FT CO 12

Question 1

A newly promoted Engine Captain reviewing the appropriate use of hose was incorrect in which statement made?
Select one:
a. The use of 1 3/4-inch hose would be inappropriate for a large body of fire in a large uncompartmented area or when a large volume of water is required to cool a superheated fire area.
b. The maximum pressure in hose lines should be limited to 250 psi. Only emergency needs which allow for no other corrective action permit the use of higher pump pressures. Pressures in excess of 250 psi can only be ordered by the IC.
c. The 1 3/4-inch handline is the primary attack line used at structural fires, and when used in conjunction with the 15/16-inch MST and controlling nozzle, provides an adequate fire stream with better maneuverability and easier handling than the 2 1/2-inch handline. At a nozzle pressure of 50 psi, the 1 3/4-inch handline will flow approximately 180 gpm.
d. Each Engine Company should maintain a minimum of (30) thirty lengths of 1 3/4 inch, (20) twenty lengths of 2 1/2 inch and (10) ten lengths of 3 1/2-inch hose. This includes hose for winter operations, standpipe operations and replacement lengths stored in quarters as well as that which is carried in the apparatus hose beds.

Answer 1

D

(Eng7 7.2.5, 7.5.1, 7.6.1, 7.6.3)
The corrected answer is: Each Engine Company should maintain a minimum of (20) thirty lengths of 1 3/4 inch, (30) twenty lengths of 2 1/2 inch and (10) ten lengths of 3 1/2-inch hose. This includes hose for winter operations, standpipe operations and replacement lengths stored in quarters as well as that which is carried in the apparatus hose beds.

Question 2

Apparatus shall not be driven over hose lines unless absolutely necessary. When it is necessary to drive over hose lines, all of the following precautions should be taken except?
Select one:
a. 5-inch hose should not be driven over unless properly bridged.
b. To prevent the hose fvrom bursting, speed should be reduced to a minimum.
c. Running over couplings should be avoided.
d. Traverse over the line before charging it, if possible. Hose is more susceptible to damage when it is charged than when it is uncharged.

Answer 2

D
(Eng 7 7.8.6)
The correct answer is: Traverse over the line before charging it, if possible. Hose is more susceptible to damage when it is charged than when it is uncharged.

Question 3

Proper maintenance of Fire Department hose is essential to ensuring it functions properly when required. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?
Select one:
a. To free hose from ice, chop the ice away carefully so as not to cut the hose jacket, or use the thawing apparatus.
b. The age of hose is determined by the first two numbers of the serial number stamped on the coupling. Any hose that will reach 20 years in the current calendar year is to be taken out of service with the company officer immediately notifying the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit.
c. To free frozen couplings, use the thawing apparatus or heat from the exhaust pipe of the apparatus.
d. Hose on the apparatus is removed and cleaned in the Spring and Fall of each year.

Answer 3

B
(Eng 7 7.10.1, 7.10.2, 7.11.1)
The correct answer is: The age of hose is determined by the first two numbers of the serial number stamped on the coupling. Any hose that will reach 20 years in the current calendar year is to be taken out of service with the company officer immediately notifying the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit.

Question 4

All units must maintain the proper equipment in the event it is needed at a fire operation. Which choice below is correct regarding hose issued to fire companies?
Select one:
a. Engine Companies shall carry not less than four lengths of 2 1/2-inch hose rolled or folded.
b. Do not place a length of hose in service which is of doubtful strength because of cuts, chafed areas or other noticeable defects. If the serviceability of a length of hose is in doubt, immediately place it out of service.
c. Engine Companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4-inch hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation including (i.e. hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.). Additionally, each Engine Company shall ensure that an extra length of 1 3/4-inch hose with nozzle, rolled or folded, is stored on the apparatus.
d. No more than ten lengths of 1 3/4-inch hose shall be used as lead lengths in any hose stretch.

Answer 4

C
(Eng 7 7.11.2, 7.12.3, 7.13.1)
The correct answer is: Engine Companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4-inch hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation including (i.e. hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.). Additionally, each Engine Company shall ensure that an extra length of 1 3/4-inch hose with nozzle, rolled or folded, is stored on the apparatus.

Question 5

In order to conduct the annual hose test properly, units should follow the instructions in each of the choices below except?
Select one:
a. Stretch a maximum of two lengths of hose from the one-way gate to the hose test gauge. Hose must be stretched from an outlet on the same side of the apparatus as the control panel and only 1 3/4 inch or 2 1/2-inch hose shall be used to supply the manifold during hose testing operations.
b. Attach hose to the outlets of the manifold. Up to 6 lengths of hose (300 feet) may be stretched from each of the 2 1/2-inch gated outlets. All connections are to be spanner tight.
c. A water-soluble marker is used to draw a line around the circumference of the hose as close as possible to the male butt at each coupling. A movement of 1/8 inch or more during the pressure test would indicate the male butt and hose are separating.
d. Place one firefighter on the left side of the manifold, facing the hose at a distance of 15 feet from the hose, to visually inspect the hose during the test phase.

Answer 5

A
(Eng 7 7.14 C)
The correct answer is: Stretch a maximum of two lengths of hose from the one-way gate to the hose test gauge. Hose must be stretched from an outlet on the same side of the apparatus as the control panel and only 1 3/4 inch or 2 1/2-inch hose shall be used to supply the manifold during hose testing operations.

Question 6

Chauffeurs must be aware that during the 5-minute hose test, there is no movement of water in the pumps. They must check for overheating by placing a hand on the 4 1/2-inch inlet on the control panel side of the apparatus. Of the following choices, which would indicate an incorrect action?
Select one:
a. If any of the recommended corrective options do not correct the heat buildup, continue the test and monitor the condition of the apparatus. The Fleet Maintenance Division should be notified if this problem cannot be corrected.
b. When heat is noted, the booster tank fill valve should be partially opened with water showing at the fill pipe in the booster tank. Fully open the tank to pump valve.
c. When heat is noted, another option is to fully open the bypass cooling valve during the test.
d. When heat is noted, another choice is to open a drain valve on an unused gate and partially open that gate.

Answer 6

A
(Eng 7 7.14 D)
The correct answer is: If any of the recommended corrective options do not correct the heat buildup, continue the test and monitor the condition of the apparatus. The Fleet Maintenance Division should be notified if this problem cannot be corrected.

Question 7

The proper stretching and operation of hoselines is essential to any successful fire operation. Which of the following choices indicates the most correct statements regarding hoselines?

1. In most cases, the first line is stretched via the interior stairs to the location of the fire to protect the primary means of egress for occupants evacuating the building and to confine and extinguish the fire.
2. An exception to stretching the first line up the interior stairs may be made when flame or smoke is issuing from windows opening onto the fire escape and endangering people trying to come down the fire escape. In this case, the first line may be operated from the street to protect the people on the fire escape and a second line promptly stretched into the interior of the building.
3. If it is determined there is no life hazard in the building, the first line is positioned between the fire and the most severe exposure. In the absence of a life hazard, the first line should be placed to protect the greatest amount of property.
4. When placing a hoseline to protect an exterior exposure, it should be positioned so that the stream can be used alternately between operating on the exposure and the fire. When using streams to protect exposed buildings, the water should be applied onto the building’s surface for best results.
5. The Engine Company officer shall announce via the handie-talkie when the initial hoseline attack is to commence.
6. Unless otherwise ordered, the second line is placed to back up the first line. If the second line is not needed on the fire floor, it can be advanced to the floor above. The second line stretched must consist of sufficient hose to cover the floor above.
7. Difficulty might be encountered in conducting a direct attack through an apartment doorway due to a heavy volume of fire, wind conditions or forcible entry problems. A possible tactic to overcome these problems is to utilize the fire escape to conduct a fire attack into the apartment; before this is initiated, however, members in the apartment must exit to a safe area of refuge and the apartment door must be closed.
8. When there is difficulty in conducting a direct attack through an apartment doorway, another tactic is to enter an adjoining apartment and operate the hoseline through small holes in the common partition wall. Several small holes strategically located along the length of the common wall at approximately shoulder level might allow stream penetration into a majority of the rooms in the fire apartment.

