FT 6/1 Flashcards

1
Q

Lieutenant Pooch arrives at a report of a kitchen fire in a multiple dwelling. On arrival, it appears to be food on the stove based on the smoke condition and food on the stove odor. Neighbors inform the officer that there is a watch dog in the apartment. In this situation, the officer would be correct to think?
Select one:
a. If using an extinguisher, use long bursts into the dog’s face
b. Shake the door gently to cause the dog to bark or claw at the door
c. Open the door slowly and if the dog appears dangerous use a water extinguisher, to keep the dog at a distance. CO2 extinguishers should not be used on dogs
d. Loud authoritative commands can sometimes intimidate a dog

A

D
(Fires 2—4.4, 4.6, 4.7) (Shake door vigorously, CO2 may be used, Short bursts)
The correct answer is: Loud authoritative commands can sometimes intimidate a dog

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2
Q

When operating at situations where dogs are present, units would be incorrect to consider which point?
Select one:
a. When using initial tactics against the dog (extinguishers, loud authoritative commands, allow dogs to bite a tool), have a charged hose line as a back up
b. Push a chair or tool towards an aggressive dog and allow the dog to bite it, while offering resistance to the bite
c. In a junkyard with a fire condition, stretch and charge a 2 ½” line for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced for the junkyard fire
d. In a junkyard, the safest approach is to use a water stream against a dog

A

C
(Fires 2—4.8, 4.9, 4.10) (1 ¾” line)
The correct answer is: In a junkyard with a fire condition, stretch and charge a 2 ½” line for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced for the junkyard fire

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3
Q

You are a Company Officer where a dog in an apartment bit a member on a CFR-D response. In this situation, you would be correct to notify all of the following except?
Select one:
a. NYPD
b. Animal Care Center, only if the dog is a stray
c. Medical Officer
d. Board of Health, only if the dog is a stray
e. EMS

A

D
(Fires 2—4.13) (Always notify Board of Health)
The correct answer is: Board of Health, only if the dog is a stray

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4
Q
All of the following options are considered a last resort when dealing with a difficult dog except?
Select one:
a. Using hand tools on the dog
b. Having the NYPD destroy the dog
c. Using appliances on the dog
d. NYPD ESU Tranquiller Guns
A

D
(Fires 4.11, 4.14)
The correct answer is: NYPD ESU Tranquiller Guns

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5
Q

Which of the following tool(s) are effective when handling LEXAN at fire operations?
Select one or more:
a. Oxyacetylene torch
b. Portable Power Saw with a carbide tipped blade
c. Pike Axe
d. Sawzall with the coarse tooth wood blade
e. Superior Air Hammer

A

B,D
(Fires 4—Pg 1) Sawzall, with the coarse tooth wood blade, is also effective on LEXAN but it is slower than the Portable Power Saw
The correct answers are: Portable Power Saw with a carbide tipped blade, Sawzall with the coarse tooth wood blade

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6
Q
In NYCHA buildings, if the chute door on the first floor is color coded \_\_\_\_\_, it indicates that the building has a compactor?
Select one:
a. Black
b. Gray 
c. Silver
d. Red
A

B
(Fires 7—1.3 D)
The correct answer is: Gray

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7
Q

If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out at an incinerator emergency, the blockage is generally?
Select one:
a. Below that floor
b. Above that floor

A

B
(Fires 7—2.2)
The correct answer is: Above that floor

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8
Q

Which point about the fire protection in compactor rooms is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Sprinkler heads in compactor units must be arranged so that they may be readily replaced even when they are electrically operated
b. A water outlet and a hose are required in the compactor room
c. An automatic sprinkler is required in the compactor room
d. Sprinkler heads are required in the compactor unit

A

A
(Fires 7 Sec 7) (unless they are electrically operated and approved)
The correct answer is: Sprinkler heads in compactor units must be arranged so that they may be readily replaced even when they are electrically operated

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9
Q

In refuse chutes constructed in new buildings, sprinklers shall be provided?
Select one:
a. On every story for the height of the chute unless electrically operated
b. Spaced not more than two stories apart for the height of the chute
c. Spaced not more than three stories apart for the height of the chute.
d. On every story for the height of the chute

