Bx Test 24 Flashcards

1
Q

The intent of the “Abandoned Infant Protection Act” is to provide a parent who has no other alternative with a safe place to abandon his/her infant. The fire unit must make a journal entry and forward a letterhead report, with endorsements, to the Chief of Fire Operations. These reports shall indicate all the following information except:
A: Date and time custody of the infant was assumed.

B: Precinct and shield numbers of the PD members assuming custody

C: How notified

D: Race and sex of infant.

A

B
Explanation:
AUC 7 sec 2.6.2
Unit designation and shield numbers of ambulance unit members assuming custody
The report also contains… Time custody of the infant was assumed by the ambulance crew.

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2
Q

Proper line placement at rowframes is critical to preventing the rapid extension of fire to exposures. When operating at a fire in a vacant building in a row of occupied rowframes which line placement below is correct?
A: The first hoseline must be stretched to the most severe exposure.

B: If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second hoseline must be stretched to the opposite exposure.

C: The third hoseline must be stretched to the fire building.

D: The fourth hoseline must be stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.

A

A
Explanation:
B. If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second line shall be stretched TO THE FIRE BUILDING OR THE OPPOSITE EXPOSURE.

C. The third hoseline is stretched TO THE FIRE BUILDING OR THE OPPOSITE EXPOSURE, DEPENDING ON WHERE THE SECOND HOSELINE WAS STRETCHED.

D. The fourth hoseline is stretched AS ORDERED BY THE IC.

Rowframes 6.7 A

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3
Q

An explosion causes the collapse of a 4 story Brownstone building. Units arrive to find debris in the street, no visible fire and obvious damage to exposure buildings on both sides. Which Engine company operated CORRECTLY following the transmission of the 1060?
A: The first arriving engine company took the first open hydrant across the street from the collapsed building outside of the collapse zone.

B: The second engine arrived and assisted the first stretching a 1¾” line to the front of the collapsed building.

C: The third engine arrived and stretched a 3½” line into the tower ladder positioned in front of the collapse building.

D: The 4th arriving engine assisted in the removal of a lightly buried victim and performed CFR.

A

D
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
D IS CORRECT – 7.4
A – If possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream. 5.3 – Note: At times it may be necessary for the first arriving Engine to take a position within the block for use of the apparatus master stream for fire control or exposure protection. The Officer must ensure a continuous source of water supply for such purposes. 7.2
B – First line stretched should be 2½ - 7.1
C – 2nd Engine should ensure 3½ supply line is stretched to the first tower ladder. 7.3

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4
Q

At collapse operations it is critical for first responding units to address street management and fire control. Apparatus shall be parked in such a manner that special equipment, ambulances, etc., can make their way to and from the scene when ordered by the IC. Which apparatus positioning below is incorrect for collapse operations?
A: If possible, both the first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream.

B: Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street.

C: Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapsed building, unless there is specific need for additional units.

D: Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure.

A

B
Explanation:
B. Two of the second alarm ENGINE COMPANIES should be used to seal off the ends of the street.

Collapse 5.3, 5.4

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5
Q

As the first arriving Engine on scene at an IED incident, post-detonation, you would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A: If first unit on scene, confirm the location of the POI using plain language on the department radio. Notify the dispatcher and advise incoming units that an explosion has occurred, so that all incoming units may alter response routes when necessary.

B: Consider staging in a protected area, being mindful of distance and/or shielding. Consider transmitting a 10-60 with the appropriate code.

C: If there is no threat of fire, use skeds to remove critical victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point. If there are no EMS units at the Triage Transfer Point, then proceed with triage of critical victims.

D: Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims. If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.

A

D
Explanation:
Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 2½” hoseline…..
ERP Add 3 5.3.1

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6
Q

The terminology associated with Class 2 buildings can have a great impact on fire operations. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding an Open Fire Stair?
A: If the doors in the stairs lead to apartments in different wings, then it is an Open Fire Stair.

B: If the doors in the stairs lead to apartments in the same wing, then it is an Open Fire Stair.

C: If the doors in the stairs open into a vestibule or hallway which leads to apartment doors, then it is an Open Fire Stair.

D: If the stairs typically contain a standpipe riser, then it is an Open Stair.

