FT 4/27 Flashcards

1
Q

Regarding the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Before turning the meter on, the member must be in an area free of contamination
b. While air monitoring, the meter will emit a vibrating pulse and flashing green LED every 10 seconds to alert the user that the meter is operating
c. The meter should not be used to detect gases other than natural gas
d. The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter has been issued to all Engine and Ladder companies

A

B
(Nat Gas Add 2—Page 1) (Every 30 seconds)
The correct answer is: While air monitoring, the meter will emit a vibrating pulse and flashing green LED every 10 seconds to alert the user that the meter is operating

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2
Q
In fresh air, the normal sensor readings are?
Select one:
a. LEL - 0.0%, O2 - 20.4%
b. LEL - 1.0%, O2 - 20.8%
c. LEL - 1.0%, O2 - 20.4%
d. LEL - 0.0%, O2 - 20.8%
A

D
(Nat Gas Add 2—2.4)
The correct answer is: LEL - 0.0%, O2 - 20.8%

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3
Q
The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter will alarm at what % LEL?
Select one:
a. 15.0%
b. 20.0%
c. 5.0%
d. 10.0%
A

D
(Nat Gas Add 2—2.4)
The correct answer is: 10.0%

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4
Q
The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter will alarm at what % O2?
Select one:
a. 19.0 % and 23.5 %
b. 19.5 % and 23.5 % 
c. 19.0 % and 22.5 %
d. 19.5 % and 24.0 %
A

B
(Nat Gas Add 2—2.5)
The correct answer is: 19.5 % and 23.5 %

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5
Q

The LCD symbol “XXX” displayed under the COMB/EX icon indicates all of the following except?
Select one:
a. The meter is now in a “Lock Alarm State” and the LEL Sensor is shut down and can no longer read natural gas levels
b. The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL
c. The atmosphere is potentially explosive
d. The atmosphere is extremely dangerous

A

B
(Nat Gas Add 2—4.1, 4.2) (Above 100 % LEL)
The correct answer is: The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL

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6
Q

If the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter is in the “Lock Alarm State” it would be correct to state the meter must?
Select one:
a. Be sent to Haz Mat Operations for repair by sending it thru the bag
b. Be sent to Haz Mat Operations by calling Haz-Mat Operations
c. Be immediately turned off then turned back on while in a gaseous atmosphere
d. Be removed to fresh air and turned off then turned back on

A

D
(Nat Gas Add 2—4.1, 4.2)
The correct answer is: Be removed to fresh air and turned off then turned back on

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7
Q

If the low oxygen sensor alarms, members would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The dispatcher should be notified of conditions
b. They should don their SCBA and notify the IC of abnormal oxygen readings
c. The Utility Company should be asked to respond and an ETA requested
d. LEL readings should be checked, as they remain unaffected

A

D
(Nat Gas Add 2—5.2) (LEL readings may not be accurate in an oxygen deficient atmosphere)
The correct answer is: LEL readings should be checked, as they remain unaffected

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8
Q

If the high oxygen sensor alarms, members would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The chance of materials igniting will increase
b. “+ + +” under the O2 icon indicates an atmosphere above 25 % oxygen
c. Haz Mat should be requested to respond
d. Flash points of combustibles will decrease

A

B
(Nat Gas Add 2-5.3) (Above 30 % oxygen)
The correct answer is: “+ + +” under the O2 icon indicates an atmosphere above 25 % oxygen

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9
Q
The SENSIT TKX Combustible gas detector provides a “Geiger Counter” like ticking sound that increases in frequency when a gas source as low as \_\_\_\_ ppm of methane are detected?
Select one:
a. 10
b. 20
c. 15
d. 25
A

B
(Nat Gas Add 5—1)
The correct answer is: 20

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10
Q
The SENSIT TKX Combustible gas detector detects all of the following gases except?
Select one:
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon Monoxide 
c. Natural Gas
d. Propane
A

B
(Nat Gas Add 5—2)
The correct answer is: Carbon Monoxide

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11
Q

The ALTAIR meter must be used in conjunction with the SENSIT TKX when surveying for leaks?
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