Select one:

a. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
b. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 8
c. 1, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8
d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

Answer 7

D
(Eng 8 8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.4 A)
The correct answer is: 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

Question 8

Two Lieutenants discussing Engine operations were able to identify which incorrect comment made by the probationary firefighter during drill?
Select one:
a. Unless the presence of a confirmed life hazard requires the immediate stretching of a second line, the second Engine shall augment and assist the first Engine.
b. The location of the Ladder apparatus turntable dictates how far from the front of the building the Engine backstep should initially be on arrival, before back stretching.
c. In one to four story structures, the need to assist on the first hoseline is not as great and Engine companies are generally capable of stretching and operating individually. In such cases, the officer of the second Engine Company should make contact with the officer of the first Engine Company to ascertain if their assistance is required.
d. Use the apparatus for as much of the stretching as possible. Hose stretched at fires should be laid as close to the side of the street as possible and on the same side as the hydrant or pumper; if it is necessary for hoselines to cross the street, the lines should cross in front of the fire building.

Answer 8

C
(Eng 8 8.4, 8.7, 8.11, 8.12.1)
The correct answer is: In one to four story structures, the need to assist on the first hoseline is not as great and Engine companies are generally capable of stretching and operating individually. In such cases, the officer of the second Engine Company should make contact with the officer of the first Engine Company to ascertain if their assistance is required.

Question 9

Proper stretching and advancement of hoselines is paramount to a successful operation. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When a second hoseline is stretched up a well-hole, the nozzle firefighter should carry only the nozzle and change hands at each newel post (turn) as the line is stretched up the well-hole.
b. Never enter the fire area with an uncharged hoseline, however, the hoseline should be stretched as close to the fire area as possible before being charged. All members should operate on the same side of the line and when the door to the fire area is opened, members should be low and to one side of the opening.
c. The Engine officer should communicate to members stretching the presence of a well-hole as soon as possible. The officer should look up the well to see if it goes up the entire stairway since in certain stair configurations, a well exists between the 1st and 2nd floor, but the rest of the stairway does not have sufficient space to accept a charged hoseline.
d. For both a narrow and wide well-hole, the nozzle firefighter carries the nozzle and lead length in the well.

Answer 9

D
(Eng 8 8.13.3, 8.13.4, 8.14.2, 8.14.3, 8.14.4)
The correct answer is: For both a narrow and wide well-hole, the nozzle firefighter carries the nozzle and lead length in the well.

Question 10

Alternate methods of stretching hoselines may prove beneficial at an operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When hoisting a line via stair shaft windows using the utility rope, the officer proceeds to the floor below the fire with the rope, selects the window to be used, and communicates this information to the control firefighter. Remove the child guard if present, raise the lower sash and ensure that it stays open.
b. At the lower floor window, lower the top sash, grab the rope and tie it to the nozzle. Hinged windows which open outward can prove difficult and similar windows on intermediate floors may have to be closed to prevent the line from getting hung up.
c. For a fire escape stretch, the line must be secured with hose straps on alternate floors, beginning with the floor below the fire.
d. When considering hoisting a line via stair shaft windows using the utility rope, if fire is below the fourth floor, the line is stretched up the stairs.

Answer 10

D
(Eng 8 8.15.3, 8.17.1, 8.17.3 8.18.2, 8.18.3, 8.18.5, 8.18.6)
The correct answer is: When considering hoisting a line via stair shaft windows using the utility rope, if fire is below the fourth floor, the line is stretched up the stairs.

Question 11

During drill at a busy Manhattan Ladder Company, a number of comments were made regarding Engine operations. Of the following choices, which reflects an incorrect comment?
Select one:
a. Whenever possible, standpipe systems should be supplied through at least two independent siamese connections. If there is only a single siamese connection, a second supply line can be attached to the first-floor outlet; additional floor outlets can be supplied if required.
b. If a “reducer” is encountered, it must be removed to permit attachment of FDNY hose to the standpipe outlet. If a “pressure reducing/restricting device” (PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it should be removed; if it cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, then it is permissible to use an outlet with a PRD.
c. The stretching of occupant hose at a fire is never justifiable and shall never be attempted by any Engine, Squad, Ladder or Rescue.
d. Standpipe systems should always be supplied with 3 ½” hose, and whenever possible, should be supplied by at least two different pumpers.

Answer 11

C
(Eng 9 9.2.2, 9.3.3-9.3.6)
The correct answer is: The stretching of occupant hose at a fire is never justifiable and shall never be attempted by any Engine, Squad, Ladder or Rescue.

Question 12

Supplying standpipe and sprinkler systems is an important task that requires careful planning and coordination. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?
Select one:
a. It is recommended Engine companies use the 10’ soft connection for hydrant hookup and only use in line pumping when supplying manual dry systems.
b. As a general rule, there should be a separate Engine company supplying the standpipe system for each hoseline placed in service. All pumpers should be supplying the standpipe at the same pressure for maximum efficiency.
c. When supplying a manual dry standpipe system with water, the Engine’s pump is more likely to “run away” from water. Initially, the standpipe should be supplied at idle and as the piping is filled with water, pressure can be increased to proper levels.
d. If a building is equipped with both a standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first supply line must be attached to the standpipe siamese. The ECC supplying the system must verify that it is attached to the correct siamese connection.

Answer 12

A
(Eng 9 9.3.7-9.3.9)
The correct answer is: It is recommended Engine companies use the 10’ soft connection for hydrant hookup and only use in line pumping when supplying manual dry systems.

Question 13

All members should be aware of Department standard operating procedures for supplying standpipe systems in high rise buildings. Which choice below contains correct information?
Select one:
a. Separate “Low Zone” and “High Zone” siamese connections are not interconnected, so supplying the High Zone riser will not charge the Low Zone riser and vice versa.
b. The recommended pressure for supplying the 55th floor of a building is 350 psi.
c. Buildings constructed under the 2008 building code having a standpipe riser over 800 feet in height shall have separate “Low Zone” and “High Zone” siamese connections.
d. When “Low Zone” and “High Zone” siamese connections are present, they shall be identified with signage stating either “Low Zone “or “High Zone” and indicate the floors they serve. The Low Zone riser is also known as “Express Piping”.

Answer 13

A
(Eng 9 9.3.12, 9.3.13)
The correct answer is: Separate “Low Zone” and “High Zone” siamese connections are not interconnected, so supplying the High Zone riser will not charge the Low Zone riser and vice versa.

Question 14

Operating a hoseline at the correct pressure is essential to the safety of members. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
Select one:
a. At below grade operations, head pressures will increase 5 psi for every 10 feet below grade. The pressure at the standpipe outlet may have to be reduced accordingly.
b. At standpipe operations with a 2 ½” lead length and a 1 ⅛” MST, as a general rule, with water flowing, outlet pressure should be 70 psi for three lengths and 80 psi for four lengths.
c. Ensure the hoseline is charged and bled by opening the nozzle fully and checking for an adequate firefighting stream before entering the fire area.
d. The first arriving control firefighter shall remain at the standpipe outlet until relieved by the control firefighter of the second arriving Engine. Communicate with the first arriving Engine officer to ensure that adequate pressure is supplied to the nozzle.

