FT CO 14

Question 1

Lt. Jones is working a day tour in L100, a tower ladder, and has just arrived at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. The street is not level and the Officers side of the rig is lower than the chauffer’s side of the rig. In this situation Lt. Jones would be most correct to give his LCC the following order?
Select one:
a. Lower the jacks and outrigger on the low side first, followed by the jacks and outrigger on the high side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.
b. Lower all the jacks first and then lower both outriggers at the same time until the green lights indicate that all the stabilizers are properly deployed.
c. Lower the jacks and outriggers at the same time until the green lights indicate that all the stabilizers are properly deployed.
d. Lower the jacks and outrigger on the high side first, followed by the jacks and outrigger on the low side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.

Answer 1

A
(1.1) If the rig is not level lower jacks and outrigger on low side first followed by the jacks and outrigger on the high side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed. The “all jacks” lever is the preferred method for lowering the jacks and outriggers at the same time.
The correct answer is: Lower the jacks and outrigger on the low side first, followed by the jacks and outrigger on the high side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.

Question 2

FF Bongino is a new Tower Ladder LCC and is driving on a 9x6 tour. After arriving at a small fire in a vacant rowframe he and the proby, who has the OV for the first time, are in the process of setting up the Tower Ladder. FF Bongino would be correct to tell the proby? (More than one correct)
Select one or more:
a. The joystick controls in the basket will allow for smoother positioning than the controls at the pedestal. For this reason, the basket firefighter should, in most cases, perform delicate movements.
b. The preferred placement of manual pins for outriggers shall be at the lowest hole available once extended. The preferred placement of manual pins for jacks shall be the highest slot available once extended.
c. The controls at the pedestal will allow for smoother positioning than the joystick controls in the bucket. For this reason, the pedestal firefighter should, in most cases, perform delicate movements.
d. The preferred placement of manual pins for outriggers shall be at the highest hole available once extended. The preferred placement of manual pins for jacks shall be the lowest slot available once extended.

Answer 2

B,C
(1.1, 1.2) The only exception to this is when the pedestal firefighters view is obstructed by smoke, the fire building, or cord reels.
The correct answers are: The preferred placement of manual pins for outriggers shall be at the lowest hole available once extended. The preferred placement of manual pins for jacks shall be the highest slot available once extended., The controls at the pedestal will allow for smoother positioning than the joystick controls in the bucket. For this reason, the pedestal firefighter should, in most cases, perform delicate movements.

Question 3

You are a new Lieutenant working a day tour in TL99 and are reviewing the manpower for the 6x9 tour when you notice that there are 5 details coming in for the 6x9 tour and one of the details is a LCC assigned to L98 an aerial ladder. Listed below are the other 4 members who are being detailed into TL99 for the 6x9 tour. Which member from the list below can operate on the turntable if necessary?
Select one:
a. FF Bongino who has 20 years on the job and is assigned to TL96.
b. FF Beck who has 25 years on the job and is assigned to L98.
c. FF Levine who has 15 years on the job and is on a long-term detail to TL97.
d. FF Hannity who has 20 years on the job and is assigned to E99.

Answer 3

A
(1.2) Detailed members should not operate on the turntable unless they are presently assigned to a TL or are a qualified Chauffer-Tiller (QCT School Trained).
The correct answer is: FF Bongino who has 20 years on the job and is assigned to TL96.

Question 4

FF Wilkow was drilling with a member of his unit, TL98, who just recently became a LCC. Which point made during the drill was not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. The LCC when operating as the pedestal firefighter shall maintain and monitor HT communications and relay orders and pertinent information to the bucket firefighter via the intercom.
b. During operations when the LCC is operating as the pedestal firefighter he shall remain at the pedestal in full PPE until properly relieved by any other member.
c. The LCC must personally verify all outriggers, jacks, and manual pins are properly placed prior to raising the boom from the bedded position.
d. The LCC should frequently assess the footing of the apparatus jacks and outriggers for signs of undermining and/or street pavement collapse and monitor the operating hydraulic pressure.

Answer 4

B
You must be relieved by another TRAINED MEMBER.
The correct answer is: During operations when the LCC is operating as the pedestal firefighter he shall remain at the pedestal in full PPE until properly relieved by any other member.

Question 5

If a member commences to set up a tower ladder apparatus for an operation and then decides to abort the operation the member must?
Select one:
a. Properly place all jacks and outriggers on the ground.
b. Either return all the outriggers and jacks to the pre setup position or place all the jacks and outriggers on the ground.
c. Return all outriggers and jacks to the pre setup position.
d. Leave the jacks and outriggers in whatever position they are in and notify your company officer prior to leaving the pedestal.

Answer 5

C
(1.1)
The correct answer is: Return all outriggers and jacks to the pre setup position.

Question 6

The water system in the tower ladder is one of the most versatile weapons in the FDNY arsenal and members should understand how it works as well as the proper communications when operating a tower ladder. Which point made below regarding the water system and communications is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. A test of the intercom system shall be made each tour and at the initial stages of placing the tower ladder into operation.
b. The intercom system should be the primary means of communication between the bucket and the pedestal as it is the most effective and will limit radio traffic on the HT tactical channel.
c. When communicating between the pedestal and the bucket members will hear terms such as raise, lower, extend, and retract. The reference point when using these terms is always the bucket position.
d. The platform monitor is permanently mounted to the front of the tower ladder bucket and permits 360 degrees of coverage. The water system hookup consists of a 3” x 3” gated inlet and a 4 ½” ungated inlet.

Answer 6

C
(1.4 1.5) Should say “the reference point is always the pedestal and not the bucket position.
The correct answer is: When communicating between the pedestal and the bucket members will hear terms such as raise, lower, extend, and retract. The reference point when using these terms is always the bucket position.

Question 7

Inspection of the tower ladder is crucial to ensure safe and effective operations. The tower ladder bulletin lists many checks that need to be completed on a routine basis. From the list below please choose which safety check must be conducted each tour?
Select one:
a. Check to make sure that the platform is level.
b. Look for evidence of hydraulic leaks at all connections.
c. Check the monitor for proper movement and the presence of the stream shaper and stacked tips.
d. Check the position of the platform control switch on the pedestal to ensure that is not engaged.
e. Check to see that no tools or equipment carried in the bed will strike the cable reel.
f. Check the condition of safety belts installed in the bucket.

Answer 7

D
(Ch. 7) The book says that this should be done every tour while the rest of the checks should be done DAILY.
The correct answer is: Check the position of the platform control switch on the pedestal to ensure that is not engaged.

Question 8

Arriving first due allows the tower ladder to attain the best position for initial operations. Officer and LCC’s should maintain situational awareness in order to not impede the accessibility of hydrants for Engine Co. use. Which point listed below regarding tower ladder positioning is not correct?
Select one:
a. The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 25’. When the center line of the turntable is 32’ from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.
b. Positioning the tower ladder at a corner building affords coverage on two fronts, enabling operations over a much wider area. Notice shall be taken of overhead and ground level obstructions.
c. The tower ladder may be placed on the sidewalk either fully or partially to reach upper levels or to gain better vantage points. In this situation, verify the condition under the sidewalk and make certain that the jacks and the outriggers are on a firm foundation.
d. Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. If the scrub area of the bucket is reduced by the cab of the apparatus the LCC can correct this by parking the apparatus with front end angled away from the building.

Answer 8

A
(2) The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 32’. When the center line of the turntable is 25’ from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.
The correct answer is: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 25’. When the center line of the turntable is 32’ from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.

Question 9

The type of structure or occupancy will influence initial apparatus positioning and bucket placement. Listed below are four different types of buildings and the proper placement of the tower ladder for each. Which one(s) are not correct? (More than one incorrect).
Select one or more:
a. Taxpayer – Position to operate at street level and protect exposures. Direct the monitor at the ceiling/cockloft area from the street level. The TL can also be used as an observation point at roof level when lightweight construction is encountered.
b. Place of Worship Fire – The tower ladder should always be positioned in front of a place of worship to gain access to the rose window and to be out of the collapse zone.
c. Brownstone/Rowframes – At a brownstone position for top floor VEIS. At a rowframe the tower ladder can potentially cover four (4) row frames. A backing in maneuver may permit booming under the 1st arriving aerial ladder for both types of buildings.
d. Tenements – Position to the fire apartment or floor above or an off window of the fire escape. The presence of a fire escape should not diminish the value of the TL as it can be highly effective when people are present on a fire escape.

Answer 9

B, C
(2.1) TL at a rowframe can potentially cover up to 6 Rowframes., TL should be positioned to cover 2 sides of the building and provide ventilation of the roof and rose window.
The correct answers are: Brownstone/Rowframes – At a brownstone position for top floor VEIS. At a rowframe the tower ladder can potentially cover four (4) row frames. A backing in maneuver may permit booming under the 1st arriving aerial ladder for both types of buildings., Place of Worship Fire – The tower ladder should always be positioned in front of a place of worship to gain access to the rose window and to be out of the collapse zone.