A
(Nat Gas Add 5—4)
The correct answer is: Agree

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12
Q

When using the SENSIT TKX, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. A decrease in the ticking sound and flashing of the red LED indicates you are moving away from the leak
b. In a contaminated atmosphere, slide the power switch to ON.
c. A fully warmed up instrument is indicated when you rotate the tick adjust dial and you hear a uniform ticking sound
d. An increase in the ticking sound and flashing of the red LED indicates you are approaching a leak

A

B
(Nat Gas Add 5—2) (In a non-contaminated atmosphere)
The correct answer is: In a contaminated atmosphere, slide the power switch to ON.

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13
Q

When using the 30’ Vehicle Recovery Strap, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. An EMS ambulance does not exceed 20,000 pounds
b. A ladder apparatus exceeds 20,000 pounds
c. The stuck vehicle shall not exceed 20,000 pounds
d. An Engine apparatus does not exceed 20,000 pounds
e. A Battalion vehicle does not exceed 20,000 pounds

A

D
(App C-2 2.2, 2.3) (Engine does exceed 20,000 pounds)
The correct answer is: An Engine apparatus does not exceed 20,000 pounds

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14
Q

When using the 30’ Vehicle Recovery Strap, it is preferred to recover the stuck vehicle from the?
Select one:
a. Front, using only the frame mounted eye hook
b. Rear, using the frame mounted eye hook or bumper
c. Front, using the frame mounted eye hook or bumper
d. Rear, using only the frame mounted eye hook

A

A
(App C-2 3)
The correct answer is: Front, using only the frame mounted eye hook

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15
Q

When performing a vehicle recovery, it would be incorrect to?
Select one:
a. Place the stuck vehicle in DRIVE prior to pulling
b. Ensure the Operator of the stuck vehicle remains in the driver’s seat
c. Ensure the pulling vehicle is larger in size than the stuck vehicle
d. Drive slowly away from the stuck vehicle until the strap stops stretching

A

A
(App C-2 5) (Neutral position)
The correct answer is: Place the stuck vehicle in DRIVE prior to pulling

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16
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_ safety zone shall be maintained when using the vehicle recovery strap?
Select one:
a. 40-foot
b. 35-foot 
c. 25-foot
d. 30-foot
A

B
(App C-2 5.7)
The correct answer is: 35-foot

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17
Q

Members conducting drill on the 100’ Rearmount Aerial Ladder were incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. Load capacity of the aerial ladder varies from 250-750 pounds at the tip, depending on the degree of elevation
b. Lowering the aerial ladder stabilizers is a two firefighter operation
c. Stabilizers each require a clearance of 5’ 2” for full horizontal extension
d. The 100-foot aerial ladder operates from 0-80 degrees above the horizontal

A

B
(App L-7—1.2, 1.4, 3.1) (One firefighter operation)
The correct answer is: Lowering the aerial ladder stabilizers is a two firefighter operation

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18
Q

The guideline for extending and lowering stabilizers for aerial ladders on level ground is correctly stated in which point?
Select one:
a. Extend the Inboard stabilizer (working side) first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, and then begin to lower that stabilizer to the ground
b. Extend the outboard stabilizer (non-working side) first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, then begin to lower that stabilizer to the ground

A

A
(App L-7 3.3)
The correct answer is: Extend the Inboard stabilizer (working side) first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, and then begin to lower that stabilizer to the ground

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19
Q

The guideline for extending and lowering stabilizers for aerial ladders when the ground is NOT level is correctly stated in which point?
Select one:
a. Extend the stabilizer on the lowest side first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, then lower that stabilizer to its maximum.
b. Extend the stabilizer on the high side first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, and then lower that stabilizer to its maximum.

A

A
(App L-7 3.3)
The correct answer is: Extend the stabilizer on the lowest side first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, then lower that stabilizer to its maximum.