Answer 14

D
Eng 9 9.4.6, 9.4.8, 9.4.9)
The correct answer is: The first arriving control firefighter shall remain at the standpipe outlet until relieved by the control firefighter of the second arriving Engine. Communicate with the first arriving Engine officer to ensure that adequate pressure is supplied to the nozzle.

Question 15

High Pressure Pumping operations may be required at some building fires. Which choice below contains the most correct statements regarding this type of operation?

1. When first due to a fire in a high-rise building, officers of high pressure Engines and 3rd Stage Engines shall direct their ECCs to position the apparatus at a hydrant in proximity to the standpipe siamese connection.
2. High-pressure pumping is defined as operating at discharge pressures over 250 psi. The Incident Commander (IC) shall be notified when high-pressure pumping is necessary.
3. Conventional Engines are not equipped for high pressure pumping and shall never operate in pressures exceeding 250 psi.
4. The standpipe system should be supplied by two Engines; this will require more than one high-pressure or 3rd Stage Engine to be assigned or special called to the incident if pressures higher than 250 psi are required.
5. When only one building siamese connection is available, stretch the second supply line to the same siamese or first floor outlet; whichever is more expedient.
6. Pressures exceeding 600 psi will require a 3rd stage Engine. ECCs intending to pump using the 3rd stage must notify and get approval from the IC; only an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.
7. As compared to 2-stage engines, 3-stage Engines (with the 3rd stage engaged) can pump higher volumes at pressures over 500 psi and will do so at lower pump rpms. This increased efficiency makes the 3rd Stage Engines the preferred choice for pumping operations requiring discharge pressures over 500 psi.

Select one:

a. 2, 4, 6, 7
b. 2, 3, 4, 6
c. 2, 5, 6, 7
d. 1, 4, 6, 7

Answer 15

A
(Eng 9 Add 1 1.3, 1.4, 3.2-4.2)
The correct answer is: 2, 4, 6, 7

Question 16

An air pressurized manual dry standpipe system is required at buildings under construction upon reaching a height greater than 75 feet or buildings undergoing demolition with an existing standpipe. Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding this system?
Select one:
a. It is not necessary to deactivate the air compressor as it will shut off when the standpipe is supplied with water.
b. When air pressure drops below 25 psi due to an open valve or broken pipe in the system, or pressure rises above a preset, supervisory level, an audible alarm will sound only at the site.
c. An occupied building with a wet standpipe system will have a check valve installed inside the exterior building wall providing freeze protection for the piping and siamese connection. During the construction or demolition phase with the standpipe pressurized with air, this check valve will be bypassed allowing air pressure to reach the siamese connection.
d. Once air pressure is expelled, siamese cap(s) may safely be removed. Connect the supply line, close the manual air release valve, and supply the standpipe with water.

Answer 16

B
(Eng 9 Add 2 1.1, 1.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.9)
The correct answer is: When air pressure drops below 25 psi due to an open valve or broken pipe in the system, or pressure rises above a preset, supervisory level, an audible alarm will sound only at the site.

Question 17

To use an air pressurized standpipe system at a fire operation, the air pressure must be released from the system prior to uncapping the siamese and supplying it with water. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The control firefighter, after reaching the floor outlet where the hoseline connection will be made, should remove the cap, open the standpipe outlet control valve, and wait for water to reach this point. This will expedite air removal from the system; once water is present at the outlet, close it, and make connections.
b. The ECC shall not remove the siamese cap(s) until air pressure has been expelled from the system. Air will be heard escaping from the open manual air release.
c. The number of air release valves is required to be such that air pressure shall be released in no more than 5 minutes. When encountering systems with more than one manual air release valve, only a single manual air release valve should be opened.
d. A 2 ½” manual air release / drain valve (usually a standard standpipe outlet) is required to be installed immediately adjacent to the siamese connection. Remove the manual air release valve cap and open the valve fully.

Answer 17

C
(Eng 9 Add 2 2.1, 2.2, 2.8)
The correct answer is: The number of air release valves is required to be such that air pressure shall be released in no more than 5 minutes. When encountering systems with more than one manual air release valve, only a single manual air release valve should be opened.

Question 18

All ECCs should be familiar with air pressurized manual dry standpipe systems. An experienced Bronx ECC was correct in all statements made at a recent drill except?
Select one:
a. The manual air release valve does not need to be opened when augmenting the standpipe with a second pumper. However, if water begins spraying out under pressure when loosening the siamese cap(s) at the second siamese, consider the clapper valves defective. Immediately stop cap removal, and use another option for augmenting the system (e.g. drain valve next to the siamese, another siamese, or the first floor or another floor outlet.)
b. Breakaway type siamese caps are required in order to provide the air tight seal necessary for an air pressurized standpipe system. Breakaway caps on the siamese are usually indicative of a standpipe that is pressurized with air.
c. The location of the siamese is required to be marked by a sign and lit by a red light at night. Signs are also required indicating that the standpipe is pressurized with air as well as the location of the manual air release valve.
d. If air is noticed escaping under pressure from a siamese cap while being loosened and no sign is present, stop cap removal immediately and notify the IC that the standpipe is pressurized with air. Steps shall be taken to bleed the air from a manual air release valve and/or standpipe outlet inside the building prior to removing the siamese cap(s).

Answer 18

B
(Eng 9 Add 2 2.5-2.7, 2.10)
The correct answer is: Breakaway type siamese caps are required in order to provide the air tight seal necessary for an air pressurized standpipe system. Breakaway caps on the siamese are indicative of a standpipe that is NOT pressurized with air.

Question 19

Many different types of sprinkler systems may be found throughout the city of New York. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?
Select one:
a. Wet pipe sprinkler systems contain water in the riser and piping at all times; as soon as a sprinkler head activates, water is immediately discharged through the open head. Dry pipe sprinkler systems contain air (or sometimes nitrogen) in the riser and piping at all times; when a sprinkler head activates, the air (or nitrogen) is exhausted through the open head, allowing the differential dry pipe valve to open and water to be admitted to the riser and piping.
b. A pre-action type of sprinkler system consists of fusible sprinkler heads, dry piping, and a valve which is opened upon an electrical signal from a smoke, heat, or infrared (flame) detector. Pre-action systems are most often found in computer rooms or where other sensitive electronic equipment is used.
c. Deluge type sprinkler systems are equipped with a “deluge” valve which opens upon an electrical signal received from a smoke, heat, or infrared (flame) detector. In a deluge system, all sprinkler heads (or nozzles) are open and will flow water simultaneously.
d. A combination sprinkler system or combination sprinkler-standpipe consists of sprinkler heads and standpipe hose outlets attached to a common riser. Combination systems will always be “wet” systems.

Answer 19

D
(Eng 10 10.2)
The correct answer is: A combination sprinkler system or combination sprinkler-standpipe consists of sprinkler heads and standpipe hose outlets attached to a common riser. Combination systems will always be “wet” systems.

Question 20

Which of the following contains incorrect information regarding sprinkler systems?
Select one:
a. The Outside Stem & Yoke (sometimes called OS&Y) and Post Indicator Valve are the most commonly encountered sprinkler control valves.
b. Pump discharge pressure supplying sprinkler systems will have to be adjusted accordingly based on reports of sprinkler system performance received from Ladder company personnel, if more than two lengths of 3 1/2-inch hose are needed to reach the siamese connection and for fires on upper floors.
c. Pump discharge pressure for supplying a sprinkler system should start at 150 psi.
d. The Engine company officer should order the sprinkler system augmented/supplied upon indication of a working fire; this includes smoke, heat, visible fire, water flow alarms and reports from employees, security guards or Ladder company personnel.