A

B
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 BUILDINGS
B IS CORRECT – PHOTO 7A PG 112
A – Shared Fire Stairs – 8.5.3C4
C – Enclosed Fire Stairs – Photo 7A pg 112
D – Open Stairs do not typically contain a standpipe PG95 8.5.3C3

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7
Q

The incorrect procedure, when a member is transporting his/her Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), can be found in which choice?
A: The FDNY strictly prohibits members from transporting firefighter PPE without the use of provided gear bags

B: When transporting firefighting PPE in a private vehicle, such items shall be placed in the gear bag prior to being placed in the passenger compartment or the trunk of the vehicle. Prior to placement into the gear bag, the firefighting protective ensemble shall be placed into a plastic bag supplied by the Department

C: Members are responsible to use the gear bag with a plastic liner anytime they transport firefighting equipment

D: Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen shall be decon in quarters by members following the guidelines outlined in the CFR-D manual

A

D
Explanation:
AUC 310 add 4
A- sec 1.3
B- sec 1.4
C- sec 3.1
D- Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen exposure shall not be cleaned by members. The gear bag should be placed in double (two) clear bags, tied or taped closed. An EDR-1 shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for ID purposes. Bagged items shall be left, if possible, in a light traffic area adjacent to HW for pickup by the DSU……sec 2

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8
Q

The Transit Authority refers to its 14 sets of under river crossings as tunnels. Most under river tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes. Which description of these tubes below is correct?
A: Tube walls are between 2 and 2 ½ feet thick; the tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide.

B: Most tubes have access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas.

C: Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels, usually large enough for only 2 tracks.

D: The tunnel-to-tube transition are is where the round underground tunnel sections connects to the square under river tube.

A

A
Explanation:
B. Most tubes HAVE NO ACCESS to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas.

EXCEPTIONS: 63RD STREET TUNNEL, 161ST STREET TUNNEL, LEXINGTON AVE TUNNEL (ALL OF WHICH HAVE OPENING THROUGHOUT THE UNDER-RIVER AREA)

C. Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels, usually large enough FOR ONLY 1 TRACK.

D. The tunnel-to-tube transition are is where the SQUARE underground tunnel sections connects to the ROUND under river tube.

Under River Rail 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 2.3, Figure 3A &3B

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9
Q

Prefixes of units on a response ticket help to identify what resources are responding to a particular incident. Which prefix is correct?
A: HR - High Rise Unit

B: RC - Recuperation and Care Unit

C: F - Foam Tender

D: RV - Rapid Response

A

A
Explanation:
Comm 2 p36
RA - Recuperation and Care Unit
FT - Foam Tender
RR - Rapid Response
***AUC 159 add 8 sec 3.2.1 states…These units will be identified in the CADS system as follows: R and ladder company number associated with the S.S.L. (R025 is Ladder 25 second piece)

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10
Q

The members of Battalion 99 are operating at an incident in the Subway and the repeater channel needs to be activated. Which choice is CORRECT regarding use of the Repeater?
A: The NYC Transit duplex repeater system is always on.

B: Once activated, all members operating are to switch to and communicate on the repeater channel.

C: Experience has shown that the post radio is proven to be reliable means of communicating to below grade locations.

D: A Handie Talkie relay is not needed in stations with repeater communications.

A

A
Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 16 – REPEATER SYSTEM
A IS CORRECT 4.3
B – All FD members other than those designated to switch to the repeater channel will remain on HT Channel 1. 4.3
C – Experience has proven that the post radio may prove unreliable when communicating below grade. 4.3
D – An effective HT relay must be established whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not. 4.3

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11
Q

The only correct procedure you followed when operating at a suspected crime scene can be found in which choice?
A: Covered a corpse in all situations

B: You gave a brief statement to the press involving the incident

C: Notified NYPD since one of your members found a large amounts of currency

D: Did not let members wash hands in sink or use toilet facilities. Did not adjust radio or television, or use telephone in crime scene area

A

D
Explanation:
AUC 317
A- Refrain from covering any corpse except in public view….5.12
B- Restrict comments or opinions to authorized persons. No statements should be given to the press, civilians, or other agencies….5.13
C- Notified Fire Marshal to respond to voucher currency at any operation where large amounts of currency are discovered….sec 5.14
D- 5.9 and 5.10

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12
Q

One of the duties of an engine company officer is to ensure the required number of CFR trained members are working on any given tour. Which guideline stated below is correct?
A: Companies officers must ensure 2 CFR members (firefighters or company officer) are working each tour.