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20
Q

The guideline for extending and lowering stabilizers for aerial ladders when the ground is NOT level and the inboard side (working side) is also the high side is to: Extend the stabilizer on the low side first until that stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, then lower that stabilizer to its maximum. Then, ensure the inboard stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, and then lowered the distance necessary to level the apparatus.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

A
(App L-7 3.3)
The correct answer is: Agree

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21
Q

When utilizing the Aerial Ladder Emergency Hydraulic Operation, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. The steps required must be followed in precise order
b. All functions will be operated at a reduced rate of speed when the emergency system is activated
c. The electrical pump and batteries need a cool-down period between operations
d. The Engine should be running and the Normal / Emergency Hydraulic Switch placed in the Auxiliary position

A

D
(App L-7—5) (Engine should not be running)
The correct answer is: The Engine should be running and the Normal / Emergency Hydraulic Switch placed in the Auxiliary position

22
Q

On FDNY pumpers, the Transfer Valve should be maintained in the?
Select one:
a. Volume position at all operations, unless head pressures must be overcome at a standpipe operation
b. Pressure position at all operations, unless head pressures must be overcome at a standpipe operation
c. Volume position at all operations
d. Pressure position at all operations

A

A
(App P-3—1.5)
The correct answer is: Volume position at all operations, unless head pressures must be overcome at a standpipe operation

23
Q

Which statement concerning hydrant connections is inaccurate?
Select one:
a. When other than first to arrive on the first alarm, the 10’ small hydrant connection, the 35’ soft hydrant connection, or the 10’ hard suction shall be used
b. When arriving at second or greater alarms, the 10’ hard suction should be used if available
c. When first to arrive on the first alarm, the 10’ small hydrant connection or the 35’ soft hydrant connection may be used
d. When drafting operations are indicated, the 10’ hard suction should be used if available

A

D
(TB App P-3—4) (10’ hard suction MUST BE USED)
The correct answer is: When drafting operations are indicated, the 10’ hard suction should be used if available

24
Q

Whenever In-Line Pumping operations are implemented, 3 ½” hose shall always be the initial supply line?
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

A

The correct answer is: Agree

25
Q
When supplying 1 ¾” hose with a 15/16” nozzle, ECC’s should supply \_\_\_\_\_ psi at the nozzle, and figure \_\_\_\_\_ psi per length of friction loss?
Select one:
a. 40, 20
b. 40, 15
c. 50, 15
d. 50, 20
A

D
(App P-3 10.1)
The correct answer is: 50, 20

26
Q
When supplying 2 1/2" hose with a 1 1/8” nozzle, ECC’s should supply \_\_\_\_\_ psi at the nozzle, and figure \_\_\_\_\_ psi per length of friction loss?
Select one:
a. 40, 10
b. 40, 5 
c. 50, 20
d. 50, 15
A

B
(App P-3 10.1)
The correct answer is: 40, 5

27
Q

Which point concerning basic pumping operations is incorrect?
Select one:
a. If intake pressure drops below 15 psi, the ECC must notify the IC for augmentation
b. Use the pressure position when drafting water
c. When using booster water at an operation, you must bring hydrant water into the pump through a gated inlet. It is recommended that the 4 ½” front gated inlet be utilized
d. When changing the position of the transfer valve, the pump pressure gauge should read no more than 50 psi above the intake pressure gauge

A

B
(TB App P-3—Pgs 9-end) (Use volume when drafting)
The correct answer is: Use the pressure position when drafting water

28
Q

DNR Orders authorize health care providers to NOT perform CPR to patients in?
Select one:
a. Cardiac arrest only.
b. Cardiac or respiratory arrest

A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—3.1)
The correct answer is: Cardiac or respiratory arrest

29
Q

Do Not Resuscitate Policy is incorrectly stated in which point?
Select one:
a. In NYS, an Out of Hospital DNR Order is only valid if recorded on a NYS Department of Health standard form
b. Hospital or Nursing home DNR forms do not expire; they remain valid even if they have not been updated
c. A MOLST Form that contains a DNR Order within the form is a valid DNR Order
d. A DNR bracelet with a caduceus and the words “Do Not Resuscitate” is considered a valid DNR Order, even if the written DNR order cannot be located