Answer 20

D
(Eng 10 10.3.9, 10.3.10, 10.4.4)
The correct answer is: The Engine company officer should order the sprinkler system augmented/supplied upon indication of a working fire; this includes smoke, heat, visible fire, water flow alarms and reports from employees, security guards or Ladder company personnel.

Question 21

Which choice below is not in accordance with Department procedures regarding the use of large caliber streams (LCS)?
Select one:
a. The Akron ladder pipe nozzle is supplied by 3 1/2-inch hose. Only a single supply source is permitted to prevent undue stress on the aerial ladder in the event a sudden loss of water occurs.
b. When LCS use is ordered, all operating forces within the building must be notified and time permitted for their safe withdrawal to unexposed positions. As an additional safety measure, the LCS should be quickly swept through the building without stopping at any window or other opening to serve as a warning to any members left in the area of operation.
c. A large caliber stream (AKA “master stream”) is any fire stream with a flow of 300 gpm or more. The use of a large caliber stream can only be ordered by the Incident Commander; this includes the first arriving Engine using its “Deck Pipe” for a quick fire knock down or exposure protection.
d. The Akron tower ladder basket-based monitor requires 200 to 250 psi at the inlet of the tower ladder apparatus for effective operation.

Answer 21

A
(Eng 11 11.1, 11.2.1-11.2.3)
The corrected answer is: The Akron ladder pipe nozzle is supplied by 3 1/2-inch hose. TWO single supply sourceS ARE RECOMMENDED to prevent undue stress on the aerial ladder in the event a sudden loss of water occurs.

Question 22

One of the most dangerous situations Fire Department members can encounter is a “burst length.” Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding required operations when a burst length occurs?
Select one:
a. Replacing a burst length shall only be accomplished upon the Engine Officer’s orders, after the fire has been confined by closing a door and/or members have moved to a safe area of refuge.
b. Once a water loss due to a burst length is confirmed by any member, an “Urgent” message shall be transmitted. It is essential that the Incident Commander, members operating on the fire floor and floors above be notified. The Engine Officer must take immediate action to correct this problem.
c. Once the location of the burst length is verified, and after the water has been shut down, if enough hose is available, remove the burst length and reattach the existing couplings. When there is not enough existing hose available in the stretch, replace the burst length with a new length of hose.
d. An indication of a burst length is when the Engine Officer reports there is little or no water and the ECC sees a low pressure reading with a steady flow showing on the outlet flowmeter.

Answer 22

D
(Eng 12 3.2, 3.3, 3.5)
The correct answer is: An indication of a burst length is when the Engine Officer reports there is little or no water and the ECC sees a low pressure reading with a steady flow showing on the outlet flowmeter.

Question 23

At a fire on the top floor of an H-type, your unit, Engine 100, stretches 9 lengths of hose up an isolated stairway with no well hole to the fire floor. During the fire attack, it is discovered that members have short-stretched. To mitigate this issue, you would be correct to ensure your members take each of the following actions except?
Select one:
a. Sufficient hose may be found by raising the already charged hose line over the newel post onto the railing.
b. Water shut down will be required. The ECC, when ordered, will shut down and drain the line at the pumper.
c. The ECC will re-supply water to the hand line upon the Engine Officer‘s orders.
d. Members will add an additional length of 1 3/4” hose to the front of the stretch and notify the Engine Officer when the connections are complete.

Answer 23

D
(Eng 12 4.1-4.5)
The correct answer is: Members will add an additional length of 1 3/4” hose to the front of the stretch and notify the Engine Officer when the connections are complete.

Question 24

In order to properly communicate at fires in places of worship, members should be familiar with common terms and architectural features. Which of the following terms is listed incorrectly?
Select one:
a. A “Clearstory Window” is a high section of wall that contains windows below eye level, with the purpose of admitting light, fresh air, or both. Clearstory windows are often located on the exposure 1 and 3 sides.
b. The “Nave” is main body of the church which provides the central approach to the altar.
c. A “Choir Loft” is a narrow-recessed balcony or loft area on an interior, upper floor of a place of worship. It is usually above the main entrance and accessed by a narrow stair, and it is common to find a pipe organ located here.
d. “Cruciform Architecture” is a type of architecture where the structure is shaped like a cross. The “Transept” is a transverse section which lies across the main body of the building.

Answer 24

A
(PW Glossary)
The correct answer is: A “Clearstory Window” is a high section of wall that contains windows below eye level, with the purpose of admitting light, fresh air, or both. Clearstory windows are often located on the exposure 1 and 3 sides.

Question 25

Collapse is always a major concern at a fire in a place of worship. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?
Select one:
a. Older style architecture is susceptible to early collapse due to the large, high timber truss roof. Along with the roof, the minaret, bell tower and steeple are also exceptionally prone to collapse.
b. When evaluating the collapse potential of a place of worship and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 1 and 3 sides (due to the bearing walls) are the most dangerous areas during a fire.
c. Newer style architecture is susceptible to early collapse due to lightweight truss construction. In addition, a minaret, bell tower, steeple or other features may be encountered.
d. Places of worship can be of older or newer architecture. Both older and newer architecture places of worship are susceptible to early collapse.

Answer 25

B
(PW 1.3.8, 1.3.9, 1.3.10, 4.6)
The correct answer is: When evaluating the collapse potential of a place of worship and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 1 and 3 sides (due to the bearing walls) are the most dangerous areas during a fire.

Question 26

Places of Worship have many architectural features that may be a hindrance or danger to operating members. Each of the following choices contains correct information except?
Select one:
a. Firefighters must gain access to the attic space to check for fire extension; this is especially important during salvage and overhaul, when the fire may appear to be extinguished, but can be burning in this concealed area. Access may be a narrow, spiral staircase and finding a stairway that leads to the attic space may take time.
b. Some places of worship have a ventilation opening for the concealed attic space which provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the concealed attic or cockloft. This ventilation opening is typically located on the front or rear of the long side of a place of worship.
c. Some Temples and Mosques may have a dome at the top of a tower. A dome atop a tower is more unstable than a steeple atop a bell tower.
d. The height of the bell tower increases the collapse potential. Bell tower access can be via narrow stairs that will be difficult for firefighters.

Answer 26

C
(PW 2.1.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4.2)
The correct answer is: Some Temples and Mosques may have a dome at the top of a tower. A dome atop a tower is more unstable than a steeple atop a bell tower.

Question 27

All members operating at a fire in a place of worship should act accordingly and in compliance with Department procedures. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The first arriving officer should locate and size-up the fire and determine if the fire can be extinguished by a handline. When it is determined that the fire cannot be controlled with handlines, the initial strategy must be an exterior fire attack.
b. High, vaulted ceilings in places of worship can be 60 or more feet in height and heat and smoke conditions at ground level will not provide an accurate indication of fire conditions above. Thermal imaging cameras should, when possible, be used and this height requires a 1 3/4” hoseline to access the narrow stairs that will allow members to reach the ceiling and apply water.
c. On the exterior of many places of worship, the location of the roof supporting members of the side wall can easily be determined by locating the buttress projection from the side wall. On some places of worship an architectural feature that serves a similar purpose is known as a flying buttress, which creates an arch located several feet from the structure.
d. Cellar areas of places of worship often include large meeting halls, day care facilities, classrooms, kitchens and offices. The ceilings of these areas often support heavy religious statues and may have terrazzo or other stone type flooring increasing the potential for floor collapse when fire enters the basement ceiling, weakening the 1st floor support.