A

B
(Fires 7—7.5)
The correct answer is: Spaced not more than two stories apart for the height of the chute

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10
Q

E43 and Ladder 59 arrive first at a compactor fire on the 15th floor of a 40-story High Rise Multiple Dwelling. Fire is burning at the compactor chute door on the 15th floor. In this situation, it would be correct to think Engine 43 should stretch?
Select one:
a. A 1 ¾” line from the standpipe outlet to the 15th floor chute door to extinguish the fire
b. A 2 ½” line from the standpipe outlet to the 15th floor chute door to extinguish the fire
c. A 2 ½” from the standpipe outlet to the 16th floor chute door to extinguish the fire
d. A 1 ¾” line from the standpipe outlet to the 16th floor chute door to extinguish the fire

A

C
(Fires 7—8.2 A)
The correct answer is: A 2 ½” from the standpipe outlet to the 16th floor chute door to extinguish the fire

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11
Q

Regarding operations at compactor chute fires, units would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The first arriving Roof firefighter will generally proceed to the roof to vent
b. The first arriving ladder OV will operate with the first engine to provide access to the chute and check for extension
c. The first arriving ladder officer and forcible entry team will operate in the compactor room
d. Units must be aware that the possibility of extension is greater in the chute than in the unit

A

D
(Fires 7—8.2) (The possibility of extension is greater in the unit than in the chute)
The correct answer is: Units must be aware that the possibility of extension is greater in the chute than in the unit

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12
Q
The housewatch FF has \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ seconds to acknowledge a response message on the PC/ATS.
Select one:
a. 10
b. 30
c. 15
d. 20
A

D
(Ch. 2 Sec. 2.2.1) COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL - CHAP. 2 & 4
The correct answer is: 20

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13
Q

The VERBAL button on the Selector Panel of the PCATS should be used?
Select one:
a. On all verbal alarms received from quarters
b. Only for a verbal alarm within 3 blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction
c. Only for a verbal alarm within 4 blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction
d. Only for a verbal alarm within 2 blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction

A

D
(Ch 2—2.2.4)
The correct answer is: Only for a verbal alarm within 2 blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction

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14
Q
How many spare rolls of teleprinter paper shall each unit maintain in the Company Office?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 2 
c. 1
d. 4
A

B
(Ch. 2 Sec. 2.6.1)
The correct answer is: 2

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15
Q
All of the following Mobile Data Terminal (MDT) keys are single action with the exception of which one?
Select one:
a. 10-84
b. 10-8 
c. 10-4
d. 10-14
A

B
(Ch. 2 Sec. 2.11.1) (10-20 is also a single action key. 10-8 is a double action key)
The correct answer is: 10-8

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16
Q
A correct suffix for an Engine company can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. P – Purple K units
b. N – Cockloft Nozzle
c. Y – Systems Control Unit 
d. S – Satellite Unit
e. F – Foam Tanker
A

C
(Ch. 2 p. 2-37) (F = FAST Unit, N = High Rise Nozzle, P = High Pressure Engine, S = Communications Unit)
The correct answer is: Y – Systems Control Unit

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17
Q
Which suffix is correct for a Ladder company assigned a specific task at an incident?
Select one:
a. K – Division Task Force 
b. H – Haz-Mat Tech Unit
c. S – Salvage Unit
d. C – CFR-D Unit
A

A
(Ch. 2 2-37) (C = CPC Unit, H = High-Rise Roof Team, S = SOC Support Truck)
The correct answer is: K – Division Task Force

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18
Q
A unit dispatched as a FireIce Unit will receive which suffix on their response ticket?
Select one:
a. K
b. F
c. S
d. I
A

D
(Ch 2 2-37)
The correct answer is: I

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19
Q

If the address of the fire or emergency is not a CIDS building but is on the _______ and is within ______ of a CIDS building, the dispatcher will notify the IC of this fact if Preliminary or Progress Reports indicate that exposures are a consideration.
Select one:
a. Same side of the street; 3 house numbers
b. Same street; 4 buildings
c. Same street; 5 buildings
d. Same side of the street; 5 house numbers