B: In order to be in service as a CFR-D unit, there shall be a minimum of two trained members (firefighters only) with current CFR-D certification.

C: During the tour if staffing is reduced to only 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company shall be unavailable for CFR-D responses.

D: Without two CFR-D certified members, the company may still be dispatched to calls received directly from the public to assist civilians.

A

D
Explanation:
A. Companies officers must ensure 2 CFR FIREFIGHTERS are working each tour.

B. In order to be in service as a CFR-D unit, there shall be a minimum of two trained members (FIREFIGHTERS OR COMPANY OFFICER) with current CFR-D certification.

C. During the tour if staffing is reduced to only 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company SHALL REMAIN AVAILABLE for CFR-D responses.

NOTE D: WITHOUT TWO CFR-D CERTIFIED MEMBERS, THE COMPANY SHALL NOT RESPOND TO ANY CFR CALLS. THE COMPANY MAY STILL BE DISPATCHED TO CALLS RECEIVED DIRECTLY FROM THE PUBLIC TO ASSIST CIVILIANS.

BE CAREFUL WITH THE WORDING IN THIS SECTION

CFR Ch 2 1.7, 1.8, 1.8.1

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13
Q

In which type of high rise office building are exterior windows usually not openable?
A: All High-Rise Class “E” office buildings.

B: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built before 1945.

C: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built between 1945 and 1968.

D: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built after 1968.

A

D
Explanation:
HROB 2.4.9

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14
Q

Roof access for fires in Class 2 buildings with open stairs is a constant consideration especially during fires on lower floors. Which of the following is NOT listed as a consideration in determining whether roof access for ventilation will be attempted?
A: Number of floors between the fire floor and the roof

B: Knowledge of occupants in halls and stairs above the fire.

C: Reports of occupants trapped in the fire apartment necessitating immediate entry for search.

D: Weather conditions indicating increased stack effect.

A

D
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 MD’S
D IS NOT CORRECT – Weather conditions not listed.
A,B,C, 8.8.2

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15
Q

Choose the incorrect action taken when operating at an accident on a highway.
A: Apparatus should be placed at an angle to the incident when feasible to maximize safety (between the fire or emergency and the oncoming traffic)

B: When placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, pumper may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces

C: Where the fire or emergency occurs near a curve, or beyond a hill, the second apparatus shall be located where it will be visible to oncoming traffic and furnish a warning to such traffic in sufficient time to avoid a secondary collision

D: Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 25 feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area

A

D
Explanation:
At least 50 feet
Training Bulletins Fires 8 sec 6

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16
Q

Portable ladders may be used for venting with a member on the ladder or without a member on the ladder. Which venting procedure described below is incorrect?
A: When the member is positioned on the ladder and prepares to use a tool to ventilate the window (a halligan is preferable), he/she should extend their arms upward and slant the tool downward to strike the glass.

B: When venting from a ladder, the member should place the tip of the ladder, if possible, level with or higher than the top of the window.

C: When using a portable ladder to vent without a member on the ladder when the ladder strikes the glass there should be no contact between the member and the ladder.

D: The member using a portable ladder to ventilate a window must have his/her eye shields in the down position.

A

A
Explanation:
A. When the member is positioned on the ladder and prepares to use a tool ventilate the window (A 6 FOOT HOOK IS PREFERABLE), he/she should extend their arms upward and slant the tool downward to strike the glass.

Portable Ladders 10.3.2

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17
Q

Which feature of the newly issued Motorola APX8000XE radios is incorrect?
A: Pressing and holding the “Home” button for 1 second returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT channel 1.

B: A short (momentary) press of the side button with one square Illuminates both the main and top displays for 20 seconds.

C: A long press (2 seconds) of the side button with one square reverses the orientation of the top display.

D: A feature cuts off the transmitter after 30 seconds of continuous transmission and is especially useful to correct the “stuck-button” problem. At the remote speaker mic, the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds.

