FT 3/1

Question 1

When performing rapid evacuation in an explosive environment, members would be incorrect to?
Select one:
a. Knock on doors to alert occupants to self-evacuate
b. If forcing entry - use the hydra ram or the adz end of the halligan to gap and force the door
c. Force entry for only known life hazards
d. Advise occupants to use elevators instead of stairs

Answer 1

D
(Nat Gas Pg 34-35)
The correct answer is: Advise occupants to use elevators instead of stairs

Question 2

During a chemical attack underground the first arriving ladder company will be divided into teams. The First arriving ladder TEAM 2 will be responsible for?
Select one:
a. Evacuation to Gross Decon
b. Back-Up Team
c. Evacuation & Hazard Assessment
d. Site Access Control

Answer 2

B
(ERP Ch2 6.2)
The correct answer is: Back-Up Team

Question 3

Which action should take place at the scene of an explosion from an IED in the street with numerous injured victims?
Select one:
a. Units performed hemorrhage and airway control to victims within the POI.
b. FDNY members should always don their SCBA facepieces prior to exiting the apparatus at all explosions.
c. The 2nd arriving engine officer reported to and remained at the Transportation Sector until relieved by a Battalion Chief.
d. The 1st ladder entered the Point of Impact (POI), performed a rapid assessment of the victims and tagged all Black-Tag and non-ambulatory victims.

Answer 3

A
(ERP Add.3 5.1.3, 5.2.3, 5.3.2, 5.3.4)
The correct answer is: Units performed hemorrhage and airway control to victims within the POI.

Question 4

Which point is correct regarding hydrant inspection duty?
Select one:
a. Relocated companies shall perform hydrant inspection duty when relocated for the day tour
b. An officer, or acting officer and not less than 2 firefighters, exclusive of the chauffeur, shall perform inspectional duty
c. Hydrant inspection duty shall be performed between 1000-1600 hours
d. If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone

Answer 4

D
(28.2.2, 28.2.8, 28.2.9) And not less than 4 FF’s, between 0930-1700 hours, Relocated companies shall NOT perform)
The correct answer is: If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone

Question 5

Improper decontamination methods due to exposure to synthetic opioids can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be washed with copious amounts of water, allowing the chemical to drip off.
b. Shower immediately after a potentially exposure.
c. Areas of direct skin contact should be immediately washed with copious amounts of water.
d. Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions must be avoided.

Answer 5

A
(HM 18 Sec. 5.1, 5.2)
The correct answer is: If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be washed with copious amounts of water, allowing the chemical to drip off.

Question 6

While operating at overturned box truck you noticed packages with diamond shaped label that reads radioactive. When it comes to the TI index found on these labels, you would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The total TI of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr.
b. The transport index indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one foot from an undamaged package.
c. If levels of radiation exceed the TI, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached.
d. The transport index of a package should not exceed 10 mR/hr.

Answer 6

B
(ERP Ch4 App 2, 2.5) (One meter)
The correct answer is: The transport index indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one foot from an undamaged package.

Question 7

When investigating a gas emergency, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Engines arriving prior to Ladder Companies should activate their natural gas meter prior to entering the building
b. All investigations warrant the use of all available gas detectors / meters on scene
c. The 1st ladder inside team should proceed directly to the basement / cellar any time any levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Detector
d. The Ladder Outside Team should proceed to the natural gas utility meter location

Answer 7

C
(Nat Gas—Pg 20) (Displayed on the METER)
The correct answer is: The 1st ladder inside team should proceed directly to the basement / cellar any time any levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Detector

Question 8

If an incident is determined to be a major gas emergency, members should transmit a?
Select one:
a. 10-75 and a 10-80
b. 10-75 and a 10-80 Code 1
c. 10-60 and a 10-80 Code 1
d. 10-60 and a 10-80

Answer 8

B
(Nat Gas Pg 28)
The correct answer is: 10-75 and a 10-80 Code 1

Question 9

At a Hi-Ex Foam operation, maintain ___ psi at the inlet to the eductor?
Select one:
a. 200-220
b. 220-240
c. 180-200
d. 100-150