Answer 27

B
(PW 3.4 - 3.7, 5.1.2)
The correct answer is: High, vaulted ceilings in places of worship can be 60 or more feet in height and heat and smoke conditions at ground level will not provide an accurate indication of fire conditions above. Thermal imaging cameras should, when possible, be used and this height requires a 1 3/4” hoseline to access the narrow stairs that will allow members to reach the ceiling and apply water.

Question 28

Two senior members of a busy Queens truck company were discussing fires in places of worship when one made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect comment.
Select one:
a. When the fire is in a large, open area of a place of worship, or the reach of the stream is required to reach higher elevations, the initial lines will generally be 2-1/2“. For a cellar fire where operations will be in close quarters, mobility of operations are a prime consideration, therefore the interior hoselines stretched should generally be 1 ¾”.
b. Tower Ladders should be placed near the front of the structure, in a “corner safe area” outside of the collapse danger zone. Subsequent arriving Tower Ladders should be positioned to reach additional sides of the structure.
c. Venting the side windows and Rose window will provide adequate ventilation at structure fires. Generally, it is best to vent the window farthest from the fire, in conjunction with hoseline advancement and fire extinguishment.
d. When fire is found to involve the truss space, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.

Answer 28

C
(PW 5.2.4, 5.2.5, 6.1.2, 6.1.3, 7.1.3, 7.2.1)
The correct answer is: Venting the side windows and Rose window will provide adequate ventilation at structure fires. Generally, it is best to vent the window farthest from the fire, in conjunction with hoseline advancement and fire extinguishment.

Question 29

Fires in places of worship present significant challenges to operating members. Which of the following is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The 1st arriving Ladder Company should attempt an examination of the cellar for fire. The 2nd arriving Ladder Company should ensure that the cellar is examined for fire.
b. At a cellar fire, the first hoseline shall always be stretched through the main entrance door to protect the place of worship from fire extending up through the cellar.
c. Fires in places of worship may originate in the cellar where the source of fire origin may be from gas/oil fired boilers, electrical service panel boxes or kitchen stoves used in day care facilities.
d. At a cellar fire, the second hose line is initially positioned and charged outside the fire building as a back-up for the first hoseline. When not needed to back-up the first hoseline, it can be used to extinguish any fire that may extend to the floor above or be positioned as per the IC.

Answer 29

B
(PW 6.2.1, 6.2.2, 6.2.3, 7.3.1, 7.3.2)
The correct answer is: At a cellar fire, the first hoseline shall always be stretched through the main entrance door to protect the place of worship from fire extending up through the cellar.

Question 30

Proper placement of hoselines is essential at first floor and choir loft fires in places of worship. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?
Select one:
a. In most cases when fire does spread into the attic or bell tower, it cannot be extinguished by the use of handlines due to the limited access to the space and lack of ventilation. Firefighters will have to be withdrawn and an exterior operation employed.
b. After size-up, the first hoseline should be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire.
c. The second hoselines is initially positioned and charged outside the fire building as a back-up for the first hoseline. When not needed to back-up the first hoseline, it can be used to extinguish any fire discovered in the cellar.
d. The use of a third line would be directed by the IC and should be anticipated when there is an advanced fire. Whenever two hoselines are stretched and operating and the fire does not show immediate signs of extinguishment, the immediate stretching and operation of a third hoseline is essential.

Answer 30

D
(PW 6.3.1, 6.3.2, 6.3.3, 6.4.1)
The correct answer is: The use of a third line would be directed by the IC and should be anticipated when there is an advanced fire. Whenever two hoselines are stretched and operating and the fire does not show immediate signs of extinguishment, the immediate stretching and operation of a third hoseline is essential.

Question 31

At fires in places of worship, taking into consideration the many variables, including but not limited to, the location of fire and fire extension within the fire building, exposure protection concerns, and collapse potential, tower ladders shall be positioned as indicated in each of the choices below except?
Select one:
a. The primary position of the 1st arriving tower ladder shall always be in front of the fire building, directly below the Rose window.
b. When the apparatus is a rear mount aerial ladder, place it away from the immediate fire building in order to leave the area accessible for a tower ladder.
c. Additional tower ladders should be positioned so that the fire can be cut off and driven back to the point of origin.
d. When the building faces on two streets and the front of the building is covered by tower ladder(s); then place the additional tower ladder(s) to cover the other street front.

Answer 31

A
(PW 7.4.2)
The correct answer is: The primary position of the 1st arriving tower ladder shall always be in front of the fire building, directly below the Rose window.

Question 32

Fires in places of worship require specific resources depending on conditions encountered. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
Select one:
a. When the IC cannot get a clear situation report from units on the scene, the IC may have to change tactics to an exterior operation.
b. Consideration shall be given to special calling additional Tower Ladders to adequately cover accessible sides of the structure.
c. Consider transmitting an additional alarm when the use of two handlines are anticipated or are in operation on the interior of a place of worship.
d. Consider transmitting an additional alarm for any fire condition in the cellar, when fire is venting from the Rose window or fire is discovered in multiple voids.

Answer 32

D
(PW 8.6, 8.7, 8.8, 8.9)
The correct answer is: Consider transmitting an additional alarm for any fire condition in the cellar, when fire is venting from the Rose window or fire is discovered in multiple voids.

Question 33

DC Green stopped by quarters to conduct a drill on places of worship fires. In which choice below did a member make an incorrect statement?
Select one:
a. At major fires, consideration must be given to the flying brand hazard. The force of updrafts will send large pieces of burning material quite some distance and this will probably start minor fires in the surrounding area. Patrols must be initiated to manage this situation.
b. When fire is not visible within the large area but suspected to be within the concealed area of the attic or cockloft, water application into the ventilation opening is the priority.
c. Places of Worship often contain historical and/or faith-based artifacts and many of these items hold significant symbolic meaning. Consideration shall be given, when consistent with safety, to preserve these items either by removal or by protecting them in place.
d. When fire is located within the large open area of the nave, the first priority is rapid advancement of two 2 1/2” hose lines through the main building entrance.

Answer 33

D
(PW 8.11, 8.12, 8.13, 8.16.4 Note)
The correct answer is: When fire is located within the large open area of the nave, the first priority is rapid advancement of two 2 1/2” hose lines through the main building entrance.

Question 34

Officers and firefighters are required to know their responsibilities as professional members of the Department. Which choice is not in accordance with Department directives?
Select one:
a. If an individual takes action due to the presence of a known life hazard, the Incident Commander must be immediately notified and appropriate adjustments made.
b. A known life hazard is defined as a member having information from any source or the dispatcher indicating the location of the life hazard.
c. If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for a known life hazard, not for standard search and rescue activity.
d. A known life hazard is defined as a victim that can be seen or heard by the rescuer.

Answer 34

B
(Lads 3 1.1)
The correct answer is: A known life hazard is defined as a member having information from any source or the dispatcher indicating the location of the life hazard.

Question 35

Which choice below contains a proper description of an Old Law Tenement?
Select one:
a. Will always have a single, interior stairs to the cellar.
b. Some form of light/air shaft may be present, and these shafts are open at the top.
c. 20’ to 25’ deep.
d. Four to five stories high.

Answer 35

B
(Lads 3 1.2)
The correct answer is: Some form of light/air shaft may be present, and these shafts are open at the top.