A

A
(Ch. 4 Sec. 4.2.4)
The correct answer is: Same side of the street; 3 house numbers

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20
Q

An Officer responding and noticing a CIDS message beginning with the following abbreviations would be correct to make which assumption?
Select one:
a. MJALT – Minor alteration
b. MEGA – Any High Rise Office or High Rise Fireproof MD over 150’ tall
c. BWSTRG – Any truss building
d. PG – Pre- Incident Guideline
e. REHAB – Physical rehabilitation facility

A

D
(Ch. 4 Sec. 4.3.1) (BWSTRG – BOWSTRING truss, MJALT – MAJOR alteration REHAB – Rehabilitated buildings, MEGA – Mega High- Rise – any building over 800’)
The correct answer is: PG – Pre- Incident Guideline

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21
Q

A Company Officer would be incorrect to take which action when encountering a condition that they believe is imminently hazardous and requires immediate entry into CIDS?
Select one:
a. After submitting the CIDS entry, notify the administrative BC by phone to inform the Chief of the pending immediate CIDS.
b. Use the eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS.
c. After using the eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS, print a copy and fax it to the administrative Battalion
d. In the eCIDS application, change the “CIDS type” dropdown from “Original” or “Revised” to “Immediate”.

A

C
(Ch. 4-4.3.3) (No more faxing)
The correct answer is: After using the eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS, print a copy and fax it to the administrative Battalion

22
Q

While formulating a CIDS message, Captain Jones had several thoughts. Which one was correct?
Select one:
a. Use slashes to separate information or thoughts.
b. Do not split a word at the end of a line.
c. Grammatically complete sentences are required
d. Common or universal abbreviations shall never be used

A

B
(Ch. 4 Sec. 4.4.1) (Common or universal abbreviations shall be Used when necessary, Grammar not required, Use DASHES to separate info)
The correct answer is: Do not split a word at the end of a line.

23
Q

Which guideline concerning CIDS entries is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When a single building has multiple addresses listed in the FDNY BIS, but only has a single address number posted on the building, CIDS entries are required for all addresses listed in the FDNY BIS.
b. When interconnected/attached buildings and building complexes have a separate house number posted on each building, a separate CIDS entry must be entered for each address.
c. When a multi-number address range is posted on a single building (ex. 100-112 Williams Ave.), the Unit Officer must enter a CIDS message for the first and last posted address numbers of such range.
d. When a single building has a single address, prepare one CIDS entry.

A

A
(Ch. 4 Sec. 4.4.2) (CIDS is required for the POSTED address. The unit Officer shall determine if additional CIDS entries are required for any other applicable addresses or AKA’s associated with the building) Note: The Officer MUST enter a CIDS entry for the first and last posted address numbers of such range. The Officer shall determine if additional CIDS entries are required for any other applicable addresses or AKA’s associated with the building.
The correct answer is: When a single building has multiple addresses listed in the FDNY BIS, but only has a single address number posted on the building, CIDS entries are required for all addresses listed in the FDNY BIS.

24
Q

In addition to using construction classifications from the 1938 Building Code, three additional construction classifications have been added for use. Which one is incorrectly described?
Select one:
a. A Wood Frame structure using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL4LW.
b. A Fire-Protected structure using metal “C” joist or steel bar joist would be classified as a CL2LW.
c. A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using Wooden I-Beams would be classified as CL4LW.
d. A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL3LW.

A

C
(Ch. 4 Sec. 4.4.2 D) (NFP structure renovated or repaired using ANY type of structural Light-Weight Materials would be classified as CL3LW)
The correct answer is: A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using Wooden I-Beams would be classified as CL4LW.

25
Q

In order to request a “CFR Hold” (CFRH), the Company Officer shall ensure that the facility meets all but which one of the following criteria?
Select one:
a. On duty personnel are trained in CPR.
b. All equipment and appropriately trained personnel must be available only when overnight care is provided
c. Trained personnel are able to provide oxygen to the patient.
d. On duty personnel are trained in the use of a defibrillator, and all the necessary equipment is available to the trained personnel.