Question 10

A Captain at chauffeur school was discussing ladder company operations with emphasis on the tower ladder and positioning it on hills. The Captain made the following three (3) statements and was incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. Position the apparatus parallel to the direction of the slope so that boom operations will be in the “down-hill” direction. If possible, the apparatus should be facing “up-hill”. If facing up-hill, place the turntable past the objective, if facing down-hill place the turntable before the objective.
b. Retracting and/or raising of the boom may be required for “up-hill” operation. By retracting and/or raising the boom, the load will be rotating on a shorter radius, thereby reducing the torque requirements for uphill rotation.
c. All boom operations should be performed delicately and at a low speed while on steep inclines. Sudden stops in maneuvering can cause damage to the apparatus and/or cause the apparatus to skip downhill. All sudden movements should be avoided.

Answer 10

A
(2.4) Position the apparatus parallel to the direction of the slope so that boom operations will be in the “up-hill” direction. If possible, the apparatus should be facing “down-hill”. If facing downhill, place the turntable past the objective, if facing uphill place the turntable before the objective.
The correct answer is: Position the apparatus parallel to the direction of the slope so that boom operations will be in the “down-hill” direction. If possible, the apparatus should be facing “up-hill”. If facing up-hill, place the turntable past the objective, if facing down-hill place the turntable before the objective.

Question 11

The same Captain continued on with the discussion on tower ladder positioning and made the following four statements. This Captain should re-read the tower ladder bulletin because he was only correct in which statement?
Select one:
a. When positioned in lots, the boom should not be operated at right angles to the chassis at low elevations, it should be operated at narrow angles over the front and rear of the apparatus.
b. When encountering elevated trains or elevated highways, one option is to position the apparatus parallel to the objective, with the pedestal in line with the target, close to the building line.
c. When positioning the tower ladder in a vacant lot, the LCC must conduct a survey for potential collapse zones and voids. The tower ladder must either be in the lot fully or not at all.
d. If live overhead wires fall onto the apparatus members should transmit a “MAYDAY” to notify the IC. The IC should then notify all members that the tower ladder is out of service.

Answer 11

A
(2.5, 2.6) The LCC and the Officer must conduct a survey. The TL can be partially or fully placed in a vacant lot., Place the bucket in line with the target., Transmit an URGENT.
The correct answer is: When positioned in lots, the boom should not be operated at right angles to the chassis at low elevations, it should be operated at narrow angles over the front and rear of the apparatus.

Question 12

When operations with the tower ladder have concluded there are certain steps that must be taken by the members of the unit to ensure that the tower ladder is safe and ready for the next operation. Which point listed below is not correct?
Select one:
a. After fully retracting the jacks and outriggers the boom shall be re-bedded. The boom has a tendency to rise from the bedded position after the jacks and outriggers have been retracted.
b. At the conclusion of operations, prior to raising the jacks and outriggers, chauffeurs shall personally verify that all manual pins have been removed. Members shall remain alert and stay clear of the immediate area surrounding the TL.
c. When the apparatus is moving in reverse members can either walk alongside the tower ladder or adopt a flanking position to the rear where eye contact with the chauffeur can be maintained.
d. Outriggers should not be raised before verifying that the turntable platform arrow markings meet, thus ensuring that the tower ladder boom is parallel with the apparatus.

Answer 12

C
(2.9) Never walk alongside an apparatus moving in reverse. Instead adopt a flanking position to the rear where eye contact with the LCC can be maintained. Utilization of the apparatus buzzer located in the crew cab along with flashlights at night can be of great assistance.
The correct answer is: When the apparatus is moving in reverse members can either walk alongside the tower ladder or adopt a flanking position to the rear where eye contact with the chauffeur can be maintained.

Question 13

Members of Tower Ladder 99 were discussing bucket operations during a drill. Which point made during this discussion is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. Bucket railings are not a substantial part of the bucket and shall not be used as a substantial object when tying off.
b. When a member enters a window from the bucket for VEIS the bucket shall only be moved for rescue and ventilation purposes. When required to reposition the bucket an immediate notification to the members operating inside shall be made.
c. Prior to gaining entry by way of the bucket, members should clear the entire window. Members can place the end of a 6’ hook firmly into the corner of a window sill as a reference point for operating members.
d. When the bucket is properly positioned at a window, immediate notification to the company officer will alert members of the additional means of egress.

Answer 13

B
(Ch. 3 3.1 3.2) When a member enters a window from the bucket for VEIS, the bucket shall not be moved unless required for rescue purposes. When required to reposition the bucket for rescue, immediate notification to the member(s) who entered the window from the bucket shall be made and the bucket returned to the window (or replaced with another aerial/portable ladder) as soon as possible.
The correct answer is: When a member enters a window from the bucket for VEIS the bucket shall only be moved for rescue and ventilation purposes. When required to reposition the bucket an immediate notification to the members operating inside shall be made.

Question 14

The full capability of the tower ladder will be realized when there are many persons to be removed and/or victims are unconscious, incapacitated, or obese. Tower Ladder 7 has just arrived at a fire on the 4th floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. As members arrive, they can see a person at a window on the 4th floor. When the OV gets to the window in the bucket he realizes that the victim is obese and will need assistance. In this situation the OV would be most correct to take which action listed below?
Select one:
a. Place the floor of the bucket level with the window sill.
b. Use the middle rail for others so they can easily step into the bucket without straddling the window sill or fire escape.
c. Position the top bucket rail level with the window sill.
d. Notify the company officer inside the fire apartment and have the inside team effect the rescue since the victim is obese.
e. Position the middle of the bucket level with the window sill.

Answer 14

C
(Ch. 3 3.3) Position the top bucket rail level with the window sill or top rail of the fire escape. This is the preferred position for unconscious, incapacitated, or obese victims.
The correct answer is: Position the top bucket rail level with the window sill.

Question 15

The senior guy in TL100 with 12 years on the job was talking with some junior members of his company. He proceeded to make the following two statements:
Statement 1 – The presence, height, and integrity of parapets and cornices (or lack thereof) are factors that should be considered when placing the bucket to the roof. When placed to the roof for access, the preferred positioning is with the bucket over the roof, parapet, or cornice and the gate parallel to the roofline.
Statement 2 – When multiple trips of the bucket are required to remove a large number of occupant’s, additional tower ladders must be called. When people are removed via the bucket, they must be brought down to the street level to minimize the risk of a civilian falling out of the bucket.

Which statement(s) is/are correct?

Select one:

a. Statement 1 only.
b. Both are correct.
c. Both are incorrect.
d. Statement 2 only.

Answer 15

A
(Ch.3 3.3) Statement 2 should say: When multiple trips of the bucket are required to remove a large number of occupants, removal directly to street level may not be necessary or practical. When time is critical, occupants may be removed to lower levels of the fire building, across the throat to an opposite wing in a “H” Type, to an adjoining roof, fire escape (avoid overloading), or other safe area. When necessary leave a member wit the group of removed occupants to help prevent panic.
The correct answer is: Statement 1 only.

Question 16

Part of managing a high-stress situation begins with managing oneself. Having an individual plan and constantly rehearsing it builds resilience. Taking a moment to stop, breathe and think will enhance one’s ability to take action in high-stress environments. Which point below is not correct regarding safety when operating in the TL bucket?
Select one:
a. Members in a bucket that is wedged should remain low in the bucket. All members should immediately crouch, sit, or otherwise remain low in the bucket to lower their center of gravity in anticipation of possible sudden, violent movements.
b. If the bucket makes contact with a building, structure or other obstruction and becomes wedged or stuck members in the bucket should verify that all members are secured to a substantial part of the bucket using the installed safety belt, life belt, or personal harness.
c. When no other option is available, members may escape from the bucket by means of the escape ladder in the hinged position. Prior to exiting the bucket, members shall ensure the apparatus remains in P.T.O., the engine is shut down and the escape ladder side rails are raised.
d. Members in a bucket that is wedged should notify the IC by transmitting a “MAYDAY” message. Example: MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.. Ladder 99 OV to Command with a MAYDAY. Upon acknowledgment, transmit: “Ladder 99 OV MAYDAY… the bucket is wedged.”

Answer 16

D
(3.6) Members in a bucket that is wedged should notify the IC by transmitting a “URGENT” message. Example: Urgent, Urgent, Urgent. Ladder 99 OV to Command with an Urgent. Upon acknowledgment, transmit: “Ladder 99 OV Urgent… the bucket is wedged.”
The correct answer is: Members in a bucket that is wedged should notify the IC by transmitting a “MAYDAY” message. Example: MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.. Ladder 99 OV to Command with a MAYDAY. Upon acknowledgment, transmit: “Ladder 99 OV MAYDAY… the bucket is wedged.”

Question 17

The power saw can be used effectively from the Tower Ladder bucket to open peaked roofs similar to the coffin cut on a tenement roof. Each cut, the coffin cut and when cutting a peaked roof from a TL bucket requires a certain number of cuts with the saw to complete. Which choice below shows correct information about the amount of cutting need to complete the above cuts?
Select one:
a. Peaked roof from the bucket 2 cuts. Coffin cut 9 cuts.
b. Peaked roof from the bucket 4 cuts. Coffin cut 7 cuts.
c. Peaked roof from the bucket 5 cuts. Coffin cut 8 cuts.
d. Peaked roof from the bucket 3 cuts. Coffin cut 9 cuts.