A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 4.1.4) (Hospital or Nursing home DNR forms do expire)
The correct answer is: Hospital or Nursing home DNR forms do not expire; they remain valid even if they have not been updated

30
Q

Hospital and Nursing Home DNR forms may be honored in any hospital or nursing homes provided they are current and have not expired.
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

A

A
(CFR 2—Add 1—3.5, 4.1.5) (may be honored ONLY in the hospital or nursing homes they originated from)
The correct answer is: Disagree

31
Q
Which of the following are recognized in the pre-hospital environment? 1. Health Care Proxy, 2. Living Will or 3. Power of Attorney
Select one:
a. Only #3
b. None of them 
c. Only #1
d. Only #2
A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—3.6, 3.7, 3.8, 4.10, 4.11, 4.12)
The correct answer is: None of them

32
Q

Out of Hospital DNR Orders do not expire. They should be updated every 90 days by the patient’s physician, but remain valid even if not updated.
Select one:
a. Disagree
b. Agree

A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—4.1.2)
The correct answer is: Agree

33
Q

Captain Fauci of Engine 19 arrives on the scene of an 88-year old female who is in cardiac arrest and his members begin performing CPR. One minute after they begin, the husband hands Captain Fauci a valid DNR Order. In this situation, Captain Fauci should have members?
Select one:
a. Continue resuscitative efforts
b. Discontinue resuscitative efforts

A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—4.2)
The correct answer is: Discontinue resuscitative efforts

34
Q

Lieutenant Birx of Engine 20 arrives on the scene of a 66-year old male who is choking. The patient’s wife hands Lieutenant Birx a valid DNR Order just before they begin treating the patient. In this situation, Lieutenant Birx should have members?
Select one:
a. Not attempt to relieve the choking
b. Attempt to relieve the choking by removing the foreign body

A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—4.6)
The correct answer is: Attempt to relieve the choking by removing the foreign body

35
Q

Lt Adams should know that a DNR Order shall be disregarded and full resuscitative efforts initiated in all of the following except which situation below?
Select one:
a. If there is reasonable evidence to suggest the DNR Order has been revoked or cancelled
b. If the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member or a close personal friend is present and requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely to result if the request is denied
c. A physician directs the order be disregarded
d. If the patient is conscious and states they wish resuscitative measures

A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—4.3) No mention of any close personal friends
The correct answer is: If the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member or a close personal friend is present and requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely to result if the request is denied

36
Q

Lt Azar is on a CFR-D response where he has questions about the validity of a DNR Order. In this situation, LT Azar should request the response of?
Select one:
a. An EMS Officer and contact the Battalion
b. An EMS Officer and contact the OLMC Physician
c. An EMS Officer and contact NYPD
d. NYPD and contact the OLMC Physician

A

B
(CFR 2—Add 1—4.7)
The correct answer is: An EMS Officer and contact the OLMC Physician

37
Q

Regarding the potential hazards in a Confined Space, it is incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of an oxygen meter
b. Only Haz Mat 1 can accurately test for the presence of all possibly toxic materials in a field setting
c. Oxygen can be displaced by gases like carbon dioxide or nitrogen, which are both inert gases
d. All members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all times, until the atmosphere is verified safe

A

B
(Con Space—2.1) (There’s no accurate way to test for the presence of all possibly toxic materials in a field setting)
The correct answer is: Only Haz Mat 1 can accurately test for the presence of all possibly toxic materials in a field setting

38
Q
Which unit(s) below are trained to perform complex confined space entries?
Select one or more:
a. CPC Ladder Companies
b. Squad companies 
c. Rescue Companies 
d. SOC Support Ladder Companies
A

B, C
(Con Space-2.2)
The correct answers are: Squad companies, Rescue Companies

39
Q

Members of SOC Support Ladder companies are trained to attempt entry into confined spaces in?
Select one:
a. Extreme emergencies only
b. Line of Sight and Complex entries
c. Any type of unusually hazardous situations
d. “Line of Sight” situations