A

A
Explanation:
Pressing and holding the “Home” button for a LONG PRESS (2 SECONDS) returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT channel 1.
D Note: The continuous tone indicates that the transmitter has been shut off. The operator can re-key the PTT again if a longer transmission is required. This resets the Time-Out-Timer.
Comm 11 2.2.3 D, 2.3 C, 3.3

18
Q

You are the officer on duty in Ladder 199 when a firefighter calls and advises you that he lost his ID while at a club the night before. Which choice below contains INCORRECT information regarding the loss of a badge or ID?
A: The officer receiving notification must record relevant facts in the office record journal.

B: The member must report the loss to the police department, Transit Authority etc. make a diligent search and immediately advise of its recovery or, after seven days, the failure of a search to produce the item.

C: The officer shall forward a report forthwith to Personnel containing the member’s information, date & time of loss, date & time reported, to whom reported, and circumstances relating to the loss.

D: If the badge or ID is not recovered in seven days, an additional report shall be forwarded with recommendations, if any, for disciplinary action as per PA/ID 3/75 (Command Discipline).

A

A
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 16 – UNIT PERSONNEL PROCEDURE
A IS INCORRECT – Relevant facts are recorded in the company journal. 16.2.6A
B – 16.2.6B
C – 16.2.6C
D – 16.2.6

19
Q

Currently, there are three types of Anti-Chaffing devices that may be encountered in the field. All devices serve the same function and will afford protection when used with the LSR. The description of the Anti-Chaffing device is incorrectly stated in which choice?
A: After the LSR has been packed in the carrying case, remove 3 feet of rope and pass the rope through the canvas sleeve from either end of the device

B: After the rope has been passed through the canvas sleeve, grasp the hook of the LSR and pull 1 1/2 arms length of rope through the anti-chafing device. Tie a bowline on a bight on this section of the rope, and place the rope and anti-chafing device in the carrying case

C: When used in a lowering or single slide operation, the anti-chafing device is placed so that the flexible end overlaps the roof or the parapet wall toward the street

D: Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify Tech Services by telephone and have it immediately replaced

A

D
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data sheet 2
A- 2.1
B- 2.2
C- 3.1
D- Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify the administrative division by telephone and fax. Have it immediately replaced 4.4

20
Q

When operating at private dwellings constructed of lightweight materials the age of the building as well as any signs of recent renovations should be included as part of the initial size-up. Which additional statement below regarding operations at these buildings is incorrect?
A: Once lightweight construction is discovered at an operation, this information shall be transmitted by the IC to the dispatcher so it can be relayed to responding units via the dispatcher.

B: The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of the building may be an indication of fire in a trussloft.

C: The primary emphasis for any fire, even a minor fire, in a lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack.

D: Any floor or roof support system that has been heavily damaged due to fire should be hydraulically overhauled from a safe area using the reach of the hose stream.

A

C
Explanation:
C. UNLESS THE FIRE IS MINOR OR CONFINED TO A SMALL AREA, the primary emphasis for A fire in a lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack.

Private Dwellings Ch 6 4.1.3, 4.1.7, 4.1.12, 4.1.13

21
Q

Company officers should be aware that, at the scene of a detonated IED?
A: Only deceased victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag).

B: Only critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Red-tag).

C: Both deceased and critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag and Red-tag).

D: No victims should be tagged in the POI.

A

A
Explanation:
ERP Add 3 5.3.1

22
Q

In preparation for Brush Fire Season, Battalion 99 met with the company officers in the battalion to discuss unit operations at a fire on hillside. Which action taken during the operation was the only one that was CORRECT?
A: Engine 1 was positioned at the top of the hill to cut off rapid fire extension and provide an attack on the fire.

B: Engine 4 used a Large caliber stream to break up heat waves and provide a water curtain to protect exposures.

C: Engines 2 & 3 were positioned to attack the fire from the left and right flanks and then moved into the interior burning areas.

D: Engine 5 & 6’s handlines were directed at the flames above the brush to provide penetration and cover a greater area.