Question 36

Successful operations are dependent on a proper size-up. Which size-up consideration below is listed incorrectly?
Select one:
a. “Construction” determines the severity of the life hazard and intensity of the fire.
b. “Time” governs the life hazard. A tenement fire is more serious at night than in the daytime.
c. “Life” is the most serious factor at any fire. The life hazard to firefighters must also be considered.
d. “Street Conditions” affect apparatus access and the placement of Aerial/Tower Ladders to the fire building.

Answer 36

A
(Lads 3 1.4.1)
The correctED answer is: “OCCUPANCY” determines the severity of the life hazard and intensity of the fire.

Question 37

Newly promoted officers should be familiar with each of the following except which incorrect choice?
Select one:
a. The 1st Ladder inside team will penetrate to the seat of the fire and try to contain it by shutting a door or using a portable extinguisher. A thorough primary search must be started at this point.
b. When two Ladder Companies arrive at approximately the same time but out of response sequence, they shall be guided by their alarm box assignment. The second due unit shall make no extraordinary effort to arrive at the location before the first due unit.
c. Members are under “Functional Supervision” of an Officer when they are within visual or voice contact of the Officer or are working with a search line or hose line which is under the supervision of an Officer.
d. Company Officers must maintain communication with members not operating under their immediate supervision to determine their status. The interval between contacts should be frequent enough to provide for the safety of the firefighter being monitored without monopolizing the frequency.

Answer 37

C
(Lads 3 2.24, 3.2.1 7, 11, 3.2.2)
The correct answer is: Members are under “Functional Supervision” of an Officer when they are within visual or voice contact of the Officer or are working with a search line or hose line which is under the supervision of an Officer.

Question 38

The first arriving chauffeur has many duties to perform at a fire in an Old Law Tenement. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department standard operating procedures?
Select one:
a. The position of the first arriving chauffeur is in front of the fire building. The chauffeur of an aerial ladder shall not operate in a manner that will in any way impede their return to the pedestal and cause a delay in positioning or repositioning the aerial for rescue or removal operations.
b. A rear first floor fire will not normally require immediate removal of occupants from the 3rd, 4th, or higher floors in the front of the building. Conversely, a fire on the upper floors rarely requires removal operations on lower floors.
c. The chauffeur and OV’s duties are complementary when the fire apartment and fire escape are located in the front of the building.
d. The Ladder chauffeur should immediately enter the fire building to render assistance when members have entered the building by aerial ladder and are in precarious positions such as a floor over a heavy fire, the roof of a building with a heavy fire condition, etc.

Answer 38

D
(Lads 3 3.2.4, 5, 7, 8)
The correct answer is: The Ladder chauffeur should immediately enter the fire building to render assistance when members have entered the building by aerial ladder and are in precarious positions such as a floor over a heavy fire, the roof of a building with a heavy fire condition, etc.

Question 39

For a fire in an Old Law Tenement, proper tactics for the 1st arriving Outside Vent (OV) Firefighter are indicated in all choices below except?
Select one:
a. Except for assisting the chauffeur in front of the fire building when aerial or portable ladders are needed for rescue or removal, the assignment is to ventilate the fire area from the exterior providing horizontal ventilation. At a store fire, ventilate the rear of the store from the exterior.
b. The Outside Vent Firefighter will carry a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, and 6’ Hook. For top floor fires, the saw is taken in place of the hook.
c. When there is a front fire escape or the fire apartment is in the front, the OV and Chauffeur (or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire apartment from that fire escape.
d. At a top floor fire, proceed to the roof and if possible, descend the fire escape and provide coordinated ventilation with interior operations. If unable to descend the fire escape, notify the Ladder Company Officer, attempt coordinated ventilation of the fire apartment from roof level, and then assist the Roof Firefighter with roof vent.

Answer 39

C
(Lads 3 3.2.5 4)
The correct answer is: When there is a front fire escape or the fire apartment is in the front, the OV and Chauffeur (or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire apartment from that fire escape.

Question 40

The first arriving Roof Firefighter has many responsibilities at an Old Law Tenement fire. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The first arriving Roof Firefighter’s assigned tools include a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 6‘Halligan Hook and Life Saving Rope.
b. The Roof Firefighter’s priority access to the roof is the adjoining building, aerial ladder and rear fire escape.
c. If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.
d. If the first arriving Ladder Company is a Tower Ladder, when necessary, the officer may request the Roof Firefighter to perform outside ventilation of the fire apartment from the fire escape after completion of preliminary roof ventilation (bulkhead, scuttle, and skylight). If VEIS is to be performed, he/she shall be teamed up with the second Roof Firefighter or another available member.

Answer 40

C
(Lads 3 3.2.6, 3.3.5)
The correct answer is: If difficulty is encountered opening the bulkhead door, vent the bulkhead skylight first. Pause after breaking the first pane, then warn units operating below by HT prior to breaking the remaining glass.

Question 41

One of the Roof Firefighter’s primary duties is vertical ventilation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this critical duty?
Select one:
a. If the bulkhead door cannot be closed and controlled for any reason (e.g. victim removal, damaged door), immediately notify the Ladder Officer.
b. Initial vertical ventilation is the venting of bulkheads, scuttles or skylights over stairwells and hallways. When skylights are vented, members must recognize that this action is non-reversible.
c. The Roof Firefighter shall not perform initial vertical ventilation unless permission is first granted by the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area.
d. If the Ladder Officer does not want initial vertical ventilation performed; the Roof Firefighter will not perform vertical ventilation. However, he/she will force open the bulkhead door, and if conditions are tenable, reach in and probe the immediate area of the bulkhead for potential victims and then immediately close and control the door until the Ladder Officer orders vertical ventilation.

Answer 41

C
(Lads 3 3.2.6)
The correct answer is: The Roof Firefighter shall not perform initial vertical ventilation unless permission is first granted by the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area.

Question 42

The second arriving Ladder Company has an important role at an Old Law Tenement fire. Of the following choices, which is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. When operating on the floors above the fire, members should force one or more doors on each floor to provide an area of refuge.
b. Prior to proceeding above the fire, the second arriving officer must ensure that the officers on the fire floor are made aware of this team’s intention, so that members operating above can be warned of any situation necessitating withdrawal.
c. At a top floor/cockloft fire, depending on the severity of the fire condition, if difficulty is experienced when venting windows from the roof level, it may be necessary to cut a ventilation hole in the roof before completion of horizontal ventilation.
d. The second arriving Roof Firefighter is responsible for bringing a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan and 6’ Hook. For top floor fires the saw and the Halligan are taken.

Answer 42

D
(Lads 3 3.4.2, 3.4.7, 3.5.2 Notes)
The correct answer is: The second arriving Roof Firefighter is responsible for bringing a Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan and 6’ Hook. For top floor fires the saw and the Halligan are taken.

Question 43

Light and air shaft fires can pose many challenges to operating members. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
Select one:
a. In addition to their duties in the fire apartment, the Ladder Company officer and forcible entry team must facilitate the Engine Company’s advance.
b. During the initial stages of a shaft fire, the window frames, curtains, drapes, etc., in both buildings feed the fire in the shaft. However, in most cases the draft created in the shaft will delay lateral extension in the apartments in the exposed building allowing time for occupants to use one of their means of egress or for members to find and remove them.
c. The Engine Company, after knocking down fire in a room exposing the shaft, must continue through the apartment for additional knock down before directing the nozzle stream into the shaft for final extinguishment.
d. The draft created by a shaft fire reduces the horizontal extension during the initial stages, frequently permitting a close approach to the shaft on most floors. While awaiting hoselines, members may, by the proper application of water with pots, pans, etc., either extinguish fire around shaft windows or delay the lateral extension.

