodium infection

28
Q

a drug that binds and activates the GABA-A receptor increases what ion channel? effect?

A

Chloride ion go into cell

- hyperpolarized ( more negative than resting potential)

29
Q

What happens at the post-synaptic muscle cell in myasthenia gravis

A

reduced motor end-plate potential

30
Q

treatment for myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine

31
Q

what can be used for over muscarinic stimulation in myasthenia graves

A

scopolamine

32
Q

What is cross-sectional study

A

“snapshot study”

- Disease prevalence

33
Q

Nephrotic syndrome causes what type of coagulable state

A

hypercoagulable state

34
Q

What are the most common atherosclerotic large vessels in order of most common

A
  1. abdominal
  2. Coronary arteries
  3. popliteal
  4. internal carotid arteries
35
Q

What defines Delusional disorder

A

1 or more delusions for 1 or more month

36
Q

The spleen come from where and artery supply

A

Mesentery of stomach ( not foregut)

- splenic artery ( foregut derivative)

37
Q

Siatic nerve branches

A
  1. common peroneal

2. tibial nerve

38
Q

Division of common peroneal nerve

A
  1. Superficial = foot eversion

2. deep: dorsi flexor of foot/toes

39
Q

Fracture of common perennial nerve causes what

A
  • loss of dorsal foot sensation and foot drop ( loss of eversion)
40
Q

Injury to tibial nerve would cause

A
  • weakened plantar flexion and inversion of foot

- decreased sensation at sole of foot

41
Q

Reassortment

A

viruses with segmented genomes exchange genetic materal

42
Q

Recombination

A

gene exchange that occurs through the crossing over of 2 double-stranded DNA molecules

43
Q

Transformation

A

uptake of naked DNA by prokaryotic or eukaryotic cell

44
Q

Phenotypic mixing

A

host cell is connected with 2 viral strains and progeny visions that contain unchanged parental genome from one structure and nucleocapsid ( or envelope) proteins from the other strain

45
Q

Neural structure most likely affect in patients with Wernicke encephalopathy is

A

mammillary body

46
Q

how are Wernicke Encephalopathy treated

A

give Thiamine before Dextrose

47
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve innervates

A
  • major forearm flexors and coracobrachialis

- sensory to lateral forearm

48
Q

Adverse effects of Ganciclovir

A

Bone marrow suppression ( leukopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia)

49
Q

Adverse effect of TMP-SMX

A

bone marrow suppression

50
Q

Where is GTP synthesized in Kreb cycle

A

conversion of Succinyl-CoA to succinate

- synthesized by succinyl-Co synthetase

51
Q

Where in Biochemistry land can GTP be used

A
  • ADP to ATP

- phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase ( converts oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate during gluconeogensis)

52
Q

Cardiovascular dysphagia can result from external compression of the esophagus by dilated and posteriorly displaced left atrium in patients with

A
  1. rheumatic heart disease or

2. mitral stenosis/regurgitation

53
Q

What is the most anterior part of the heart

A

left atrium

54
Q

how do you diagnose enterobius vermicularis

A

scotch tape test

55
Q

first line treatment for enterobius vermicularis

A

albendazole

- pyrantel pamoate in pregnant patients

56
Q

Name thionamide drugs

A

Methimazole and propylthiouracil

57
Q

MOA of methimazole and propylthiouracil

A
  • decrease formation of thyroid hormone via thyroid periods
58
Q

role of thyroid peroxidase

A
  • iodine oragnification and coupling of iodotyrosines
59
Q

equation for volume of distribution

A

amount of drug given mg/ plasma drug concentration

60
Q

how does charge change volume of distrubution

A

high charge, low Vd