Answer 9

A
(TB Foam 13.9)
The correct answer is: 200-220

Question 10

If members see a marked FDNY apparatus without a security decal, they would be most correct to?
Select one:
a. Approach the vehicle to gather more information
b. Contact the borough dispatcher with a mixer-off message
c. Immediately notify Fleet maintenance
d. Immediately notify NYPD

Answer 10

B
(App C-2—add 2—4.2)
The correct answer is: Contact the borough dispatcher with a mixer-off message

Question 11

An officer discussing hybrid vehicles was incorrect when he stated?
Select one:
a. Hybrid vehicles can be rated between 144 and 330 volts DC
b. The voltage is most hybrid batteries can deliver a lethal shock
c. The voltage from a hybrid battery is Direct Current (DC)
d. Direct Current becomes dangerous as low as 110 volts

Answer 11

D
(TB Fires 8—11.6A) (55 to 60 volts)
The correct answer is: Direct Current becomes dangerous as low as 110 volts

Question 12

On a CFR-D run for a “Major Injury”, Lieutenant Waldo encounters a patient with a minor burn to his arm caused by leaning against a radiator. What would be the proper signal to transmit?
Select one:
a. 10-37-2
b. 10-37-3
c. 10-45-3
d. 10-45-4

Answer 12

B
(Ch. 8 p. 8-11)
The correct answer is: 10-37-3

Question 13

After activating the Emergency Alert button on their HT, how many times shall a member initially say “Mayday” or “Urgent” followed by the remainder of the emergency message?
Select one:
a. Five times
b. Once
c. Twice
d. Three times

Answer 13

D
(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.4)
The correct answer is: Three times

Question 14

The senior guy in TL100 with 12 years on the job was talking with some junior members of his company. He proceeded to make the following two statements:
Select one:
Statement 1 – The presence, height, and integrity of parapets and cornices (or lack thereof) are factors that should be considered when placing the bucket to the roof. When placed to the roof for access, the preferred positioning is with the bucket over the roof, parapet, or cornice and the gate parallel to the roofline.
Statement 2 – When multiple trips of the bucket are required to remove a large number of occupant’s, additional tower ladders must be called. When people are removed via the bucket, they must be brought down to the street level to minimize the risk of a civilian falling out of the bucket.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Statement 2 only.
b. Statement 1 only.
c. Both are incorrect.
d. Both are correct.

Answer 14

B
(Ch.3 3.3) Statement 2 should say: When multiple trips of the bucket are required to remove a large number of occupants, removal directly to street level may not be necessary or practical. When time is critical, occupants may be removed to lower levels of the fire building, across the throat to an opposite wing in a “H” Type, to an adjoining roof, fire escape (avoid overloading), or other safe area. When necessary leave a member wit the group of removed occupants to help prevent panic.
The correct answer is: Statement 1 only.

Question 15

During a hazardous materials incident which Engine Company is normally responsible for water supply?
Select one:
a. 4th due engine
b. 1st due engine
c. 3rd due engine
d. 2nd due engine

Answer 15

B
(ERP 12.1)
The correct answer is: 1st due engine

Question 16

In which of the following situation(s) would an officer be correct to place a member’s PPE out of service and call the Safety Chief for instructions?
Select one:
a. A firefighter falls down a flight of stairs and severely sprains her ankle. She is granted medical leave by the Medical Officer
b. A firefighter suffers first degree burns to his ears at an attic fire and is granted the remainder of the tour by the Medical Officer
c. A firefighter breaks his right shoulder after falling from a portable ladder and is granted medical leave by the Medical Officer
d. A firefighter suffers first degree burns to his wrists and is granted medical leave by the Medical Officer

Answer 16

D
(Regs 11.3.36, SB 7—2.1.2)
The correct answer is: A firefighter suffers first degree burns to his wrists and is granted medical leave by the Medical Officer

Question 17

Members of a Rescue Task force should know they shall only take medical supplies necessary to address life threatening conditions in the warm zone and to facilitate patient removal. This includes all of the following equipment except?
Select one:
a. Oxygen and defibrillators.
b. Ballistic vests and helmets
c. Tourniquets, hemostatic agent, occlusive dressings
d. Triage tags and skeds

Answer 17

A
(ERP 3A 11.4.1, 11.4.2, 11.4.3)
The correct answer is: Oxygen and defibrillators.