Answer 43

C
(Lads 3 4.2, 4.2.1, 4.2.2)
The correct answer is: The Engine Company, after knocking down fire in a room exposing the shaft, must continue through the apartment for additional knock down before directing the nozzle stream into the shaft for final extinguishment.

Question 44

Old Law Tenements have many design features that members should be familiar with. Which description below is not entirely correct?
Select one:
a. Use a removed bulkhead door in conjunction with the Halligan to gain access to the roof of a bulkhead. Drive the hook of the Halligan into the roof, then position the door against the bulkhead at an angle of 65 to 75 degrees with the roof.
b. To remove metal gates often found on fire escape windows, use either the fork or adz end of the Halligan to pull the gate loose at the side opposite the locking device. If severely exposed to heat or smoke at this side of the gate, removal may be accomplished at the lock side.
c. Use both a hook and Halligan to assist climbing onto a high bulkhead when alone. The Halligan is placed with the fork end down and the adz end up. Using the 6’ hook to support most of your weight, step on the adz end of the Halligan and pull yourself up.
d. The fronts of buildings are aligned, building depths may vary, and opened end shafts are generally located toward the rear.

Answer 44

A
(Lads 3 5.2.2, 5.3.2, 5.3.3 A, B)
The correct answer is: Use a removed bulkhead door in conjunction with the Halligan to gain access to the roof of a bulkhead. Drive the hook of the Halligan into the roof, then position the door against the bulkhead at an angle of 65 to 75 degrees with the roof.

Question 45

Size up is a key element to successful operations at non-fireproof Tenements. In addition, proper tactics are necessary for effective extinguishment of stubborn fires. Which choice below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. A rapidly rising column of smoke with particles or embers ascending to higher levels visible over the roof top of the building is frequently an indication that the fire is in an open shaft. Large quantities of black smoke observed over the roof may be an indication of fire at or near the top of the building, namely, top floor fire, cockloft fire, stair bulkhead fire or a fire on the roof.
b. When pushing down the ceiling from the roof, reverse the hook because BX wires may snag the hook end.
c. Smoke seen issuing from the cornice upon arrival indicates fire has extended into the cockloft. This requires the immediate opening of the cornice for investigation and extinguishment.
d. When the building has four (4) windows per floor and no front fire escape, it indicates two (2) railroad flats (Old Law Tenement) with a rear fire escape. However, this does not necessarily apply to a corner building.

Answer 45

C
(Lads 3 5.3.3 E, 5.4.1 A, 5.4.3 A, B, C)
The correctED answer is: Smoke seen issuing from the cornice upon arrival DOES NOT ALWAYS indicate fire has extended into the cockloft.

Question 46

Safety is of prime importance at fires in non-fireproof Tenements. Which choice is correct and in accordance with Department policy?
Select one:
a. In Old Law Tenements, the infrequently used procedure of going from front to rear apartments or vice versa through the common partition may be used as an escape route. To accomplish this, use the halligan, hook or axe; this is the order of preference, but all can do the job.
b. After opening the door to the fire apartment, the inside team may find conditions too severe to enter before the Engine Company has their line charged and are prepared to advance. In this instance immediately close the door, being careful that the door does not lock. When the Engine Company has water, immediately crawl in behind the Engine Company to search and ventilate all rooms.
c. Where rood cutting is required, initially, approximately an 8‘X 8‘coffin cut is recommended. The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in one operation.
d. The member on the exterior waiting to perform horizontal ventilation for extinguishment of the immediate fire area shall listen for a notification from the Engine Company Officer to the Engine Chauffeur to start water or to the Incident Commander that they are applying water on the fire. These transmissions are an indication to immediately conduct ventilation for extinguishment.

Answer 46

A
(Lads 3 5.5.7, 5.7.2, 5.9.4, 5.9.5, 6.1, 6.1.1)
The correct answer is: In Old Law Tenements, the infrequently used procedure of going from front to rear apartments or vice versa through the common partition may be used as an escape route. To accomplish this, use the halligan, hook or axe; this is the order of preference, but all can do the job.

Question 47

Which choice below contains the most correct statements regarding overhaul at Old Law Tenement fires?

1. When performing overhaul operations in an IDLH environment, all members must use their SCBA, and wear their Department issued PPE including bunker pants, bunker boots, helmet, protective hood and gloves. The bunker coat may be dispensed with when consistent with safety.
2. The ceiling should be opened first by starting at a point where the fire was most intense and working towards a clean area of ceiling space.
3. Flooring is seldom cut at tenement fires as it is easier and faster to pull the ceiling below for examination. If a hole must be made, the cuts that are parallel to the joist should be made close to the opposite joists of the bays adjoining the one we wish to expose; this will ensure that the entire bay and joists are exposed as well as the two adjoining bays.
4. Cutting the floor with a saw is most efficient but the area must be vented to prevent buildup of carbon monoxide.
5. When cutting the floor with an axe, cut at a 60-degree angle and on a bias.
6. Loops of cable such as electric (BX), telephone and coaxial television shall be secured near the ceiling. Hanging ends of cable shall be pushed up out of the way.
7. Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, regardless of charring, as they support a considerable amount of brickwork.
8. Wooden structural members deeply charred, scorched or on which the paint has been blistered shall never be removed from the building.
9. The removal of involved materials to narrow shafts, enclosed shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be permitted.

Select one:

a. 1, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9
b. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9
c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9
d. 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9

Answer 47

B
(Lads 3 7. 7.2.2, 7.4.2, 8.10, 9.3, 9.8, 9.9)
The correct answer is: 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9

Question 48

Throughout the city, members may encounter buildings under construction which utilize wood forms to support poured concrete. Of the following choices, which would be considered incorrect regarding Fire Department operations in these buildings?
Select one:
a. It is required that every floor stripped of its supporting plywood forms, and in its curing stage, be re-shored. This reshoring of one 4” x 4” stud placed every eight feet will usually be found on at least eight floors below the most recently poured floor.
b. A heavy fire load is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs previously stripped from a cured floor. This lumber is usually found stored on the floor below the most recently poured floor and structural failure will usually not occur here; the problem is a potential fast-moving fire.
c. Construction progresses by pouring one concrete floor every other day. On the day after a floor is poured, it has set-up sufficiently to have its forms and supporting studs (shoring) removed; the floor is then re-shored.
d. The method of forming the poured concrete floors consists of 5/8” or 3/4” plywood held in place by 4”x 4” wood studs. One shoring stud is placed every four feet on center, extending from the floor to the underside of the plywood form above.

Answer 48

B
(SB 66)
The correct answer is: A heavy fire load is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs previously stripped from a cured floor. This lumber is usually found stored on the floor below the most recently poured floor and structural failure will usually not occur here; the problem is a potential fast-moving fire.

Question 49

The presence of window bars can hamper Fire Department operations at a fire. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy regarding window bars?
Select one:
a. An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called and the special called Ladder Company shall be a Tower Ladder, if one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company.
b. The unit transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in a building with window bars should include a brief description of the type of building involved and state the presence of window bars.
c. If possible, room at the front of the fire building should be made available to position the Tower Ladder. The Tower Ladder basket, placed to an upper floor front or side window, presents the best platform to work from.
d. The special called Ladder Company can be directed to operate as a unit and remove window bars; ensure at least one window on the fire floor and the floor below is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window and the location of windows cleared communicated to all units.