A

C
Explanation:
AUC 151 – BRUSH FIRE OPERATIONS
C IS CORRECT - 5.4.10
A – Position units on top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire from the bottom and work up. 5.4.16.
B – Attempting to break up heat waves by using a water curtain is generally ineffective. Instead, utilize streams to apply water directly to exposures. 5.4.17.
D – Streams should be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush. 5.4.13.

23
Q

The acronym LCES is often used at Collapse Operations. It describes additional safety procedures required at collapse incidents. LCES stands for?
A: Lookouts, Communications, Escape Routes, Safe Havens

B: Logistics, Communications, Exposures, Safe Havens

C: Lookouts, Communications, Exposures, Safe Havens

D: Logistics, Conditions, Escape Routes, Safe Havens

A

A
Explanation:
Collapse Operations sec 9.2

24
Q

At a confined space operation, the Tower Ladder as a high point anchor is preferred due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least ___ lbs.
A: 250

B: 750

C: 800

D: 1000

A

D
Explanation:
THIS NUMBER WAS UPDATED IN THE NEW CONFINED SPACE DOCUMENT RELEASED 12/2019

Confined Space 4.3

25
Q

Propane fueled vehicles present many challenges to Fire Department members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature above its boiling point and remains under pressure and in liquid form only so long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere.

B: Heat applied to the cylinder will cause excessive pressure to build up in the cylinder, opening the relief valve. One cubic foot of liquid will expand 270 times as a gas.

C: There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE” (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion). A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve, however, will prevent a BLEVE.

D: When a BLEVE occurs in a propane cylinder, it will usually result in an explosion and fire ball, with the cylinder becoming a flying missile.

A

C
Explanation:
There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE” (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion). A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve CAN NOT prevent a BLEVE.
HM 1 2.4.1-2.4.3

26
Q

All facepieces are equipped with voicemitters. The proper procedure for use of the HT with the voicemitter is to:
A: Always keep the microphone on the harness clip.

B: After completing transmission, the microphone has a 2-second delay.

C: Place the microphone directly on the voicemitter when transmitting.

D: Place the microphone 1-2 inches from the voicemitter when transmitting.

A

C
Explanation:
Comm ch 9 sec 9.8.1

27
Q

You are first to arrive to a building collapse at a construction site. Who should you seek out for information?
A: Concrete Foreman

B: Fire Safety Director

C: Site Safety Manager

D: Security Guard

A

C
Explanation:
At construction or demolition sites, seek out the Site Safety Manager or Construction Manager for information about previous conditions
Collapse Operations sec 9.1

28
Q

At natural gas emergencies, units may be directed to work with utility company personnel in pulling manhole covers to create paths for natural gas to vent to open air. In this case members should abide by the following provisions. Which one is incorrect?
A: Sewer manhole covers may be removed by FDNY personnel with the approval of their company officer.

B: Round, electric manhole covers can be removed by FDNY personnel when requested by an on-scene utility worker and approved by an on-scene chief officer. Additionally, the cover must be determined to be free of stray voltage by the on-scene utility company.

C: Round manhole covers can be removed by two firefighters utilizing manhole hooks.

D: Rectangular or square electric manhole covers shall not be pulled by FDNY personnel.

A

A
Explanation:
A. Sewer manhole covers may be removed by FDNY personnel with the approval AN ON-SCENE CHIEF OFFICER.

Natural Gas 9.2.4 #3

29
Q

When there is a fire on the first floor of a two-story taxpayer, operations will be similar to those for one-story taxpayers, with added emphasis on certain tactics. Which tactic below would be considered incorrect for this fire scenario?
A: Life hazard may be great on the second floor with possible panic conditions. Completely ladder the second floor; utilize portable ladders.

B: Preventing the spread of fire to the upper floor and cockloft will require the proper placement of many hoselines.

C: A large hall on the second floor may mean roof girders and a deep cockloft.

D: If the fire originated in the cellar, it may require first flooding the first floor before attempting to stretch hose lines for an initial attack.