A

D
(Con Space—2.2)
The correct answer is: “Line of Sight” situations

40
Q

Entries by members not specifically trained (First alarm units) in confined space rescue should not be attempted _____________________?
Select one:
a. Under any circumstances
b. Except in extreme circumstances

A

B
(Confined Space—2.2, 4, 4.3)
The correct answer is: Except in extreme circumstances

41
Q
A safe atmospheric oxygen concentration condition for a Confined Space Rescue is an oxygen concentration between?
Select one:
a. 19.5% and 23.5% 
b. 20.0% and 23.5%
c. 19.5% and 23%
d. 20.8% and 23.5%
A

A
(Confined Space—4.1)
The correct answer is: 19.5% and 23.5%

42
Q
A safe flammable range condition for a Confined Space Rescue is a flammable range not over \_\_\_\_\_ % LEL?
Select one:
a. 20
b. 5
c. 15
d. 10
A

D
(Confined Space—4.1)
The correct answer is: 10

43
Q
A safe toxicity condition for a Confined Space Rescue is a toxicity not over \_\_\_\_\_ PPM of carbon monoxide?
Select one:
a. 15
b. 25
c. 10
d. 35
A

D
(Confined Space—4.1)
The correct answer is: 35

44
Q
A safe toxicity condition for a Confined Space Rescue is a toxicity not over \_\_\_\_\_ PPM of hydrogen sulfide?
Select one:
a. 15 
b. 35
c. 25
d. 10
A

D
(Confined Space—4.1)
The correct answer is: 10

45
Q
A Tower Ladder is preferred to an aerial ladder to create a high point anchor due to its greater weight supporting capacity of at least \_\_\_\_\_ pounds?
Select one:
a. 750
b. 1000 
c. 1250
d. 500
A

B
(Con Space—4.3)
The correct answer is: 1000

46
Q

When using a tower ladder or an aerial ladder as a high point anchor, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. The tower ladder or aerial ladder can be used as a high point anchor—as a place to secure a pulley over the opening
b. The tower ladder or aerial ladder engine should be shut off to prevent accidental movement
c. The tower ladder or aerial ladder should not be used to lift a person, unless it is an extreme emergency
d. All personnel must be removed from the turntable

A

C
(Con Space—4.3) (The tower ladder or aerial ladder should NEVER be used to lift a person)
The correct answer is: The tower ladder or aerial ladder should not be used to lift a person, unless it is an extreme emergency

47
Q
Regarding medical considerations at a Confined Space incident, as soon as the patient is accessible, the surrounding area is safe, and conditions permit, a Rescue Paramedic may start patient care with the permission of?
Select one:
a. The Incident Commander 
b. The Fire Sector Supervisor
c. An on-scene Squad or Rescue Officer
d. An EMS Supervisor
A

C
(Con Space—5.1)
The correct answer is: An on-scene Squad or Rescue Officer

48
Q

If a confined space victim is found breathing, but the atmosphere is a threat, which option(s) may be considered while establishing an airway?
Select one or more:
a. Sharing a rescuer’s facepiece in an extreme emergency
b. Lowering the FAST-Pak of the FAST Unit in an extreme emergency
c. Lower a separate SCBA
d. Lower a FAST-Pak, other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit

A

C, D
(Con Space—5.2)
The correct answers are: Lower a separate SCBA, Lower a FAST-Pak, other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit

49
Q

If the atmosphere is hazardous, performing CPR on a patient generally?
Select one:
a. Is mandatory if the victim is in arrest
b. Is preferable to waiting to remove the victim
c. Should be discouraged
d. Is acceptable, but only if using a Bag Valve Mask

A

C

The correct answer is: Should be discouraged

50
Q
When preparing a victim for transport, a rescuer should be in position to monitor the patient throughout the removal. At the very least, they should have access to the victim’s \_\_\_\_\_\_?
Select one:
a. Legs
b. Neck
c. Head 
d. Torso
A

C
(Confined Space 5.6)
The correct answer is: Head