Answer 17

B
(3.5, L3 5.9.6) Coffin cut on roof of a Tenement: cut #1 approximately 3 feet, cut #2 “knock out” corner cut for tool insertion, cut #3 approximately 6 feet, and cuts #4 to #7 approximately 3 feet. Peaked roof from TL bucket: Make the first cut parallel to the ridge pole. The last cut (#4) is the knock out cut. Four (4) cuts total.
The correct answer is: Peaked roof from the bucket 4 cuts. Coffin cut 7 cuts.

Question 18

The Tower Ladder provides an excellent platform for overhaul operations including cornice securing/removal and exterior wood sheathing, siding and cockloft overhaul. Which is the only correct point listed below?
Select one:
a. The top of the bucket railing should be positioned slightly above the work area.
b. The boom shall not be used to force timbers or cornices back into a building or onto a roof.
c. The boom can be used to pull or push objects or used as a derrick.
d. When using a power saw from the TL bucket it is preferable to have one member in the bucket to control the bucket and to operate the saw.

Answer 18

B
(3.7) The top of the bucket railing should be positioned slightly below the work area., When using a power saw from the Tower Ladder bucket it is preferable to have one member control the bucket while a second member operates the saw. The power saw shall be lashed to the bucket as a safety measure., The boom shall not be used: To force timbers or cornices back into a building or onto a roof, to pull or push objects, or as a derrick.
The correct answer is: The boom shall not be used to force timbers or cornices back into a building or onto a roof.

Question 19

Large caliber outside streams generally should not be directed into occupied buildings; members must be warned and occupants should be removed before starting water. In some circumstances, however, fire conditions or a life hazard may demand such use. Which point below is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the TL stream should be directed at the windows in the front first, then advanced toward the courtyard of the building, and finally operated into the throat.
b. Openings made in exterior walls or cornices will often permit stream penetration to the seat of the fire. Power tools should be utilized as necessary. Be aware that time lost breaching walls to reach the cockloft may lead to extension in exposures.
c. The application of a LCS downward into roof openings from an elevated position can be counterproductive. Operating the Tower Ladder stream into roof vent holes is generally ineffective and may result in a prolonged operation.
d. When the fire building is heavily involved or there are multiple floors of fire, LCS delivery should generally start at the lowest level and work upward.
e. A street level attack at taxpayer fires using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables the extinguishment of fire therein.

Answer 19

A
At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the TL stream should be directed at the windows in the throat first, then advanced toward the front of the building, and finally operated into the front windows.
The correct answer is: At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the TL stream should be directed at the windows in the front first, then advanced toward the courtyard of the building, and finally operated into the throat.

Question 20

There are many special situations where the tower ladder can be utilized to conduct different operations. Listed below are four special situations that may be encountered. Which one is not correct?
Select one:
a. Under no circumstances should a Tower Ladder be used as a crane to “lift” a patient.
b. When using the TL as a high point remove all members from the apparatus, turn the siren to the “on” position, and place the apparatus to the “off” position. In the event someone turns the apparatus on, the siren will alert all members on scene.
c. When breaching an exterior wall from the bucket the cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle downward to prevent further collapse. The first cut should be at the mortar joint and second and third cuts should be at the brickwork.
d. The TL may be used as a high point anchor. The preferred location for the high point anchor is under the bucket. Under no circumstances shall the landing pads of the bucket be used as a high point anchor.
e. During periods of heavy snow accumulation, Tower Ladder units should, prior to setting jacks/outriggers on surfaces, clear snow to verify stabilizers are not being lowered onto manholes/vaults.

Answer 20

C
(Chapter 5) When the power saw is being used to cut through brick and concrete, the combination metal/concrete saw blade (diamond blade) shall be used. Electric or pneumatic hammers may also be used for breaching operations from the bucket, when necessary. Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle upward to prevent further collapse. The first and second cuts should be at the brickwork since the easiest cut is at the mortar joint and the blade at this point will usually be worn. Additionally, the cut at the mortar joint may not be necessary since bricks along this plane may be loosened and removed easily with hand tools.
The correct answer is: When breaching an exterior wall from the bucket the cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle downward to prevent further collapse. The first cut should be at the mortar joint and second and third cuts should be at the brickwork.

Question 21

The advantage of an extension ladder is that its height can be adjusted for safe and accurate positioning. Choosing the precise ladder length is not as critical when using an extension ladder as it is when using a straight ladder which has a fixed length. From the following points listed below which are incorrect? (More than 1 incorrect).
Select one or more:
a. When placing a portable ladder alongside a fire escape on a building wall the tip shall be 1’ to 3’ above the fire escape railing. When placing a portable ladder against a fire escape the tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.
b. When placing a portable ladder at a window the tip shall be level with window sill. When placing a portable ladder to the roof the tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
c. When positioning a portable ladder, a 65-75 degree angle allows the ladder to provide its maximum strength and best service.
d. Apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency should not be positioned closer than 35’ to the rear of another Ladder Co. This is to ensure that the 35’ portable ladder can be removed.
e. A simple formula used to obtain a 75 degree angle is to place the base of the ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to 1/3 the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base of the ladder to the top of the ladder.

Answer 21

D, E
L1, Section 7 20’ straight and/or 35’ extension ladders are carried in the internal slide-in racks on ladder company apparatus. If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 20’ to the rear of the ladder apparatus, the 20’ straight or the 35’ extension ladder cannot be removed from these racks due to insufficient clearance., To obtain a 75 degree angle, place the base of the ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to 1/4 the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base to the top of its support.
The correct answers are: Apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency should not be positioned closer than 35’ to the rear of another Ladder Co. This is to ensure that the 35’ portable ladder can be removed., A simple formula used to obtain a 75 degree angle is to place the base of the ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to 1/3 the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base of the ladder to the top of the ladder.

Question 22

During a recent day tour members of L99 were drilling with their proby and were discussing portable ladders, mainly their advantages and disadvantages. Which point made during the drill was not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. A protective finish is required on aluminum ladders, as they can dry out and weather with age or sunlight exposure. If a slow oxidizing of the surface occurs, the ladder must be placed out of service for repair and evaluation.
b. Aluminum ladders, in general, are tough. They will dent but will not chip or crack when subjected to severe impact, nor will they fail suddenly because of overloads. They will bend but not break, as wood does.
c. Aluminum ladders readily conduct electricity and heat very rapidly. If an aluminum ladder has been subjected to excessive heat exposure at a fire, even for a brief period, it may have lost its heat treatment. This may affect its load carrying capacity, even though the metal shows no signs of any change.
d. Aluminum ladders are made of a high tensile, heat treated aluminum alloy and can sustain daily wear and tear very well. The aluminum will not weaken with age and it has a long life expectancy.

Answer 22

A
(Lad 1, Sections 3 & 4) No protective finish is required on aluminum ladders, as they will not dry out and weather with age or sunlight exposure. If a slow oxidizing of the surface occurs, it can be polished off.
The correct answer is: A protective finish is required on aluminum ladders, as they can dry out and weather with age or sunlight exposure. If a slow oxidizing of the surface occurs, the ladder must be placed out of service for repair and evaluation.

Question 23

You are working a day tour in L100 when the LCC tells you that the rig is out of service because it is leaking oil. The mechanic arrives about an hour later and says that the rig must go to the shops and that you will get a spare aerial ladder. After the spare is brought to quarters members are placing all the tools on the spare rig and they tell you that the 35’ ladder will not fit into the ladder rack securely. You then took the following actions listed below and were incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. You sent a requisition to have the ladder holding devices repaired.
b. You took a mark in the company journal.
c. You made sure the temporary fastenings were checked at the beginning of every tour.
d. You directed the members to secure ladder as safely as possible pending repair or relocation of ladder holding devices by the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit.
e. You notified the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit by telephone.

Answer 23

C
(Ladders 1, Section 5) If ladders cannot be held securely, the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit shall immediately be notified by telephone. A requisition shall be forwarded and an entry made in the company journal. Provision shall be made to secure ladders as safely as possible pending repair or relocation of ladder holding devices by the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit. These temporary fastenings shall be checked after each response.
The correct answer is: You made sure the temporary fastenings were checked at the beginning of every tour.

Question 24

Whenever a member operates on a ladder of any kind, they must have enough hand control to ensure their safety. This is an absolute necessity when on vertical ladders, such as fire escape drop ladders and gooseneck ladders to the roof. Greater physical effort is needed when using a completely vertical ladder, because a missed step or a slip of the hand will result in a vertical drop and a serious injury. When a member is using a “leg lock” he/she should take which action below?
Select one:
a. The leg performing the locking maneuver should be on the working side. The locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is two rungs above the one on which the member is standing.
b. The leg performing the locking maneuver should be opposite the working side. The locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is two rungs above the one on which the member is standing.
c. The leg performing the locking maneuver should be on the working side. The locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is three rungs above the one on which the member is standing.
d. The leg performing the locking maneuver should be opposite the working side. The locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is one rung above the one on which the member is standing.