Answer 49

D
(SB 84 4.1, 4.2, 4.6-4.8)
The correct answer is: The special called Ladder Company can be directed to operate as a unit and remove window bars; ensure at least one window on the fire floor and the floor below is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window and the location of windows cleared communicated to all units.

Question 50

At a Fire Department operation, when it is determined that a fire and/or smoke condition (smoke grenades) is present, in which active shooting is occurring or possible firearms could be used against firefighters, members shall adhere to all of the following except?
Select one:
a. Alert on-scene and incoming units of an active shooter; consider using the emergency alert tone with a “mayday” message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency. When alerting units over the Department Radio, the member transmitting shall request a “Mixer off”.
b. Remain behind hard cover and out of the line-of-sight. Cover is any material that can reasonably be expected to stop a bullet from small arms; concealment simply conceals an individual from view.
c. If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a prone position on the ground.
d. Collaborate with NYPD on possible Warm/Cold Zone exposure protection and emergency medical needs.

Answer 50

A
(SB 89 3.1)
The correct answer is: Alert on-scene and incoming units of an active shooter; consider using the emergency alert tone with a “mayday” message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency. When alerting units over the Department Radio, the member transmitting shall request a “Mixer off”.

Question 51

The Incident Commander (rank of Lieutenant or above) can utilize the Department’s “Pass It On Program” to identify an incident where lessons learned or reinforced may be beneficial to all. Which choice below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The IC shall make an immediate telephone notification to their administrative Division through the chain of command and forward a copy of the “Pass It On” to their administrative Division through the chain of command.
b. When a new “Pass It On” is transmitted to the field, units will receive 2 copies; 1 should be placed on the 11”x17” poster at a location where company drills are generally held in quarters, and not removed until replaced by a subsequent issue, and 1 shall be filed in a binder in the company office until expiration.
c. The “Pass It On” may be handwritten or typed and should contain all of the essential facts. Identification of units or individuals would be appropriate in positive situations and inappropriate in others (injuries, accidents, etc.).
d. The information should be faxed to Safety by the IC or his or her designee within 48 hours of the operation. Safety will review and format the final version for prompt transmittal to the field.

Answer 51

D
(SB 90 2, 2.1, 3)
The correctED answer is: The information should be faxed to BUREAU OF OPERATIONS by the IC or his or her designee within 24 hours of the operation. BUREAU OF OPERATIONS will review and format the final version for prompt transmittal to the field.

Question 52

The severity of the clutter shall be communicated when it is impacting fire operations. Which transmission below is correct and in accordance with Department policy?
Select one:
a. “There is a light clutter condition slowing down the hoselines advancement.”
b. “We have a collyer’s mansion here in apartment 4D.”
c. “We have a normal clutter condition in the rear bedroom of the fire apartment.”
d. “There is massive clutter at the front door interfering with the primary search.”

Answer 52

A
(SB 92 2.3, 3.1)
The correct answer is: “There is a light clutter condition slowing down the hoselines advancement.”

Question 53

Two newly promoted Lieutenants discussing how the Department defines collisions, as well as appropriate actions to take following both incidents and collisions, were able to identify which incorrect statement made during their conversation?
Select one:
a. When an individual alleges that the Department is responsible for a collision or incident, the individual should be informed that he/she may file a notice of claim by calling the Comptroller’s Office or visiting their website. In this situation, a company journal entry is required as well as a CD-19 for an “Incident,” if a CD-19 has not been forwarded already.
b. A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus is a “Collision” for both the striking apparatus, and for the apparatus that was struck.
c. At a multiple alarm fire, damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked Tower Ladder, which lowered its outriggers onto the hood of the civilian vehicle, is considered an “Incident.”
d. Upon being involved in an apparatus collision/incident, FDNY Officers and members must realize that their primary initial obligation is to prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.

Answer 53

B
(SB 56 3.3 Note, 4.4, 5.2.1)
The correct answer is: A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus is a “Collision” for both the striking apparatus, and for the apparatus that was struck.

Question 54

At “Major Collisions,” all efforts should be maintained to see that involved vehicles are not moved. To ensure proper Department procedures are adhered to, all choices below should be followed except?
Select one:
a. If it becomes imperative to move apparatus or other vehicles, the location of tires (if double wheeled, then the outside tire only) of all involved vehicles shall be marked with “T” shaped marks indicating the outside edge of each tire, and the center-line of the axle of each wheel. In addition, the location of the four corners of the vehicle shall be marked.
b. The fact that one lane of traffic is blocked, or that motorists are temporarily inconvenienced due to traffic conditions, does not warrant moving the involved vehicles. In addition, collisions occurring on city streets rarely justify moving the involved vehicles at the scene.
c. If a collision occurs during periods of light or moderately fast-moving traffic, the potential for another collision being caused is reduced and moving vehicles will not be necessary.
d. The prevention of additional collisions and/or injuries at a collision scene should be the determining factor as to whether or not to move vehicles involved in a collision.

Answer 54

C
(SB 56 9.1, 9.2)
The correct answer is: If a collision occurs during periods of light or moderately fast-moving traffic, the potential for another collision being caused is reduced and moving vehicles will not be necessary.

Question 55

Proper documentation is essential when reporting a collision/incident to the Department. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When required, the original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) must be completed and sent to the NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 96 hours.
b. The officer or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident shall prepare and forward, through the chain of command, a “Collision Packet” which should include: two copies of the completed CD-19; two copies of the MV-104, when required; and two copies of the Police accident report, when required.
c. The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) is required when there is a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage to over $10,000 to the property of all persons on scene, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.
d. The CD-19 report shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/officer within 96 hours of the apparatus collision/incident. If the officer or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident is injured, or there is no officer with the apparatus, another member at the scene shall gather the information required to fill out the CD-19. The CD-19 shall then be prepared by an officer assigned to the unit involved in the apparatus collision/incident.

Answer 55

C
$1,000
(SB 56 10.1, 10.2, 12.1, Add 6 1.1)
The correctED answer is: The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) is required when there is a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage to over $1,000 to the property of all persons on scene, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.

Question 56

Certain accidents are designated as “preventable” and officers will be held accountable when involved in a preventable accident. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy regarding this program?
Select one:
a. Any collision involving double parked cars while the unit is in a non-response mode will result in a Supervisory Conference.
b. An officer involved in a first preventable collision will be interviewed and counseled by a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.
c. An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 12-month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.
d. An officer involved in a third preventable collision in a 24-month period will result in a Supervisory Conference between the officer and a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.

Answer 56

D
(SB 56 Add 4 3)
The correct answer is: An officer involved in a third preventable collision in a 24-month period will result in a Supervisory Conference between the officer and a Chief Officer from the officer’s assigned Battalion.

Question 57

All collision/incident forms must be filled out properly. Of the following choices, which is not indicative of a properly submitted form?
Select one:
a. An additional CD-19 form will be required if a collision/incident involves more than two civilian pedestrians or bicyclists.
b. An additional CD-19 form will be required if a collision/incident involves more than one apparatus, more than one civilian vehicle or if more room is needed to list all vehicle occupants.
c. For the purpose of the CD-19, a motorcycle is considered a bicycle; not a motor vehicle.
d. On the MV-104, if there are more than two drivers, vehicles, bicyclists, pedestrians or other pedestrians are involved in an accident, use additional forms.

Answer 57

C
(SB 57 Add 6 2.2, Add 7 2.10 Note)
The correct answer is: For the purpose of the CD-19, a motorcycle is considered a bicycle; not a motor vehicle.