A

B
(Ch. 4 Add. 1 Sec. 2.1) (All equipment and trained personnel are available during ALL HOURS OF OPERATION)
The correct answer is: All equipment and appropriately trained personnel must be available only when overnight care is provided

26
Q

You are a company officer on duty in Engine 200 where an EEO Compliance Inspection is taking place. In regards to this inspection, you would be incorrect to believe that?
Select one:
a. If a unit in a single house or both units in a double house receive an alarm during the EEO visit, the EEO staff will terminate the inspection and leave the premises
b. When the inspection is complete, the EEO investigator will provide the officer with a signed copy of the EEO inspection checklist
c. The unit(s) in the firehouse will remain in service during the inspection
d. After EEO announces their visit to the Housewatch FF, that FF should not make any notifications unless directed to do so by EEO personnel

A

D
(Regs 20.3.10) (Housewatch FF notifies OOD that their presence is required at the housewatch area)
The correct answer is: After EEO announces their visit to the Housewatch FF, that FF should not make any notifications unless directed to do so by EEO personnel

27
Q

Regarding company drills, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. A drill and instruction period of one hour each tour is required Monday through Friday
b. Standard drill times are 1400-1500 and 1900-2000
c. If Company Officers need to change the subject and / or time of drill, they should notify their administrative battalion
d. When MUD is interrupted due to fire or emergency operations, an indoor drill will be conducted

A

D
(Regs 22.4.3) (Only if MUD is cancelled or interrupted by inclement weather)
The correct answer is: When MUD is interrupted due to fire or emergency operations, an indoor drill will be conducted

28
Q

Regarding multi-unit drills (MUD), it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. At Multi-unit drills there shall be an operating test and inspection of each mask carried
b. Multi-unit drills shall be at least one and one-half hours in duration
c. Power take-offs on aerial ladders and tower ladders shall not be operated for more than 45 minutes during Multi-unit drills
d. The operating test and inspection of masks shall be conducted immediately prior to the scheduled start of the drill

A

C
(Regs 22.5.3) (30 minutes)
The correct answer is: Power take-offs on aerial ladders and tower ladders shall not be operated for more than 45 minutes during Multi-unit drills

29
Q

You are a Lieutenant in Ladder 99 who is going to prefer charges against a member from Engine 200 that is working overtime in your unit. In this situation, you would be most correct to think the charges should be prepared and signed by?
Select one:
a. The Officer on duty in Engine 200, but you are responsible to promptly telephone the Battalion Chief on duty
b. You, as the immediate superior officer on duty where the respondent is working at the time, and you must promptly telephone the Battalion Chief on duty
c. You, as the immediate superior officer on duty where the respondent is working at the time, and you must promptly telephone the Deputy Chief on duty
d. You, as the immediate superior officer on duty where the respondent is working at the time, and you must promptly telephone BITS

A

B
(Regs 26.1.4, 26.2.1)
The correct answer is: You, as the immediate superior officer on duty where the respondent is working at the time, and you must promptly telephone the Battalion Chief on duty

30
Q

If a commanding officer believes the unit’s hydrant inspection goals will not be met by the end of the inspection period, the officer should submit a letterhead report through the chain of command to the ________________ requesting assistance?
Select one:
a. Division Commander
b. Borough Commander
c. Brooklyn Boro Command Water Supply Officer
d. Battalion Commander

A

B
(Regs 28.1.4)
The correct answer is: Borough Commander

31
Q

The letter “P” on a hydrant map indicates that a hydrant?
Select one:
a. Is vital to the protection of the Buckeye Pipeline
b. Is periodically frozen during cold weather
c. Is a priority hydrant
d. Has its drain valve plugged

A

D
(28.1.5)
The correct answer is: Has its drain valve plugged

32
Q

If an officer wishes to request the installation of a new hydrant, the request must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the ________________?
Select one:
a. Chief of Operations
b. Borough Commander
c. Brooklyn Boro Command Water Supply Officer
d. Division Commander