Answer 24

B
(8.2) The Leg Lock: The leg performing the locking maneuver is opposite the working side. For example, if the member wants to lean to the right and vent a window, they will lock their left leg on the ladder. To perform the leg lock, the locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is two rungs above the one on which the member is standing. The instep of the locking leg is placed on the beam of the ladder opposite the member’s working side. Using the Personal Harness: The snap hook of the personal harness hooks directly to the ladder rung.
The correct answer is: The leg performing the locking maneuver should be opposite the working side. The locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is two rungs above the one on which the member is standing.

Question 25

TL99 has an enormous amount of brownstone buildings in their response area and as such are always drilling on these types of buildings. During a recent drill on portable ladder operations in brownstone building, each member made one statement. Which member needs to reread the portable ladder and brownstone bulletins?
Select one:
a. Placing a portable ladder at the window of the small room over the front entrance door will be difficult because of the long high stoop, which may interfere with firefighting operations. Consider placing the ladder at the adjoining window to gain entrance to this small room.
b. In most cases when the fire is on an upper floor, taking the ladder through the first floor (parlor floor) of the fire building and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the adjoining building.
c. The rear of the brownstone presents a severe life hazard if there is no fire escape. Portable ladders transported to the rear of the building and properly positioned are safer than a lifesaving rope rescue. They require less staffing and effort.
d. In a brownstone, it is important to take the ladder through with the butt facing the rear of the building. In a row frame, transporting a ladder through the interior of the building to the rear is generally less complicated because there are front and rear doors or window entries at ground level.

Answer 25

B
(10.2) In most cases, taking the ladder through the second floor (parlor floor) of an adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building.
The correct answer is: In most cases when the fire is on an upper floor, taking the ladder through the first floor (parlor floor) of the fire building and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the adjoining building.

Question 26

Please read the two statements below and choose the correct answer:
Select one:
a. Neither are correct.
b. Statement 1 - When a ladder has been positioned and used by a member to gain entry to a fire building, there is the possibility that he/she will also need it as a means of retreat. The ladder is expected to be there. Therefore, do not move or reposition a ladder used in this manner except if it is necessary to use the ladder for rescue. Members operating in the area the ladder was used to access should be notified regarding its repositioning. The ladder should be returned to its original location or replaced with another ladder as soon as possible.
c. Only statement 2 is correct.
d. Statement 2 - To perform any type of search, portable ladders may be used as a brace where there is a partial or complete collapse of a floor area. The ladders may only be used in groups and not singly. Portable ladders used in bridging operations can span courts, alleys, shafts and similar openings between floors and roofs. Extension ladders must be used either in the nested position or extended position when bridging.
e. Both are correct.
f. Only statement 1 is correct.

Answer 26

F
To perform an emergency search, portable ladders may be used as a brace where there is partial collapse of a floor area. The ladders may be used singly or in groups. Portable ladders used in bridging operations can span courts, alleys, shafts and similar openings between floors and roofs. Extension ladders must be used only in the nested position when bridging.
The correct answer is: Only statement 1 is correct.

Question 27

Ventilation of windows on upper floors may be accomplished by the use of portable ladders with or without a member on the ladder. In all cases, horizontal ventilation must be controlled, communicated and coordinated with the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area. Which point listed below regarding venting windows with portable ladders in not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. The tip of the ladder, if possible, should be level with, or higher than the top of the window.
b. The ladder should be positioned so that it will break the desired window glass area when dropped against the window. When the ladder strikes the glass, there should be no contact between the member and the ladder.
c. When the member is positioned on the ladder and prepares to use a tool to ventilate the window (a 6’ hook is preferable), he/she should extend their arms upward and slant the tool downward and strike the glass.
d. The ladder is placed downwind from the window to be ventilated. The placement should provide a margin of safety to the member if the fire extends out of the window.

Answer 27

D
(Ladders 1, 10.3.2) The ladder is placed upwind from the window to be ventilated. The placement should provide a margin of safety to the member if the fire extends out of the window.
The correct answer is: The ladder is placed downwind from the window to be ventilated. The placement should provide a margin of safety to the member if the fire extends out of the window.

Question 28

Operating on portable ladders can be dangerous and must be done as safely as possible. Listed below are numerous points about safety when using portable ladders. Which point(s) are not correct?
Select one or more:
a. Ladders should never be placed against window panes, window sashes, or loose boxes, barrels, or other surfaces that may break or collapse. Always face the ladder when ascending or descending.
b. Depending upon the voltage in overhead wires, the proximity of a metal ladder to them, and the quality of the grounds (ladder and electrical circuit), it may not be necessary to actually touch the wires to suffer an electrical shock. Electrical current can arc and jump the distance between the ladder and the wires and cause death to an unsuspecting member.
c. Do not climb higher than the second rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders and resist the temptation to overreach.
d. When using a ladder for access to high places, it shall be securely lashed or otherwise fastened at the bottom lower section, to prevent slippage.
e. Both metal and, under certain conditions, wooden portable ladders can conduct electricity. Whenever a portable ladder is to be raised and transported in a vertical position, special care must be exercised near overhead electrical wires.

Answer 28

C
Do not climb higher than the third rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders., When using a ladder for access to high places, it shall be securely lashed or otherwise fastened at the top to prevent slippage.
The correct answers are: Do not climb higher than the second rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders and resist the temptation to overreach., When using a ladder for access to high places, it shall be securely lashed or otherwise fastened at the bottom lower section, to prevent slippage.

Question 29

Aerial ladders may be used to affect rescue, entry, search, and ventilation. When their need is evident upon arrival, they should be raised immediately and when their need is anticipated for later use, the ladders shall be positioned and set up as described in this bulletin. Which point(s) about the placement of aerial ladders is/are not entirely correct?
Select one or more:
a. Placement of the aerial ladder depends on the area or street conditions that might hamper optimum positioning.
b. Placement of the aerial ladder depends on smoke, heat, or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim only.
c. The placement of aerial ladder apparatus is dependent on whether immediate rescue is apparent.
d. Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the size of the frontage of the building to be covered in case of future need.
e. The roof firefighter shall assist the chauffeur in proper placement of the apparatus before carrying out their other assigned duties.
f. While operating at a fire or emergency, the apparatus shall not be backed up unless the chauffeur has the assistance of at least one guide person.

Answer 29

E
(2.1) Placement of the aerial ladder depends on smoke, heat or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim, a member, or the ladder., The outside ventilation firefighter (OV) shall assist the chauffeur in proper placement of the apparatus before carrying out their other assigned duties.
The correct answers are: Placement of the aerial ladder depends on smoke, heat, or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim only., The roof firefighter shall assist the chauffeur in proper placement of the apparatus before carrying out their other assigned duties.

Question 30

FF Pompeo is the senior guy in L100 and was discussing aerial ladder placement with two other members of L100 who just returned from LCC school. FF Pompeo made the following four points and was incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. To attain accuracy in lining up the ladder with a window a less experienced member should sight along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.
b. When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable in line with those most seriously exposed occupant. After removing those most seriously exposed, rotate the ladder to complete the removal operations.
c. When a person is at a window you should place the apparatus 25’ to 35’ from the building for a good climbing angle. The average city sidewalk is 13’ from the building line to the curb and 35’ from curb to curb. Place the apparatus in the center of the street, if possible.
d. To attain accuracy in lining up the ladder with a window, the experienced member, should sight along the ladder rail of the top section.

Answer 30

B
When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable midway between locations. After removing those most seriously exposed, rotate the ladder to complete the removal operations.
The correct answer is: When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable in line with those most seriously exposed occupant. After removing those most seriously exposed, rotate the ladder to complete the removal operations.

Question 31

Listed below are numerous points in regard to placing the aerial ladder in different situations that may be encountered at operations. Which points are correct? 1. - The recommended distance of the tip of the aerial ladder from the objective is 2" to 6". 2. - In case of a rescue use the 2" positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it. 3. - At a very extreme angle, such as placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building, allow the ladder to barely touch the building. 4. - When positioning a ladder at a window the ladder tip should be less than 6" over the window sill. 5. - When people are on a fire escape place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from face of building and about 1’ to 3’ above the balcony railing. 6. - For a narrow frontage building (30' or less in width) with no people showing on arrival, position the turntable in the center of the building.
Select one:
a. All incorrect.
b. Choices 2, 5, 6 are correct
c. All correct. 
d. Choices 1, 2, 3, 5 are Correct
e. Choices 2, 4, 6 are correct.
f. Choices 1, 3, 4 are correct.

Answer 31

C

The correct answer is: All correct.

Question 32

When there are two victims to be removed, the order of removal is dependent on variables difficult to predetermine. In many instances, one of the people will have climbed out on the ladder before a member has reached this position and there will be no need to make a preferential determination as to removal. The removal order should be based on the length of time needed to completely affect this rescue and the seriousness of the exposure to victims and members. Recently L100 responded to two fires on a day tour and took the following actions at each fire. At which fire did they operate incorrectly?
Select one:
a. Fire #1 – There was a serious fire in the front of the building and there were 2 victims, one of whom was very obese, requiring rescue. The LCC and the OV removed the more ambulatory victim first and while the LCC was going down the ladder the OV assisted obese person down the aerial.
b. Fire #2 - There was a serious fire in the rear of the building and there were 2 victims, one of whom was hysterically screaming, requiring rescue. The LCC and the OV removed the more ambulatory victim first and then the OV and the LCC assisted the hysterical victim down the aerial.