Question 18

The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by whom?
Select one:
a. The Safety Officer
b. The Incident Commander
c. The Company Officer
d. The Sector Supervisor

Answer 18

B
(AUC 220 1.3)
The correct answer is: The Incident Commander

Question 19

How may the initial notification of a fatality or serious injury to an on-duty member be made to the Dispatcher?
Select one:
a. Via signal 10-37.
b. It may never be given over the Department radio
c. Via a “Mixer off” message followed by an immediate telephone notification.
d. Via signal 10-45.

Answer 19

C
(Ch. 8 Sec. 8.2.6)
The correct answer is: Via a “Mixer off” message followed by an immediate telephone notification.

Question 20

Which is an incorrect procedure for decontamination at a fentanyl incident?
Select one:
a. If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be lightly wetted; sprayed with just enough to wet the gear and not excessively drip off.
b. Areas of direct skin contact with any residue suspected of containing synthetic opioids should be immediately washed with copious amounts of water.
c. Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions is the preferred way to wash your hands, if available.
d. As soon as possible, skin surfaces must be additionally washed with soap and water. Shower immediately after a potential exposure.

Answer 20

C
(HM18 5.1, 5.2) Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions must be avoided as they may enhance skin absorption of fentanyl analogues
The correct answer is: Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions is the preferred way to wash your hands, if available.

Question 21

The officer of a fire apparatus that needs a new vehicle security decal should immediately notify who to obtain this decal?
Select one:
a. The Borough Command
b. Bureau of Operations
c. Fleet Services
d. Bureau of Fire Investigation

Answer 21

C
(App C-2—add 2—4.6)
The correct answer is: Fleet Services

Question 22

If a confined space victim is found breathing, but the atmosphere is a threat, which option(s) may be considered while establishing an airway?
Select one or more:
a. Lower a FAST-Pak, other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit
b. Lower a separate SCBA
c. Sharing a rescuer’s facepiece in an extreme emergency
d. Lowering the FAST-Pak of the FAST Unit in an extreme emergency

Answer 22

A, B
(Con Space—5.2)
The correct answers are: Lower a separate SCBA, Lower a FAST-Pak, other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit

Question 23

In a single car blind hoistway emergency access openings shall be provided every ______, but not more than ______ apart?
Select one:
a. 2nd floor, 30 feet
b. 3rd floor, 30 feet
c. 3rd floor, 36 feet
d. 4th floor, 36 feet

Answer 23

C
(TB Elev 7.3.2)
The correct answer is: 3rd floor, 36 feet

Question 24

At a mass decon incident, consideration can be given to the use of two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately ______ apart.
Select one:
a. 25’-50’
b. 30’-45’
c. 30’-40’
d. 25’-30’

Answer 24

D
(HM7 2.4.3)
The correct answer is: 25’-30’

Question 25

Regarding the use of latex gloves, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. They shall be changed after contact with each patient
b. Fire Duty gloves may be worn over latex gloves if the potential exists for compromising the latex glove barrier and integrity.
c. They shall be changed if torn during the course of treating a patient
d. These gloves shall must be washed or decontaminated when treating multiple patients

Answer 25

D
(CFR 3 — 13.5) (Gloves must be changed when treating a new patient)
The correct answer is: These gloves shall must be washed or decontaminated when treating multiple patients

Question 26

Which choice is correct concerning the transmission of Signal 10-70?
Select one:
a. It requires a “Mayday” message to the Borough Dispatcher.
b. The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.
c. It shall be transmitted when any Engine Company is unable to secure a positive water source.
d. It requires a “Mayday” transmission on the HT.

Answer 26

B
(Ch. 9 p. 9-10) (transmitted when the FIRST arriving Engine Company, requires an “Urgent”, requires an “Urgent”)
The correct answer is: The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.