A

D
Explanation:
If the fire originated in the cellar it may require flooding of the first floor as a LAST RESORT. Other tactics include:
Life hazard on the second floor may require extensive search procedures.
Use hose streams to protect occupants where necessary.
Retain command of the first floor to save the second floor.
Vigorous action is required to prevent fire from extending to the second floor and the cockloft.
Ventilation holes cut on upper floors can provide venting for areas below and facilitate other operations.
Fire extension in ducts and shafts may present serious problems.
Examine for fire extension in walls, shafts, ducts, etc. The possibility of a large open stairway must not be overlooked if the occupancy on the second floor is a dance hall, meeting hall, etc.
Txpyr 9.1

30
Q

In which flagging column company journal entry do company officers have the widest latitude in its use?
A: EE

B: SP

C: EI

D: OM

A

B
Explanation:
SP - Special Entries
CJ p 8 Note

31
Q

A hoseline may be charged outside the building and operated into the fire area from the exterior. Which is an incorrect action when performing this?
A: For optimal fire extinguishment, the stream should be operated at a steep angle by placing members as close to the structure as possible.

B: The stream should aim the water towards the ceiling.

C: Exterior handlines should only be used as long as necessary to visually see improvement in the fire conditions. Normally, this is approximately 1 minute

D: The nozzle should be fully opened as a fully opened and not moved in a circular or whipping motion.

A

C
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 7.8
C. 10 seconds
D. When a hose line is moved in a circular or whipping motion, air is introduced and can have negative consequences. 

After applying water as described above, the stream should be moved upward towards the top of the window opening (the lintel) and operated for a few seconds off of the lintel. This will provide the most effective water application as it ensures greater coverage of water into the room, especially if the ceiling has failed.

32
Q

Exterior walls can be breached with a maul and/or power tools. Breaching may be necessary to gain access for life saving or stream penetration. This is an arduous operation requiring frequent relief. Which procedure below is correct when using the saw to breach a wall?
A: The carbide tip blade shall be used to cut through brick and concrete.

B: Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle downward to prevent further collapse.

C: The first and second cuts should be at the brickwork.

D: The mortar joint must always be cut to remove the bricks.

A

C
Explanation:
A. The DIAMOND BLADE shall be used to cut through brick and concrete.

B. Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle UPWARD to prevent further collapse.

D. THE CUT AT THE MOTAR JOINT MAY NOT BE NECESSARY SINCE BRICKS ALONG THIS PLANE MAY BE LOOSENED AND REMOVED EASILY WITH HAND TOOLS.

Tower Ladder Ch 5 5.2

33
Q

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the Department’s use of the TAC “U” channel?
A: All Fire Department handie-talkies have been programmed with the TAC “U” channel, which allows members to communicate directly with police on the scene at joint operations and permits better communications and control during multi-agency operations.

B: Users of TAC “U” are reminded to use plain language and refrain from using 10 codes or FD terminology while communicating.

C: Zone “B” channel 13 is designated as the TAC “U” Channel. This channel transmits at 2 watts.

D: The emergency alert tone, when activated on the TAC “U” channel, is audible only on Fire Department handie-talkies and only on the channel in which the emergency alert has been activated.

A

C
Explanation:
Zone “A” channel 13 is designated as the TAC “U” Channel. This channel transmits at 5 watts.
Comm 14 Add 2 1-2.2

34
Q

Units are operating at a cellar fire in a private dwelling. The Incident Commander has decided to reposition the first hoseline from the first floor to the cellar. Which guideline below is stated incorrectly when implementing this tactic?
A: This decision can only be made by an Acting Chief Officer or Chief Officer serving as the IC.

B: Ladder company members operating on the first floor must either secure a safe area of refuge or be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned.

C: Members operating on the floor above may need to be withdrawn to a safe area if no portable ladders are positioned and readily available.

D: The IC shall transmit an “urgent” message to broadcast this tactic to all member and ensure and acknowledgment is received from all units/members operating in the interior.

A

B
Explanation:
B. Ladder company members operating on the first floor MUST BE WITHDRAWN before the first hoseline is repositioned.

Private Dwellings Ch 3 2.7.4

35
Q

The term Collyer’s Mansion is no longer used and has been replaced with clutter. Which of the statements below CORRECTLY describes operations in medium clutter conditions?
A: Patient care in place and removal by normal means may be extremely challenging due to debris.

B: Smoke detectors will likely not be present or operating properly.

C: Maneuvering handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines.