Answer 32

A
(5.11) A serious fire in the front might cut off ladder descent in a short period of time. Both members assist the most helpless victim onto the ladder and the chauffeur assists the victim below the point of danger and then to the street. While the chauffeur is slowly descending, the OV climbs out onto the ladder and assists the more ambulatory person onto the ladder and complete descent is made. A serious fire in the rear, cutting off interior descent and no available front fire escape, presents another problem. Since the fire is not pushing out the front windows the time required to effect removal of victims is less critical. In this case, consideration can be given to the simple removal first and then concentrate on the difficult removal which will require two members.
The correct answer is: Fire #1 – There was a serious fire in the front of the building and there were 2 victims, one of whom was very obese, requiring rescue. The LCC and the OV removed the more ambulatory victim first and while the LCC was going down the ladder the OV assisted obese person down the aerial.

Question 33

Members were discussing removal operations when using an aerial ladder for rescue purposes. Each member made the following points listed below. Please select the incorrect point?
Select one:
a. Removal is not considered complete until the victim has been assisted all the way to the ground. A victim can be left on the turntable if you are needed to assist in additional rescue operations.
b. When descending at steeper angles, have the victim grasp the rungs. This will facilitate your control. Try to talk them into looking straight ahead or up and not down, as they might freeze on you.
c. Always carry small children down ladders. In any rescue effort, where the fire may endanger victims, members or the ladder, serious consideration should be given to protecting them by directing water between the fire and the ladder.
d. To descend with an ambulatory victim, place yourself one rung below the rung the victim is standing on. Descend in unison, keep the victim between you and the ladder at all times, and maintain physical contact with them.
e. If required, render first aid until relieved. Assist them to an ambulance if necessary. These actions shall not be taken if you are needed to assist in additional rescue operations.

Answer 33

A
Removal is not considered complete until the victim has been assisted all the way to the ground. Do not leave them on the turntable.
The correct answer is: Removal is not considered complete until the victim has been assisted all the way to the ground. A victim can be left on the turntable if you are needed to assist in additional rescue operations.`

Question 34

At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladder companies shall consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders in order to utilize their extinguishing capabilities. However, there are vacant building fires where the officer gives precedence to the positioning of their aerial apparatus. In which situation listed below would the Officer of an aerial ladder company give precedence to a tower ladder?
Select one:
a. The Officer has prior knowledge that part of the building is used by vagrants or squatters.
b. The reach of the 100’ aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks or assignments.
c. A building is completely vacant.
d. The Officer receives information that part of the building is used by vagrants or squatters.
e. In all of the above situations, the officer selects a position that permits achieving the intended objective while allowing for the placement and use of a tower ladder.

Answer 34

C
A building not completely vacant.
The correct answer is: A building is completely vacant.

Question 35

Listed below are the different ways that people can be removed from buildings. From the list below please put the preferential order for the removal of civilians from a fire building. 1. - Fire Escapes. 2. - Life Saving Rope. 3. - Ladders. 4. - Horizontal Exits. 5. - Interior Stairs
Select one:
a. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 
c. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
d. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

Answer 35

B
Generally, the preferential order for removal of people is via: INTERIOR STAIRS, HORIZONTAL EXITS, FIRE ESCAPES, LADDERS, LIFE SAVING ROPE.
The correct answer is: 5, 4, 1, 3, 2

Question 36

Lt. Smith is working a day tour in E99 when four of his members come into the office and tell him that they all have been injured while checking the rig just after the start of the tour. From the list below please choose the only correct answer regarding these members, their injuries, and medical leave status.
Select one:
a. The following shall not be classified as Minor Injuries: Burns, other than first degree. Chest pains. Sprains or strains, with swelling or discoloration. Any injury resulting in fainting, blackout, or loss of memory. Shortness of breath.
b. FF Baker had a foreign body in his eye and has already removed it. He is required to granted medical leave.
c. FF Smith has a very small first degree burn on his hand. He is required to be granted medical leave.
d. FF Jones has a small abrasion on his left arm and is required to be granted medical leave.
e. FF Jackson has a very small burn with a blister on his leg. He has been granted medical leave.

Answer 36

E
(SB7) A minor injury does not require the member to be granted the remainder of the tour or be granted a medical leave. Examples of some minor injuries include: Small abrasions, first degree burns, mild conjunctivitis, minor contusions, foreign body in eye, already removed, lacerations, not requiring sutures, and minor sprains and strains with no swelling or discoloration
The correct answer is: FF Jackson has a very small burn with a blister on his leg. He has been granted medical leave.

Question 37

The next day Lt. Smith was again working in E99 and during his tour his members had both biological and non-biological exposures on the four runs they had. Lt Smith would be correct to take which action listed below?
Select one:
a. FF Hernandez was exposed when a patient with a possible case of tuberculosis coughed on him at an EMS run. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and did not notify the medical officer.
b. FF Wright was exposed to a patient’s blood after operating at a car accident. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and notified the medical officer.
c. FF Gooden was exposed to a possibly hazardous substance at a gas leak and a few minutes later he started to feel nauseous. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and notified the medical officer.
d. FF Strawberry was exposed to a non-biological hazardous substance at a haz mat incident and did not have any symptoms. Lt. Smith notified the medical officer and completed a biological exposure report.

Answer 37

B
(SB7) Biological Exposures - A member exposed to blood borne, airborne, or other infectious pathogens (e.g., bodily fluids). Medical officer notification is required with or without symptoms. Non-Biological Exposures - A member exposed to a non-biological hazardous substance, or possible hazardous substance. Medical officer notification is required only for symptoms. Note: If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure, both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.
The correct answer is: FF Wright was exposed to a patient’s blood after operating at a car accident. Lt. Smith completed a biological exposure report and notified the medical officer.

Question 38

When a member sustains a burn, smoke, or heat exhaustion injury a burn/smoke/heat exhaustion injury report must be completed. FF Johnson from L99 sustained a small burn (first degree) and took in some smoke at a job earlier in the tour. In this situation who is responsible to complete this report?
Select one:
a. The Captain on duty in L99.
b. The Battalion Chief on duty in the members assigned battalion.
c. FF Johnson is required to complete the report.
d. The Deputy Chief who responded to the fire.

Answer 38

A
(SB7) When a member sustains a burn, smoke or heat exhaustion injury, the Supervisor is required to prepare a Burn/Smoke/Heat Exhaustion Injury Report.
The correct answer is: The Captain on duty in L99.

Question 39

During the first line supervisors training class at Fort Totten the instructors were teaching the new Lieutenants about the computerized injury reporting system. During the class numerous points were discussed. Which point is not correct?
Select one:
a. Supervisors may submit group reporting for identical non-biological exposure of members who do not exhibit symptoms.
b. Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 10 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report through the chain of command to the borough commander.
c. Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS immediately to ensure appropriate exposure investigation and follow-up.
d. All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
e. All injuries sustained in quarters require the officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief.

Answer 39

B
(SB7) Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances.
The correct answer is: Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 10 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report through the chain of command to the borough commander.

Question 40

When preparing either an injury or exposure report the supervisor shall print two copies of the report. After printing out these copies Lt. Bongino of E63 would be most correct to file these copies where?
Select one:
a. If the member is assigned to and was working in E63 at the time of the injury or exposure, file one copy in E63’s UFS and one copy in the member’s personnel folder.
b. If the member is assigned to E63 and was on a detail at the time of the injury or exposure forward both copies to the unit where he was injured or exposed so that unit can file the copies in their UFS.
c. If the member is assigned to E63 and was working in E63 at the time of the injury or exposure file both copies in E63’s UFS.
d. If the member is assigned to E63 and was on a detail at the time of the injury or exposure file one copy in E63’s UFS and one copy in the members personnel folder.

Answer 40

A
(SB7) The Supervisor shall print two copies of the Injury/Exposure Report. File one copy in the member’s personnel folder and file the other copy in the Uniformed Filing System in the unit where the member was working when injury/exposure occurred. Detailed or covering members shall have a copy of their Injury/Exposure Report forwarded to their assigned unit.
The correct answer is: If the member is assigned to and was working in E63 at the time of the injury or exposure, file one copy in E63’s UFS and one copy in the member’s personnel folder.

Question 41

Lt. Beck has been UFO in L39, covering Lt. Hannity’s medical leave, for the last 3 weeks and has been told that he will be there for a while since Lt. Hannity is recovering from some burns that he received at a job about a month ago. During a day tour Lt. Beck gets a call from the division’s office manager who tells him that the Chief of Operations office is looking for the multiple member injury report from the job where Lt. Hannity and his inside team got burned. In this situation Lt. Beck would be correct to take which action listed below?
Select one:
a. Lt. Beck should call Lt. Hannity at home and let him know that he has to complete the report.
b. Lt. Beck should tell the office manager that this report is not required.
c. Lt. Beck should notify the Captain, who is coming in tonight, that he has to complete the report.
d. Lt. Beck should immediately complete the report and forward it through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.