A

A
(Regs 28.2.12)
The correct answer is: Chief of Operations

33
Q

Which point is correct regarding hydrant inspection duty?
Select one:
a. Relocated companies shall perform hydrant inspection duty when relocated for the day tour
b. If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone
c. Hydrant inspection duty shall be performed between 1000-1600 hours
d. An officer, or acting officer and not less than 2 firefighters, exclusive of the chauffeur, shall perform inspectional duty

A

B
(28.2.2, 28.2.8, 28.2.9) And not less than 3 FF’s, between 0930-1700 hours, Relocated companies shall NOT perform)
The correct answer is: If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone

34
Q

Regarding the use of hydrant discs it would be most correct to state?
Select one:
a. White discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of unserviceable hydrants and the 3” Siamese of an out of service sprinkler or standpipe system
b. Yellow discs are available in one size only for placement on 2 ½” outlets of frozen hydrants
c. The Company Number (E99) and the individual disc number shall be painted in black on both sides of each disc
d. Blue discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of hydrants and the 3” Siamese of sprinklers and standpipes indicating the system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and / or a portion of it will operate effectively when supplied

A

A
(Regs 28.3.1, 28.3.2) (painted in black on one side only, Yellow discs are available in two sizes for the 2 ½ and 4 ½, Blue disc is only for sprinkler + standpipes)
The correct answer is: White discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of unserviceable hydrants and the 3” Siamese of an out of service sprinkler or standpipe system

35
Q

Which point is incorrect regarding the wearing of uniform shorts?
Select one:
a. Shorts are an optional part of the uniform year round
b. Units may wear shorts when called to the Bureau of Training and Satellite training locations
c. Shorts may be worn for hydrant inspection
d. Shorts shall not be worn for BISP, Complaint investigation, Annual Education Day, or Public Education activities

A

C
(Regs 29.6.4) (Shorts may NOT be worn for hydrant inspection)
The correct answer is: Shorts may be worn for hydrant inspection

36
Q

Which construction feature of an old law tenement is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. When the building has four windows per floor and no front fire escape, it usually indicates two “railroad flats” with a rear fire escape. This always applies to corner buildings.
b. There are two means of egress from each apartment, almost always consisting of an interior stairway and a fire escape.
c. When the building has four windows per floor and a front fire escape, it usually indicates three or four apartments per floor with another fire escape in the rear
d. In 1934, most of these buildings were required to fire retard the stairway enclosure.

A

A
(MD 2.1) (This does not necessarily apply to corner buildings)
The correct answer is: When the building has four windows per floor and no front fire escape, it usually indicates two “railroad flats” with a rear fire escape. This always applies to corner buildings.

37
Q
An OLT constructed in which year would have required the firewall to be carried to the top of the roof boards?
Select one:
a. 1920
b. 1940
c. 1930 
d. 1950
A

D
(MD 2.3, 2.4) (1920 = Ceiling of the top floor, 1930 = Underside of the roof boards, 1940 = Underside of the roof boards.
The correct answer is: 1950

38
Q

A roof line at a multiple dwelling fire may be used for all of the following reasons except which one?
Select one:
a. Operated into a ventilation hole to extinguish fire in the cockloft.
b. Prevent fire from extending past the trench.
c. Extinguish fire that cannot be reached from below, such as fire in a cornice.
d. Protect exposures.

A

A
(MD 3.2.9) (Hoselines should not be operated into ventilation holes from the roof)
The correct answer is: Operated into a ventilation hole to extinguish fire in the cockloft.

39
Q

When encountering fire on arrival on two floors of an old law tenement, the first arriving officer should transmit which of the following signals?
Select one:
a. 10-75 and request an extra engine and truck.
b. 3rd alarm.
c. 10-75 only.
d. 2nd alarm.

A

A
(MD 3.4.6)
The correct answer is: 10-75 and request an extra engine and truck.