D: Primary and secondary searches not affected.

A

C
Explanation:
SAFETY BULLETIN 92 – CLUTTER
C IS CORRECT – Section 4 chart under Suppression
A – Heavy Clutter under EMS label
B - Heavy Clutter under Member Safety label
D – Light Clutter under Search label

36
Q

A fire originating on the second floor of a two-story taxpayer may be treated as a fire originating on the first floor of a one-story taxpayer. Added emphasis must be given to each of the following, except which incorrect choice?
A: The need for an aerial ladder to the roof for ventilation. The forcible entry team should use the stairway to the second floor.

B: In a second floor occupancy with large unobstructed areas, such as a dance hall or meeting hall, the ceiling beams span greater distances, the cocklofts may be deeper and the ceilings may be higher. This will require using proper size hooks, ten foot or longer, more time and work and additional staffing to open these ceilings.

C: If the second floor is divided into multi-occupancy use, the penetration of heavy caliber streams will be limited due to partitions subdividing the floor area.

D: The probability of a fire extending into the cockloft is not as severe due to the height of the ceilings.

A

D
Explanation:
The probability of a fire extending into the cockloft is GREATER.
Other considerations include:
Remote stairs and rear fire escapes must be looked for.
The advancement of ladder company personnel should be coordinated with engine company personnel to expedite the locating, confining and extinguishment of the fire.
Areas below the fire must be examined for any fire dropping down.
Txpyr 9.2

37
Q

The Life Saving training rope is incorrectly described in which choice?
A: Life Saving training rope may be used at heights to a maximum of four stories

B: The maximum number of times the Life Saving training rope can be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides

C: One end of the Life Saving training rope shall be identified by tape affixed to the hook

D: A history of every Life saving training rope shall be maintained on the Training Rope Record Card (RP-101)

A

A
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data Sheet 3
A- Maximum of 3 stories 5.2
B- 4.5
C- 4.4
D- 4.6

38
Q

Companies shall use the following guideline when assigning CFR-D responsibilities: “A”-Airway; “B”-Boss; “C”-Checker; “D”-Documenter; “E”-Equipment. Which of these positions is responsible to carry the trauma bag?
A: “A”

B: “C”

C: “D”

D: “E”

A

B
Explanation:
“A” carries O2 bag.

“C” carries Trauma bag.

“E” the fifth firefighter in 5 firefighter engines. Initially stays with apparatus and carries any additional equipment needed.

CFR Ch 2 2.1

39
Q

The FAST Unit is a critical resource at any fire operation and the IC may use them at his/her discretion. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: The IC shall immediately notify the dispatcher when the FAST unit is being put to work, and request a replacement FAST unit.

B: Prior to the arrival of the replacement FAST unit, a Safety Team shall be established.

C: The FAST unit shall not be returned to service prior to their arrival on the scene unless the incident is placed “Under Control”.

D: The FAST unit shall not be used to provide relief for operating units until the fire has been declared “Probably Will Hold”.

A

D
Explanation:
The FAST unit shall not be used to provide relief for operating units until the fire has been declared “UNDER CONTROL”.
A Note: The IC shall transmit Signal 10-66 if necessary. The IC shall also announce over the handi-talkie tactical channel that the FAST unit has been assigned to address the member in distress and all units shall continue with their present assignment.
Exceptions to C & D can be found in MMID 4 8.1
MMID 4 2.3, 7.1, 7.2

40
Q

Members operating on the exterior of a tenement fire shall take each of the following actions, in accordance with the newly revised Ventilation bulletin, except?
A: Conduct a size-up and communicate conditions to the Ladder Company Officer (e.g. life hazard, ventilation profile, bars on windows, wind conditions, etc.) while getting into their operating position.

B: Monitor handie-talkie transmissions to maintain situational awareness.

C: Notify the Engine Company Officer when they are in position to ventilate as directed; this can either be Ventilation for Search or Ventilation for Extinguishment.

D: Communicate to the Ladder Company Officer any change to the ventilation profile caused by ventilation tactics or window failure.

A

C
Explanation:
Notify the LADDER Company Officer when they are in position to ventilate as directed; this can either be Ventilation for Search or Ventilation for Extinguishment.
Vent 8.2.1