Answer 41

C
The Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a report when: Three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour. If the officer is on leave, he/she shall prepare the report as soon as possible upon return to work. If the leave extends more than 30 days, a regularly assigned officer shall complete the report. Once this report is completed, the Company Commander shall review the report and add meaningful comments and suggestions that will help provide for the future safety of his/her members. Company Commanders shall forward the report via chain of command to the Chief of Operations.
The correct answer is: Lt. Beck should notify the Captain, who is coming in tonight, that he has to complete the report.

Question 42

Members were discussing the new bulletin, AUC 361, regarding how to handle incidents where pets are killed at a fire or other emergency operation. Which point listed below is not entirely correct regarding this subject?
Select one:
a. If the pet remains are in public view and if possible, members should cover the pet remains to keep them out of public view and the media.
b. When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with the owner of the pet and nobody else.
c. ACC will attempt to make positive contact with the owner for reunification and if it is not possible at the scene, ACC is responsible to take possession of the displaced pet/pet remains, remove them to their facility, and attempt further contact with the owner.
d. If reunification with the owner is not possible, the FDNY I.C. shall contact the Animal Care Center through the respective borough dispatcher.

Answer 42

B
(AUC 361) When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with a responsible party such as the owner, neighbor, building representative, or NYPD etc.
The correct answer is: When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with the owner of the pet and nobody else.

Question 43

E38 and TL51 have just arrived at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story multiple dwelling. The fire is blowing out of two windows in the front of the building. The building has a rear fire escape and only has one apartment per floor. The CIDS for the building indicates that the rear of the building has an exterior insulation finish system. The EIFS is only in the rear and is not involved in the fire. In this situation the Officer from E38 would be most correct to give which transmission below?
Select one:
a. Transmit a 10-75 and request an extra engine and tower ladder. Give the location of the fire, height of the building, and the type of occupancy.
b. Transmit a 10-75 all hands on arrival and give the location of the fire, height of the building, and the type of occupancy.
c. Transmit a 10-75 and give the location of the fire, height of the building, and the type of occupancy.
d. Transmit a 10-75 and request an extra engine and truck. Give the location of the fire, height of the building, and the type of occupancy.

Answer 43

D
(AUC 362) Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, an additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder shall be a Tower Ladder if one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment.
The correct answer is: Transmit a 10-75 and request an extra engine and truck. Give the location of the fire, height of the building, and the type of occupancy.

Question 44

Exterior Insulation Finish System (EIFS) is an exterior wall covering system that uses layered insulation and a waterproofing finish. When first introduced, EIFS was used almost exclusively on commercial structures. Today it can be found in combustible and non-combustible occupancies including offices, taxpayers, factories, hotels, multiple dwellings, and private houses. Which point about EIFS is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The energy-efficient, insulating properties of EIFS are designed to prevent heat from escaping the building. At structural fires, these same properties can adversely affect firefighting operations by increasing the potential for flashover.
b. EIFS buildings are usually not vulnerable to adjacent outside fires such as car or rubbish fires. An interior fire venting out windows and doors exposing a combustible exterior wall assembly can extend and consume the exterior combustible assembly, however this will take time.
c. The aesthetic design of an EIFS finish-coat layer makes it look like other types of building materials are used. For example, a wood frame structure clad in EIFS can resemble a more formidable brick or masonry building.
d. The rapidity of fire spread is dependent on the thickness of the finish-coat layer, the thickness of the innermost layer (the FPI), and the integrity of the EIFS installation.

Answer 44

B
(AUC 362) EIFS buildings are especially vulnerable to adjacent outside fires (car, rubbish, etc.) and ignition sources found during the construction phase (portable heaters, salamanders, torches, welding equipment, etc.). Additionally, an interior fire venting out windows and doors exposing a combustible exterior wall assembly can extend rapidly consuming the exterior combustible assembly and extend along the entire façade. Fire in the exterior wall assembly can require significant resources to control.
The correct answer is: EIFS buildings are usually not vulnerable to adjacent outside fires such as car or rubbish fires. An interior fire venting out windows and doors exposing a combustible exterior wall assembly can extend and consume the exterior combustible assembly, however this will take time.

Question 45

Members of E99 were discussing exterior insulation finish systems and since there are many hazards associated with them the conversation turned to tactics that can be effective at fires involving these systems. Which point listed below regarding tactics is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. After a complete size-up and when conditions dictate, a hand line should be dedicated to exterior extinguishment. If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building. In all situations a 2 ½” line should be stretched due to the greater knockdown power and increased reach of the stream.
b. Additional alarms should be transmitted early to request the necessary resources to control a rapidly advancing fire. Exterior streams should be positioned to operate on the fire building and to protect exposures.
c. During BISP and other outside activities, Chief and Company Officers shall attempt to identify buildings utilizing EIFS. All EIFS buildings shall be entered into CIDS. The specific location of the EIFS should be outlined in the CIDS entry.
d. Thermal imaging cameras should be used on both the interior and exterior to determine the extent of fire spread. A more thorough examination is required during the overhaul phase to ensure that the EIFS fire does not continue to smolder undetected.

Answer 45

A
(AUC 362) The size of the hand line stretched is dependent on the size of the building and the extent of the fire. A building 3 stories or higher, or a large area building, may require the use of a 2½” hand line. A 1¾” hand line may be sufficient for a smaller private dwelling.
The correct answer is: After a complete size-up and when conditions dictate, a hand line should be dedicated to exterior extinguishment. If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building. In all situations a 2 ½” line should be stretched due to the greater knockdown power and increased reach of the stream.

Question 46

Testing conducted at the Bureau of Training has shown that a 2 ½” hand line equipped with the cockloft nozzle can be used to apply water to an exterior fire that is above the reach of ground-based streams. Fires in combustible wall assemblies can produce significant fire and may require large water flows to overcome the heat release rate of the fire. Which point about the use of the cockloft is incorrect?
Select one:
a. One tip of the cockloft nozzle should be capped with a 1 ½” shut off.
b. Additional cockloft nozzles should be deployed as necessary.
c. The nozzle should be extended approximately 6’ from the window sill and then operated at a 45 degree angle toward the building.
d. The cockloft nozzle operated upward on the exterior of the building can provide a vertical reach of up to two floors.

Answer 46

C
(AUC 362) The nozzle should be extended approximately 3 feet from the window sill and then operated at a slight angle toward the building.
The correct answer is: The nozzle should be extended approximately 6’ from the window sill and then operated at a 45 degree angle toward the building.

Question 47

During responses to routine assignments, members are constantly interacting with the public and may observe behavior or materials that indicate an attack in the planning stages. Listed below are “Indicators of Terroristic Surveillance”. Which one is not an indicator of terroristic surveillance?
Select one:
a. Multiple sightings of the same suspicious person, vehicle, or activity at different times or locations.
b. Unattended bags, backpacks, or other parcels in unusual locations.
c. Use of camera or video recorders beyond the interest of tourism.
d. Questioning of security personnel.
e. Prolonged or unusual interest in security measures.
f. A collection of maps, plans, or photographs of potential target locations.

Answer 47

B
(AUC 363) “Indicators of Terrorist Activity”.
The correct answer is: Unattended bags, backpacks, or other parcels in unusual locations.

Question 48

Agencies from around the country are now sharing information with each other. They are finding that reports of suspicious activity are coming from a variety of sources in different communities across the nation. If any indicator of terrorist activity is an imminent threat or poses immediate harm, instant action is required by FDNY members. Lt. Smith is working a day tour in E100 and comes upon a situation during BI which he thinks can pose an immediate threat. Lt. Smith took the following actions below and was incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. Lt. Smith notified the NYPD and The Bureau of Fire Investigation forthwith.
b. Lt. Smith’s first action was to ensure the safety of his members.
c. Since the NYPD and the BFI responded to the scene Lt. Smith did not complete the suspicious activity report.
d. Lt. Smith requested assistance as needed and made an immediate notification to the Battalion Chief on duty.

Answer 48

C
(AUC 363) In these cases, when NYPD and BFI are o scene, a Suspicious Activity Report is secondary but should be completed when possible.
The correct answer is: Since the NYPD and the BFI responded to the scene Lt. Smith did not complete the suspicious activity report.

Question 49

Illegal and clandestine labs can be found in residential and commercial occupancies throughout the City. These labs may be for the production of drugs, chemical experiments, biological experiments or explosives. Which two points made during a class at the rock about these labs are not entirely correct?
Select one or more:
a. Depending on the product being made, many of these labs look very different from each other. FDNY members are sufficiently experienced to differentiate drug, chemical, biological, or explosive labs.
b. The explosives made in a homemade bomb lab are extremely unstable and can easily detonate. For example, the residue from an explosive lab that falls onto a carpet may detonate when stepped on.
c. When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, do not touch anything, retrace their steps, and back out of the area. Members shall make an attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving.
d. Labs may be part of an organized illegal drug production and distribution scheme, a terrorist plot, or a curious youth experimenting with internet recipes.