40
Q

When operating at cellar fire in an old law tenement with an exterior entrance to the cellar, the first line should not be advanced down the interior cellar stairs unless the fire condition is which of the following choices?
Select one:
a. Minor, medium or heavy
b. Minor or medium
c. In this situation, the line should not be advanced down the interior stairs to the cellar regardless of the fire condition.
d. Minor only

A

D
(MD 4.2.1)
The correct answer is: Minor only

41
Q
In a H-Type multiple dwelling which type of stairs are considered a tremendous asset in heavy fire operations on the top floor?
Select one:
a. Transverse stairs 
b. Isolated stairs
c. Wing stairs
d. None of the above
A

A
(MD 5.2.5)
The correct answer is: Transverse stairs

42
Q
What is the most probable point for vertical fire extension in a H-Type multiple dwelling?
Select one:
a. Dumbwaiter shafts
b. Vertical steel channels 
c. Closets
d. Pipe recesses
A

B
(MD 5.10.1)
The correct answer is: Vertical steel channels

43
Q
At a fire in a H-type multiple dwelling where two floors are involved, it is generally necessary to transmit which signal below?
Select one:
a. 2nd alarm 
b. 3rd alarm
c. Extra engine and truck
d. 4th alarm
A

A
(MD 5.5.2)
The correct answer is: 2nd alarm

44
Q
When necessary to cut a ventilation hole in the roof of an H-type multiple dwelling, initially, approximately a \_\_\_\_\_ coffin cut is recommended. \_\_\_\_\_ saw(s) should be put into operation to prevent the lateral spread of fire in the cockloft.
Select one:
a. 3’x6’; 1
b. 3’x6’; 2 
c. 4’x4’; 2
d. 4’x4’; 1
A

B
(MD 5.9.2)
The correct answer is: 3’x6’; 2

45
Q
When performing a trench cut, to be effective, the trench must be properly located, at least \_\_\_\_\_ wide, and cut from wall to wall or other suitable fire stop. The trench should be cut about \_\_\_\_\_ feet from the initial vent hole.
Select one:
a. 3’; 25’ 
b. 2’; 20’
c. 2’; 25’
d. 3’; 20’
A

D
(MD 5.9.9 C & E)
The correct answer is: 3’; 20’

46
Q

In a HRFPMD, ventilation of the fire apartment should take place after the main body of fire has been ______. The attack stairway will be the primary means for vertical ventilation when the main body of fire has been ______. Doors to elevator machinery rooms at the roof level should not be used for ventilation until the fire is _______.
Select one:
a. Knocked down; under control; controlled
b. Controlled; knocked down; under control
c. Knocked down; controlled; under control
d. Controlled; under control; knocked down

A

B
(MD 6.3.1, 6.3.4, 6.4.3)
The correct answer is: Controlled; knocked down; under control

47
Q
During fire operations in a HRPFMD, vertical ventilation shall only be performed when ordered by who?
Select one:
a. The IC or the Ladder Company Officer
b. The IC only 
c. The Ladder Company Officer
d. The IC or Fire Sector Supervisor
A

B
(MD 6.3.5)
The correct answer is: The IC only

48
Q
At a HRFPMD the \_\_\_\_\_ assigned engine company is responsible for placing the High Rise Nozzle into operation, if this alternate strategy is needed.
Select one:
a. 5th 
b. 2nd
c. 4th
d. 3rd
A

A
(MD 6.11)
The correct answer is: 5th

49
Q
The second due truck at a fire in a HRFPMD shall search the \_\_\_\_\_\_ stairs for at least \_\_\_\_\_\_ floors above the fire floor.
Select one:
a. Attack; 2
b. Evacuation; 5
c. Attack; 5 
d. Evacuation; 2
A

C
(MD 6.15.1)
The correct answer is: Attack; 5

50
Q

The second due roof firefighter at a HRFPMD shall carry which of the following tool assignments?
Select one:
a. Halligan, Hook or Axe
b. Halligan, Halligan Hook, LSR, Life Belt
c. Halligan, Maul, LSR, Life Belt
d. Halligan, Hydra Ram, and KO Curtain

A

C
(MD 6.15.4) (Halligan, Hydra Ram, and KO Curtain is the 1st Roof FF)
The correct answer is: Halligan, Maul, LSR, Life Belt