SI Test 8 Flashcards
Which of the following choices regarding the Electronic BF-4 is INCORRECT?
A: Once all the members for the tour have reported for duty and are assigned riding positions, a final EBF-4 shall be submitted. This Final EBF-4 cannot be changed.
B: Only members actually riding the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for the tour.
C: In the event a probationary firefighter is not identified by an PR notation, only the company commander can add the designation following the instructions provided.
D: The officer shall ensure that each member has the correct radio and the spare radio designation on the EBF-4 is accurate.
A AUC 346 – ELECTRONIC RIDING LIST (EBF-4) A IS INCORRECT – Final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g. ML, early relief, staff change, reduced staffing) 2.3 B – 2.4 C – 2.7 Note D – 2.6 Note
Company officers have many responsibilities. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding these responsibilities?
A: When two or more lieutenants are on duty in quarters housing more than one unit, they shall share responsibility for the discipline of all members while in quarters. The officer senior in rank shall be primarily responsible.
B: The senior lieutenant in rank, detailed or assigned to a unit, shall assume the duties and responsibilities of the company commander during an extended leave of absence of the assigned company commander if no other captain is detailed to the unit.
C: Company officers on duty shall immediately notify Battalion Chiefs of all injuries occurring in quarters.
D: Fire officers (line) shall report for duty 15 minutes prior to the start of their tour in order to exchange information between the on-duty officer and the relieving officer.
B
The senior lieutenant in rank, ASSIGNED TO A UNIT, shall assume the duties and responsibilities of the company commander during an extended leave of absence of the assigned company commander if no other captain is detailed to the unit.
B Note: This also applies if no provision is made for the assignment of a company commander to the unit.
D Note: Should an alarm occur during that 15 minute period, the relieving officer shall respond to that alarm. There are some instances where the on-duty officer may respond to an alarm during this 15 minute period, e.g., awaiting relief from an officer on overtime or response to an alarm by radio while returning to quarters. On-duty officers who respond to such alarms as indicated above shall record the reason for such response in the Company Journal.
Regs 10.2.2, 10.2.5, 10.3.3, 10.3.4
The FAST officer is the most influential member of the FAST unit. Which procedure described below for the FAST officer is incorrect?
A: The officer of the FAST unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP, unless otherwise directed by the IC.
B: If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall remind the IC of their FAST designation.
C: When communicating to other units, the FAST officer shall utilize the word FAST in lieu of their unit designation. Ex: “FAST to Command”
D: The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include any CIDS information that is available.
C
When communicating to other units, the FAST officer shall utilize the word FAST AFTER THE UNIT DESIGNATION. Ex: “L-157-FAST to Command”
Managing Members in Distress Ch 2: 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.5
You are returning to quarters after extinguishing 2 floors of fire when a person approaches you and complains that their smoke detector is not working. Your next course of action can be found in which choice?
A: Advise the person to call 311
B: Advise the person to call 911
C: Take the necessary information and forward a referral to the Fire Prevention Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU)
D: You and members take apparatus to address and conduct an inspection
A
Verbal Complaint: Refer complainant to Department of Housing Preservation and Development by dialing 311
BISP ch 5 reference 3.1 sec 8
E165 and L85 respond to a CO alarm in a private dwelling. The CO levels are slightly fluctuating and the members’ actions were correct in all cases except ________.
A: 9 PPM- Inform occupant that our meter has not detected an elevated CO level and the members SCBA shall be worn.
B: 10 PPM- Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO and the members SCBA shall be used.
C: 10 PPM drops to 9 PPM so the officers let the premises be reoccupied, because the appliance causing the CO was shut down.
D: 10 PPM- Begin evacuation of all persons in the affected, ventilation, and the members SCBA shall be used.
D
RECOMMEND that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation. You BEGIN evacuation when levels hit 100PPM. HazMat Ch 4 sec 4.4.3 and 4.5.2
SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations and used at all CO Emergencies. sec 4.2.5
CO Incidents: Meter readings of 9 PPM or less
CO Emergency: Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM
Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM:
Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO.
Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.
If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it should be shut down.