Question 27

The temperature measurement feature on thermal imagers provides atmospheric or air temperature readings and may be utilized to make interior structural firefighting decisions.
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

Answer 27

A
(TB Tools 27—DS 4—3.5) (The temperature measurement feature on thermal imagers DOES NOT provide atmospheric or air temperature readings and Should NOT be utilized to make interior structural firefighting decisions.)
The correct answer is: Disagree

Question 28

A company officer operating at a CFR-D response is informed by one of the occupants that she saw a member of the Engine Company take an expensive piece of jewelry. In this situation, the officer would be most correct to immediately?
Select one:
a. Notify the IG
b. Notify BITS
c. Notify the Dispatcher to have a Battalion Chief respond
d. Direct a thorough search of the premises from which the property is missing

Answer 28

D
(Regs 11.3.16)
The correct answer is: Direct a thorough search of the premises from which the property is missing

Question 29

Segment one responses include all of the following call types except?
Select one:
a. Respiratory arrest
b. Choking
c. Cardiac arrest
d. Difficulty breathing

Answer 29

D
(CFR-2 3.1.1)
The correct answer is: Difficulty breathing

Question 30

Engine 98 arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response for a patient who possibly overdosed. They find a breathing but unresponsive 20 year old patient inside Apartment 42D, with a respiratory rate of 8 per minute. Choose a correct action to take.
Select one:
a. If administering Naloxone using a Narcan Nasal Spray, administer 4 mg/.1ml in one nostril. If after 2-3 minutes, there is no response, administer 4 mg with a second device into the other nostril.
b. If administering Naloxone via a Mucosal Atomizer Device, administer 10 mg/ml in only one nostril
c. Immediately begin patient care in the room where the patient was found.
d. If after 5 minutes the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 10 breaths per minute, do not administer more Naloxone due to the danger to members.

Answer 30

A
(HM 18 Sec. 4)
The correct answer is: If administering Naloxone using a Narcan Nasal Spray, administer 4 mg/.1ml in one nostril. If after 2-3 minutes, there is no response, administer 4 mg with a second device into the other nostril.

Question 31

Engine 100 is returning from a CFR-D response when they are flagged down by a civilian about two blocks from their firehouse who states the dance hall she just left across the street is overcrowded. The Engine Officer, who is aware that the dance hall is in Ladder 99’s district would be most correct to?
Select one:
a. Immediately advise the dispatcher to have the first due Battalion respond to the scene
b. Promptly inspect the dance hall
c. Immediately phone the administrative Battalion Chief
d. Request the borough dispatcher to immediately advise Ladder 99 regarding this complaint

Answer 31

C
(Regs 12.1.6)
The correct answer is: Immediately phone the administrative Battalion Chief

Question 32

The Safety Team would be operating incorrectly in which choice?
Select one:
a. Both members were positioned outside the IDLH and were prepared to transmit necessary Mayday or Urgent HT messages if an interior team needed assistance.
b. They monitored the HT for calls for assistance from members operating in an IDLH atmosphere, Mayday or Urgent transmissions, and transmissions from interior teams that were not being acknowledged.
c. They ensured the IC was notified when they entered the IDLH atmosphere to assist a member in distress.
d. When Firefighters entered the IDLH, both members of the Safety Team engaged in their primary duties while accounting for members inside the IDLH.

Answer 32

D
(Ch. 1 Sec. 2.3, 3)
The correct answer is: When Firefighters entered the IDLH, both members of the Safety Team engaged in their primary duties while accounting for members inside the IDLH.

Question 33

When operating at a fire where Hi-Ex Foam is being utilized it would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The length of the water supply line should be as short as possible
b. Fresh or salt water can be used to develop Hi-Ex Foam
c. The metering valve can be adjusted from 1% to 6%
d. The correct eductor should have a 2” red band painted around the throat

Answer 33

D
(TB Foam—13.8) (1 inch yellow band)
The correct answer is: The correct eductor should have a 2” red band painted around the throat

Question 34

For an Ice Rescue where the reach of the tether rope (200 feet) will be exceeded because of the victim location, all of the following ropes may be used with the tether rope to reach past 200 feet except?
Select one:
a. Another tether rope
b. Life Saving Rope
c. Search Rope
d. Utility Rope