Answer 49

C
(AUC 363) Regardless of the product being made, many of these labs look similar; FDNY members are not sufficiently experienced to differentiate drug, chemical, biological or explosive labs., Members shall not attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving.
The correct answers are: Depending on the product being made, many of these labs look very different from each other. FDNY members are sufficiently experienced to differentiate drug, chemical, biological, or explosive labs., When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, do not touch anything, retrace their steps, and back out of the area. Members shall make an attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving.C

Question 50

Capt. Pence is working a 9x6 tour in E97 and is out on BI when one of his members tells him about possible terrorist activity in the bodega that they are in the process of inspecting. Capt. Pence enters the store and notices that there are unusual and out-of-place chemicals, surveillance equipment, and sees that there is a living quarters in the rear of the store. Capt. Pence should take all of the actions listed below except which one?
Select one:
a. Initially Capt. Pence was unsure of conditions encountered, so he requested a Battalion Chief to respond.
b. Capt. Pence used his cell phone to notify the borough dispatcher since this type of information should never be transmitted over the Department radio under any circumstances due to its sensitivity.
c. Since the members suspected the owner of the bodega is engaging in terrorist activity; they did not confront that individual and they notified the NYPD in addition to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
d. Capt. Pence sent the original SAR form through intra-departmental mail to the Bureau of Fire Investigation and the he made a phone notification to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.

Answer 50

B
(AUC 363) Information regarding your suspicions should not be transmitted over the Department radio unless there is an immediate threat to member safety.
The correct answer is: Capt. Pence used his cell phone to notify the borough dispatcher since this type of information should never be transmitted over the Department radio under any circumstances due to its sensitivity.

Question 51

Since information dealing with terroristic activity is very sensitive there are some guidelines members should follow in order to safeguard this information. Which guideline listed below is not correct?
Select one:
a. Members must NOT use any social media to share any experiences pertaining to the observed suspicious activity.
b. Information discovered by members may be law enforcement sensitive and members are advised to limit the distribution of such information.
c. Companies should keep a copy of the SAR Form at quarters in a secure location in the company office.
d. Companies must make journal entries of the incident, but give no particulars in order to preserve the integrity of any subsequent investigation.

Answer 51

C
(AUC 363) Companies will not keep the original or copies of the SAR Form at quarters.
The correct answer is: Companies should keep a copy of the SAR Form at quarters in a secure location in the company office.

Question 52

The function of the Fire Department at elevator operations is limited to the safe removal of persons trapped in the elevator car or hoistway. Repairs to and reactivation of elevators are not carried out by members of this department. Listed below are four “situations” that were recently encountered by L99. Which one is considered an “incident”?
Select one:
a. One person was stuck inside of an elevator and was starting to panic as the firefighters were working on the hoistway door.
b. Seven people were trapped inside of an elevator and it was reported that one of the passengers had a small abrasion on her arm.
c. Three people were trapped in a stuck elevator in between the 15th and the 16th floor of a HRFPMD. None of the passengers were in any danger and none were injured.
d. Five people were stuck inside of an elevator ON THE 2nd floor. There was a medium sized rubbish fire at the elevator base of the elevator shaft.

Answer 52

C
Fire Department elevator operations are divided into two categories; INCIDENTS and EMERGENCIES. INCIDENT: A stuck elevator with trapped passengers not in immediate danger and no evidence of injury. Conditions must be constantly monitored; an INCIDENT may escalate to an EMERGENCY. EMERGENCY: A situation where one or more of the following exist: A. Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator., B. Passenger of stuck elevator injured., C. Passenger of stuck elevator in panic.
The correct answer is: Three people were trapped in a stuck elevator in between the 15th and the 16th floor of a HRFPMD. None of the passengers were in any danger and none were injured.

Question 53

Members of Ladder 99 respond to a lot of elevator incidents since their response area has many high rise buildings. The senior man was giving the two probys working some tips to handle the different situations that may be encountered. In which piece of advice was the senior man mistaken?
Select one:
a. The first type of primary removal procedures checks whether simple electrical contacts might have been broken. However, if the passengers have activated the Emergency Stop Button, these methods will not work.
b. The second type of primary removal procedure is activating fireman service if available. Fireman service will override the Emergency Stop Button.
c. Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. The first type of primary removal procedure is the electrical contact check. This procedure should always be tried first.
d. Summon an elevator mechanic if primary removal procedures fail. Telephone numbers of a mechanic are required to be posted in the machinery room near the elevator power switch. Secondary removal procedures may be initiated prior to the arrival of the mechanic.

Answer 53

C
Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. There are two types of primary removal procedures. The order in which they are tried is not important. Try all if necessary.
The correct answer is: Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. The first type of primary removal procedure is the electrical contact check. This procedure should always be tried first.

Question 54

Once members move beyond the primary removal procedures there are several precautions that they should be aware of. Of the four precautions listed below, which one is not correct?
Select one:
a. If conditions indicate that the elevator is unstable, additional precautions must be taken to prevent the movement of the car in either direction. Consider securing the car to structural members of the building using utility ropes, chains or shoring.
b. The elevator shall never be jacked up or moved in an upward direction. This action may free the car safeties causing the car to move either upward or downward depending on the live load in the car.
c. Members shall not normally be permitted to enter the shaft below the elevator car. During a rescue necessitating members entering the shaft below the car, the power switch must be turned off.
d. When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be removed to the lower landing in all situations. This type of removal makes it easier for the members and the passenger. The shaft opening must be protected.

Answer 54

D
When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be taken up and out of the car if practical. This eliminates the possibility of a passenger falling down the shaft after exiting the elevator. If they are removed to the lower landing, the shaft opening must be protected.
The correct answer is: When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be removed to the lower landing in all situations. This type of removal makes it easier for the members and the passenger. The shaft opening must be protected.

Question 55

Recently during a day tour members of L100 responded to a stuck elevator in a NYC Housing Project. After the passenger was successfully removed the proby was asking Lt. Beck about a “two speed elevator system” that he was reading about in the elevator bulletin. The proby then made the following four points about a “two speed system”. The only correct point made by the proby can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. Elevators that have a two speed system are commonly found in buildings over 20 stories.
b. If the emergency stop button has been activated have passengers attempt deactivate it. If they can’t deactivate it, the power removal will override the emergency stop button.
c. If the car is to restart it will do so within 20 seconds. Communications must be maintained when attempting this procedure. Passengers and members must be prepared for the sudden movement of the car or car door.
d. Have members in the elevator machinery room shut power to the stuck car and turn it on again. This is the only circumstance in which the elevator power may be restored by members of this department.

Answer 55

D
A two speed system is commonly found in buildings over 10 stories., If Emergency Stop Button has been activated have passengers deactivate it. Power removal alone will not override it., If the car is to restart it will do so within 10 seconds.
The correct answer is: Have members in the elevator machinery room shut power to the stuck car and turn it on again. This is the only circumstance in which the elevator power may be restored by members of this department.

Question 56

Lt. Beck continued the discussion about elevators and stated that there are actually two times when members can restore power to an elevator car. Lt. Beck said: 1.-When there is a two speed system the power to the stuck car is shut off and then turned back on and if the car will restart it will do so within 10 seconds. If the elevator car does not restart the power should again be shut off. 2. - When attempting a side exit removal, members should bring the rescue car even with stuck elevator then remove power to rescue car. After passengers are removed and enter the rescue car restore power to the rescue car. The power in the stuck elevator car was previously removed. Do you __________ with Lt. Beck’s statements above?
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

Answer 56

B

The correct answer is: Agree

Question 57

If a stuck elevator car is in a multi car hoistway “POLING” can be used to remove the passengers. This procedure can be done very quickly and efficiently with a little bit of practice and experience. Which point about this procedure is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. Adjacent car should be positioned to give access to upper portion of the hoistway door to be opened.
b. The member on the landing near hoistway door of the stuck car opens hoistway door when the lock is disengaged.
c. Have members work from an adjacent car which is nearest the leading edge side of hoistway door of the stuck car.
d. Member in the adjacent car inserts pole or hook between the striking post and the hoistway door and trips the lock by either pushing up the roller on a hinge type door or depressing the locking arm on a sliding type door.

Answer 57

D
Member in the adjacent car inserts pole or hook between the striking post and the hoistway door and trips the lock by either depressing the roller or pushing on the locking arm. 1. Hinge type door - Depress the roller. 2. Sliding type door - push up on locking arm.
The correct answer is: Member in the adjacent car inserts pole or hook between the striking post and the hoistway door and trips the lock by either pushing up the roller on a hinge type door or depressing the locking arm on a sliding type door.