Once the faulty appliance is shut down and ventilation has reduced the CO level to 9 PPM or less the premises may be reoccupied.
Meter Readings of 100 PPM and Greater:
Inform occupants that we have detected a potentially lethal level of CO.
Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate. Sec 4.5
Engine 85 is just going online as the latest addition to the department’s Fire Ice response matrix and the members are discussing operations. The following statements suggest that they have a lot of learning to do before their first operation. Which is the only CORRECT statement made by the members?
A: When assigned on the initial alarm for a manhole fire, FireIce units will be designated by the prefix letter I.
B: FireIce is effective on Class A, B, & C fires, however, it should not be used on any type of transformer fire.
C: FireIce shall only be applied by trained units and only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce
D: Unless assigned as a FireIce unit, engine companies are not required to transport their associated apparatus while responding on an initial alarm for a manhole fire.
C
AUC 180 – ADDENDUM 2 – FIREICE DRY CHEM
C IS CORRECT – 7.2
A - FireIce units will be designated by the letter SUFFIX “I” on the response ticket when assigned to respond as a FireIce unit (e.g., E228I). 4.1
B – FireIce is not effective on Class B fires. 7.3
D - When assigned on the initial alarm for manhole fires, FireIce units shall respond with their associated apparatus which carries the product and associated equipment. 4.1
Large capacity ammonia refrigeration systems have an emergency ammonia mixer for the purpose of mixing ammonia with water and discharging it into the sewer lines when there is a danger of excessive pressure developing due to the proximity of the fire. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A: Hose lines shall be connected to the siamese connection or inlet provided for water supply to the mixer. The volume of water to be supplied depends upon the capacity of the system and is indicated by the size of the pipe from the siamese or inlet to the mixer.
B:✔The ECC of the unit supplying the water shall determine the necessary pressure to provide the required volume of water. Control valve boxes shall be opened by a Fire Department alarm box key.
C: After water is started, the ammonia valve shall be opened fully and water shall be supplied to the mixer while danger of excessive pressure exists. Water supply shall not be shut down until the ammonia valve is closed.
D: During use of the mixer, precautions shall be taken to prevent and overcome the danger of free ammonia fumes accumulating in the main and connecting sewer lines.
B
The OFFICER ON DUTY with the unit supplying the water shall determine the necessary pressure to provide the required volume of water. Control valve boxes shall be opened by a Fire Department alarm box key.
A Note: Pipe 1 1/4 inch to 2 1/2 inch requires a volume of 100 to 700 gallons of water per minute.
Regs 11.5.17
When performing rapid evacuation at a major gas emergency, which one tactic mentioned is incorrect?
A: This is similar to primary searches conducted at fires and is accomplished with as few members in the potential blast zone as possible.
B: Rapid evacuation is conducted by knocking on doors and moving from door to door to alert occupants.
C: Forcible entry should only be accomplished for a known life hazard and should not be attempted to access areas that show no signs of being occupied.
D: Conventional forcible entry involving the use of an axe to strike the halligan is not permitted.
A
This is SIGNIFICANTLY DIFFERENT FROM primary searches conducted at fires and is accomplished with as few members in the potential blast zone as possible.
Natural Gas 9.1.3
he HT is equipped with a “time-out-timer” which cuts off the transmitter after how many seconds?
A: 15 seconds
B: 20 seconds
C: 25 seconds
D: 30 seconds
D
Communications ch 9 sec 9.5.10.Note
Lt Welch is drilling the members of a slashing Staten Island firehouse about the danger of vacant structures. He makes 4 statements and is correct in all except?
A: Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the area directly over the front entrance. Markings should be high enough to ensure visibility. To achieve this height, a ladder may be required.
B: The letters “FO” (floor openings) shall be made directly underneath vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members.
C: Any company may place vacant building markings using the prescribed format. As soon as possible thereafter, the supervising officer must notify the administrative company that the building has been marked and an eCIDS card was entered.
D: The letters “RO” (roof open) shall be made directly over the vacant building markings in cases when a roof is opened to the degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation
C
Vacants Sec 3.1
Company officers from the administrative unit shall ensure that all vacant buildings in their administrative districts are entered into the eCIDS program.