Answer 34

D
(WR 3—4.3.8)
The correct answer is: Utility Rope

Question 35

A unit using the cockloft nozzle to extinguish fire on the exterior of a building constructed with EIFS should extend the nozzle approximately ______ feet from the windowsill and operate at a slight angle toward the building.
Select one:
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2

Answer 35

C
(AUC 362 3.2.3)
The correct answer is: 3

Question 36

Which one of the following glass indicators likely indicates a relatively slow heat build-up at a fire?
Select one:
a. Small crazing of glass
b. Half-moon effects on glass
c. Large crazing of glass
d. Checkering of glass

Answer 36

C
(TB Arson—6.7.3)
The correct answer is: Large crazing of glass

Question 37

Which construction feature of an old law tenement is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. When the building has four windows per floor and no front fire escape, it usually indicates two “railroad flats” with a rear fire escape. This always applies to corner buildings.
b. There are two means of egress from each apartment, almost always consisting of an interior stairway and a fire escape.
c. When the building has four windows per floor and a front fire escape, it usually indicates three or four apartments per floor with another fire escape in the rear
d. In 1934, most of these buildings were required to fire retard the stairway enclosure.

Answer 37

A
(MD 2.1) (This does not necessarily apply to corner buildings)
The correct answer is: When the building has four windows per floor and no front fire escape, it usually indicates two “railroad flats” with a rear fire escape. This always applies to corner buildings.

Question 38

A safe atmospheric oxygen concentration condition for a Confined Space Rescue is an oxygen concentration between?
Select one:
a. 19.5% and 23.5%
b. 20.0% and 23.5%
c. 19.5% and 23%
d. 20.8% and 23.5%

Answer 38

A
(Confined Space—4.1)
The correct answer is: 19.5% and 23.5%

Question 39

When a member activates their Emergency Alert Button, the MDT will automatically switch from Starfire to EFAS. In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing all but which choice?
Select one:
a. Name
b. Time
c. Company
d. Position

Answer 39

A
(Ch. 9 Add. 3 Sec. 5.1.2)
The correct answer is: Name

Question 40

Regarding water supply and line placement at major gas emergencies, fog streams should not be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure. To protect structures, stretch 2 ½” hose or large caliber streams are appropriate for defensive positions?
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

Answer 40

B
(Nat Gas Pg 35)
The correct answer is: Agree

Question 41

Units operating in the vicinity of overhead catenary wires on Amtrak Railroad Lines should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe to a minimum approach distance of ________ feet to the wires.
Select one:
a. 25
b. 4
c. 10
d. 15

Answer 41

C
(AUC 207 Add.9 3.2.4)
The correct answer is: 10

Question 42

The type of structure or occupancy will influence initial apparatus positioning and bucket placement. Listed below are four different types of buildings and the proper placement of the tower ladder for each. Which one(s) are not correct? (More than one incorrect).
Select one or more:
a. Place of Worship Fire – The tower ladder should always be positioned in front of a place of worship to gain access to the rose window and to be out of the collapse zone.
b. Taxpayer – Position to operate at street level and protect exposures. Direct the monitor at the ceiling/cockloft area from the street level. The TL can also be used as an observation point at roof level when lightweight construction is encountered.
c. Tenements – Position to the fire apartment or floor above or an off window of the fire escape. The presence of a fire escape should not diminish the value of the TL as it can be highly effective when people are present on a fire escape.
d. Brownstone/Rowframes – At a brownstone position for top floor VEIS. At a rowframe the tower ladder can potentially cover four (4) row frames. A backing in maneuver may permit booming under the 1st arriving aerial ladder for both types of buildings.

Answer 42

D
(2.1) TL at a rowframe can potentially cover up to 6 Rowframes., TL should be positioned to cover 2 sides of the building and provide ventilation of the roof and rose window.
The correct answers are: Brownstone/Rowframes – At a brownstone position for top floor VEIS. At a rowframe the tower ladder can potentially cover four (4) row frames. A backing in maneuver may permit booming under the 1st arriving aerial ladder for both types of buildings., Place of Worship Fire – The tower ladder should always be positioned in front of a place of worship to gain access to the rose window and to be out of the collapse zone.