Question 58

Forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors should only be attempted under the direct advisement of an elevator mechanic or as a last resort during EMERGENCY REMOVAL PROCEDURES. The deformation of the doors and locks may add to the problem and delay the rescue. Listed below are the four types of emergency removal procedures along with a brief description. Please indicate which one is the preferred tactic on a sliding elevator door.
Select one:
a. On a sliding elevator door knock out glass panel if present. If not, breach hoistway shaft above hoistway door. Then push down roller, located near side opposite hinges on shaft wall and open hoistway door.
b. On a sliding door use the maxi force air bag system to force open the door. Place bag between the leading edge of the door and jamb as high as possible to apply a more direct force on the linkage and the locking mechanism. Inflate air bag until hoistway door opens.
c. Using forcible entry tools, go to landing directly above door to be opened and lift hoistway door out of its guide. Tilt bottom of the hoistway door slightly into the shaft, just enough to allow the passing of a hook into the shaft.
d. Using the rabbit tool insert the jaws between the jamb and the leading edge of the hoistway door, as high as possible. Then operate tool to open door taking care not to cause the door to come off its track.

Answer 58

B
The Maxi Force Air Bag System is the preferred forcible entry method. It is less likely than the others to push the door off its hangers or out of its track.
The correct answer is: On a sliding door use the maxi force air bag system to force open the door. Place bag between the leading edge of the door and jamb as high as possible to apply a more direct force on the linkage and the locking mechanism. Inflate air bag until hoistway door opens.

Question 59

All Fire Department personnel should be familiar with the operating procedure and limitations of the fireman service feature found on elevators. Which point about fireman service is not correct?
Select one:
a. The switch configuration can have three positions normal, fire service, and door open or two positions normal and fire service with a door open button. The door open button is only operable when key switch is in the fireman service position.
b. The lobby keyed switch is located at the street floor or terminal floor for each bank of elevators. The terminal floor is the lowest landing above the street floor of any elevator that does not serve the street lobby floor.
c. When the lobby keyed switch is in the normal position the key is able to be removed from the switch. The key is not removable in the fireman service and the door open position.
d. The lobby keyed switch is required to be within 4 feet of the lobby call button and is operated by use of the Fire Department 1620 key or by city wide standard elevator 2642 key.

Answer 59

C
The Normal and Fire Service position in the keyed switch permit the removal of the key. The key is not removable in the door open position.
The correct answer is: When the lobby keyed switch is in the normal position the key is able to be removed from the switch. The key is not removable in the fireman service and the door open position.

Question 60

Inside each elevator car equipped with the fireman service feature there will be an elevator car keyed switch. This switch is identified by red lettering that says: “FOR FIRE DEPARTMENT USE ONLY”. The switch has two positions Normal and Fire Service. Which point made about the elevator car keyed switch is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. To operate the car, the elevator car keyed switch must be placed in the fireman service position while the car is at the landing where the lobby keyed switch is located.
b. Elevators approved for installation after March 1991 are required to be equipped with a three position switch that will have a normal, fireman service, and a hold position.
c. The hold position permits the firefighter to remove the 1620 key from the switch and allows the firefighter to leave the car without the danger of an individual, without a key, moving the car to another location.
d. Once the elevator car keyed switch is in the fireman service position it can still be overridden by the lobby keyed switch. The 1620 key is removable from the elevator car keyed switch when it is in the fire service position.

Answer 60

D
Once the car switch is in the Fire Service position it cannot be overridden by the lobby keyed switch. The 1620 key is not removable from the elevator car keyed switch when it is in the Fire Service position.
The correct answer is: Once the elevator car keyed switch is in the fireman service position it can still be overridden by the lobby keyed switch. The 1620 key is removable from the elevator car keyed switch when it is in the fire service position.

Question 61

Instructors at proby school were teaching elevator operations during a fire and noted that there are several general procedures that must be adhered to. The proby school instructors teaching the class made numerous points and were mistaken in which two points?
Select one or more:
a. When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 7th floor or below units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.
b. Not more than six members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading and forcible entry tools must be carried aboard each elevator car.
c. If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing toward you and apartment doors will swing away from you.
d. Elevators should be stopped every five floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made.
e. Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within four floors of the fire floor.
f. Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoist way shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft.
g. When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or one floor below the upper level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.

Answer 61

E, G
Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within five floors of the fire floor., When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.
The correct answers are: Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within four floors of the fire floor., When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or one floor below the upper level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.

Question 62

During Phase 1 recall there are different ways that the elevators can be recalled. Recall of the elevators can be done manually or automatically. Listed below are four types of elevator recall, which one is not a way that an elevator can be recalled?
Select one:
a. Manual recall which is done by the use of the 1620 key at the keyed switches located in the elevator lobby at the street floor or terminal floor.
b. Automatic recall done by the activation of smoke detectors in the HVAC system.
c. Automatic recall done by water flow from the sprinkler system.
d. Automatic recall done by the activation of elevator landing smoke detectors.

Answer 62

B
Manual Recall: By the use of the 1620 key at the keyed switches located in the elevator lobby at the street floor or terminal floor. Note: For elevators whose terminals are above the street floor (sky lobby), a two position keyed switch will be at the fire command station. The switch will allow the elevators to be brought down non-stop to their lowest floor landing. A three position keyed switch will also be at their terminal floor landing. Automatic Recall: 1. Activation of elevator landing smoke detector. 2. Water flow from a sprinkler system.
The correct answer is: Automatic recall done by the activation of smoke detectors in the HVAC system.

Question 63

If Phase I, the recall phase, has not been initiated upon arrival it shall be initiated and all cars accounted for and examined as they arrive at the street lobby floor. If Phase I has been initiated before arrival and all elevator doors are closed there are procedures to follow to open and check the elevator cars. Listed below are the two procedures that the bulletin describes. Of the two listed below which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. If Phase I was initiated manually the fireman service lobby keyed switch will be found in the fireman service position. Place the fireman service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the “Door Open” position. Then return it to the “Normal” position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open.
b. If Phase I was initiated automatically (by lobby smoke detectors or sprinkler water flow), place the lobby keyed switch in the “Door Open” position. The doors of the fireman service cars will then open. In some older installations the doors of the non-fireman service cars will not open and must be opened by use of the emergency hoist way door key.

Answer 63

A
If Phase I was initiated manually the Fire Service lobby keyed switch will be found in the Fire Service position. Place the Fire Service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the “Normal” (OFF) position. Then return it to the Fire Service position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open. MOOADO - Manual – Off (Normal) – On (Fireman Service). Automatic – Door Open
The correct answer is: If Phase I was initiated manually the fireman service lobby keyed switch will be found in the fireman service position. Place the fireman service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the “Door Open” position. Then return it to the “Normal” position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open.

Question 64

When members recall the elevators, Phase 1, there are a few things that will happen that members should be aware of. Which item listed below is not correct?
Select one:
a. An elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its lowest landing floor will reverse direction at the next landing without opening its doors and return non-stop to the street lobby or terminal floor.
b. Door reopening devices for power operated doors, which may be affected by smoke, heat or flame so as to prevent door closure, shall be rendered inoperative except for those mechanically activated by a safety edge.
c. The “Emergency Stop” buttons will still be operative and must be deactivated for the car to move.
d. By placing the keyed switch in the fireman service position, all elevators in that bank will be returned to the street lobby or terminal floor.
e. Doors opened at any floor will immediately close and the elevator shall return non-stop to the street or terminal floor.

Answer 64

C
The “Emergency Stop” buttons will be rendered inoperative.
The correct answer is: The “Emergency Stop” buttons will still be operative and must be deactivated for the car to move.

Question 65

Inside of the elevator car there is the floor selector panel which houses the elevator controls and has numerous different buttons that members will use during fire operations. Listed below are the different buttons with a brief description of each. Please select the incorrect description?
Select one:
a. The “Emergency Stop Button” will quickly stop the elevator car. The Emergency Stop Button is rendered inoperative during the Phase I operation and should be operational during Phase II operations.
b. The “Call Cancel Button” allows the operator to change floor selection or direction of travel prior to reaching the original selected floor. It is recommended that the Call Cancel Button be pressed whenever a member enters a car on fireman service to clear the floor selection panel of any previous floor selection that may have been made.
c. The “Door Close Button” must be held until the doors are closed. Once the doors are fully opened the elevator car doors close only in response to the “Door Close Button”
d. The “Door Open Button” opens the elevator doors when it is pressed and must be held until the doors are fully opened. If the Door Open Button is released before the doors are fully opened, the doors return to the closed position.

Answer 65

C
It is a momentary touch type button. Once fully opened the elevator car doors close only in response to the Door Close Button.
The correct answer is: The “Door Close Button” must be held until the doors are closed. Once the doors are fully opened the elevator car doors close only in response to the “Door Close Button”

Question 66

Members have just entered an elevator car and are preparing to use the car to access the 39th floor of a 63 story building. The officer notices that there are two selector panels inside of the elevator car. The fireman service keyed switch is located above the selector panel on the right side of the elevator car. Both floor selector panels have the same layout and buttons. In this situation the officer should have his OVM use which panel?
Select one:
a. Use the one on the right side. 
b. Either one.
c. Do not use this elevator car.
d. Use the one on the left side.

Answer 66

A
In some elevator cars there may be two floor selection panels. The one to use for fireman service is the one nearest to or the one with the fireman service keyed switch.
The correct answer is: Use the one on the right side.