Question 43

Proper procedures to follow when donning the SCBA facepiece can be found in all but which choice?
Select one:
a. Ensure the head net is on the outside of the facepiece and bring it to the face. The head net must be stored on the outside of the facepiece.
b. Adjust the free end of the helmet chin strap so there is just enough to grab with a gloved hand (approximately one inch).
c. After removing the helmet with the right hand, pass the chin strap over the facepiece and left hand, and rest it on the left forearm.
d. Hold the regulator assembly in the left hand with the left thumb on the purge valve.

Answer 43

A
(Add. 9 Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 3.6)
The correct answer is: Ensure the head net is on the outside of the facepiece and bring it to the face. The head net must be stored on the outside of the facepiece.

Question 44

FDNY members shall not attempt to handle or move any firearm, ammunition or incendiary device. From the choices below, which would be an incorrect action in these situations?
Select one:
a. Notifications shall be made to Haz Mat 1 and the Haz-Mat Battalion.
b. No one should stand in line with the muzzle or breech of any firearm.
c. Prompt notification shall be given to the Incident Commander (IC) upon discovery of firearms, ammunition or possible incendiary devices at any operation.
d. The device shall not be disturbed and members shall not attempt to handle or move any firearm, ammunition, or incendiary device.

Answer 44

A
(ERP Ch3—3.1) (NYPD & BFI)
The correct answer is: Notifications shall be made to Haz Mat 1 and the Haz-Mat Battalion.

Question 45

At an extended operation using the Digital In-Line Gauge, the Control FF sees the digital readout slowly flash “LO batt”. In this situation she should know that there are approximately ______ minutes of battery life remaining?
Select one:
a. 30
b. 10
c. 60
d. 90

Answer 45

D
(TB Tools 36—5.3)
The correct answer is: 90

Question 46

At a cellar fire in a private dwelling, which ladder company procedure is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When the first ladder uses the main entrance and advances down the cellar stairs, the second ladder will report to the IC and augment search operations and ventilation efforts on all floors above the cellar.
b. When the main entrance is used, if the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, one member of the first ladder inside team shall be sent to provide assistance.
c. When the first hoseline is advanced through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs, the first ladder company will perform a primary search of only the cellar.
d. When the first ladder inside team proceeds to the cellar via a secondary entrance, the second ladder inside team will then provide VEIS of the floors above the cellar.

Answer 46

C
(PD Ch 4 10.3, 10.4) (first ladder company will perform a primary search of THE FIRST FLOOR PRIOR TO DESCENDING INTO THE CELLAR)
The correct answer is: When the first hoseline is advanced through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs, the first ladder company will perform a primary search of only the cellar.

Question 47

One option for setting up a mass decon operation is to stretch a 2 1/2” handline equipped with an aquastream fog nozzle, in the fog position, and the victims then directed through the fog spray. For this operation, the recommended operating pressure range is between_______?
Select one:
a. 55-90 PSI
b. 40-70 PSI
c. 50-80 PSI
d. 60-100 PSI

Answer 47

C
(HM 7 2.4.3)
The correct answer is: 50-80 PSI

Question 48

Which point is incorrect about the properties of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)?
Select one:
a. Natural gas is flammable and non-toxic. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement in an enclosed area.
b. Natural gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy) and it will dissipate quickly.
c. The 4 digit Identification number for CNG is 1975
d. CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not to BLEVE’s.

Answer 48

C
(HM 1–3.2.1, 3.3) (1971)
The correct answer is: The 4 digit Identification number for CNG is 1975

Question 49

When using the Multiversal nozzle in the ground base, it should not be operated at more than _____ psi when using the 2” tip?
Select one:
a. 100
b. 50
c. 70
d. 120

Answer 49

B
(TB Tools 17 - 3.4.5)
The correct answer is: 50

Question 50

Which extinguisher(s) have a yellow label affixed indicating its use on Class “D” fires?
Select one:
a. Both the MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers
b. Only the MET-L-X extinguisher
c. Only the LITH-X extinguisher
d. Neither extinguisher

Answer 50

B
(Tools 34—2.3, 3.4)
The correct answer is: Only the MET-L-X extinguisher