FT Capts 2

Question 1

At the scene of an incident, if more than one agency is capable of performing the same operations, the agency with the core competency will give tactical direction to other agencies performing operations with that competency. Which of the following tasks is a core competency of the FDNY?
Select one:
a. Water search and rescue
b. Area evacuation
c. Arson investigation (Major Case)
d. CBRN/Haz-Mat life safety operations and mass decontamination

Answer 1

D
(AUC 276 2.1, Addendum 2 Table 1)
The correct answer is: CBRN/Haz-Mat life safety operations and mass decontamination

Question 2

Life safety operations include tactical initiatives taken to preserve and protect the public. These actions supersede all others. Which one comment below is incorrect concerning life safety operations at an incident?
Select one:
a. Under CIMS, the Fire Department has complete responsibility for life safety operations, which the protocol states are the highest priority objectives at any incident.
b. At CBRN terrorist events, the Incident Commander can overrule the Fire Department tactical direction pertaining to life safety operations.
c. Life safety operations in progress will not be disrupted or suspended because of transition of command to other agencies.
d. The Primary Agency directing life safety operations may exclude non-essential personnel from a site when necessary to protect public or rescuer safety until those tasks are completed.

Answer 2

B
(AUC 276 3.1, 3.3, 3.4)
The correct answer is: At CBRN terrorist events, the Incident Commander can overrule the Fire Department tactical direction pertaining to life safety operations.

Question 3

Whenever a unified command is established, the Fire Department will designate an Incident Commander who will jointly set incident objectives. Which one of the following incident types falls under unified command?
Select one:
a. Explosion
b. Suspicious package
c. Emotionally disturbed person
d. Civil disturbance

Answer 3

A
(AUC 276 4.2, 5.1)
The correct answer is: Explosion

Question 4

In a single command structure, the IC is solely responsible within the confines of his or her authority for establishing incident management objectives and strategies. When NYPD is the first to arrive, which incident below is a single command event with the FDNY as the primary agency?
Select one:
a. Auto extrication
b. Boat in distress
c. Explosive device
d. Structural collapse

Answer 4

D
(AUC 276 5.1)
The correct answer is: Structural collapse

Question 5

FDNY units arrive on scene of a chemical release in a laboratory. NYPD is on-scene and notifies the first arriving ladder company officer that the cause of the release is under investigation and has not yet been determined. The officer has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. A unified operations section will be implemented at this incident.
b. A unified command will immediately be formed between the FDNY and NYPD.
c. For chemical incidents, DOHMH will make final adjustments to hot, warm and cold zones and direct mitigation.
d. For biological or radiological incidents, DEP will make final adjustments to hot, warm and cold zones and direct mitigation.

Answer 5

A
(AUC 276 6.1)
The correct answer is: A unified operations section will be implemented at this incident.

Question 6

An “ABR” school is a school that has one or more non-ambulatory students, contains the required holding area and has a written fire drill and evacuation plan. Which holding area requirement for non-ambulatory students outlined below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The holding area shall face on a street accessible to fire department apparatus.
b. Windows in holding area(s) designated for removal of non-ambulatory students shall be readily openable with the use of a key.
c. Window sills on windows designated for removal shall be painted red, inside and outside, with a sign attached to the outside, top window pane reading “F.D. Access” (red lettering on white background).
d. Holding area(s) shall line up vertically on the façade of each floor of the building.

Answer 6

B
(AUC 277 4.1, 4.4, 4.5, 4.6)
The correct answer is: Windows in holding area(s) designated for removal of non-ambulatory students shall be readily openable with the use of a key.

Question 7

“Non-ABR” schools will be operating under the Individualized Safety Plan (ISP) concept. Which one of the following choices describes this concept incorrectly?
Select one:
a. ISP’s are child specific and school specific fire evacuation plans for each non-ambulatory student who attends classes on the ground floor in any school where there are no holding rooms.
b. The plan might require the staff member(s) to attempt evacuation or proceed to a “safe” area pending Fire Department arrival.
c. The evacuation stair must be clear of smoke and heat (alternate stairs to be selected in event primary stair is blocked).
d. The safety of all students is the primary consideration in determining when to evacuate the non-ambulatory student from the building. The flow of traffic in the stair selected must not be interrupted by the non-ambulatory student.

Answer 7

A
(AUC 277 5.1, 5.2, 5.4, 6.1)
The correct answer is: ISP’s are child specific and school specific fire evacuation plans for each non-ambulatory student who attends classes on the ground floor in any school where there are no holding rooms.

Question 8

The captain working in Engine 99 arrives for her 6x9 tour. She finds that the Engine was OOS on the day tour for company medicals and only has 3 firefighters including an ECC reporting for duty. In this situation, which of the following choices is correct?
Select one:
a. In a double house, members going off duty from the adjoining unit may be ordered to remain on duty to await the arrival of details or members on MSOT/RSOT.
b. Engine 99 must start the tour with four firefighters.
c. If no member is available to await relief, the Captain shall notify the dispatcher at the start of the tour that Engine 99 is OOS.
d. Administrative Divisions shall coordinate staffing, to the greatest extent possible, to assure that all units start the tour with the minimum staffing levels.

Answer 8

A
(AUC 287 5.1.2)
The correct answer is: In a double house, members going off duty from the adjoining unit may be ordered to remain on duty to await the arrival of details or members on MSOT/RSOT.

Question 9

A reduced staffed unit is a Ladder, Rescue, or Squad company staffed with four firefighters. When this occurs company officers must follow certain procedures. Which procedure below is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. The company officer shall determine which outside position (OV/ROOF) will be staffed. This decision will be based in part on the unit’s response area.
b. A reduced staffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher “We are responding with four firefighters”.
c. Upon arrival, if the necessity exists, only the Incident Commander may reassign the position of the outside firefighter (OV to Roof or Roof to OV).
d. Members shall identify themselves as their riding positions assigned on the EBF-4 regardless of duties and tasks performed.

Answer 9

C
(AUC 287 8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.3, 8.5)
The correct answer is: Upon arrival, if the necessity exists, only the Incident Commander may reassign the position of the outside firefighter (OV to Roof or Roof to OV).

Question 10

First alarm units are responding to a phone alarm for a fire in private dwelling. The first ladder company calls the dispatcher and states, “we are responding with four firefighters.” The second ladder company calls the dispatcher and states, “we are responding understaffed with three firefighters.” In accordance with the FDNY’s response policy, which additional units shall the dispatcher special call to this alarm?
Select one:
a. An additional ladder company (above the FAST truck) will be assigned only if a 10-75 is transmitted.
b. The dispatcher will assign two additional ladder companies immediately following these transmissions.
c. The dispatcher will assign one additional ladder company immediately following these transmissions.
d. No additional units are required.

Answer 10

C
(AUC 287 8.2.4, 8.3.3)
The correct answer is: The dispatcher will assign one additional ladder company immediately following these transmissions.

Question 11

When a unit has less than full strength for the remainder of the tour, the officer shall notify the administrative Division, Battalion and all first alarm companies. Which one following choices is incorrect regarding a reduction in staffing after the start of the tour?
Select one:
a. While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum of three firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms.
b. Units staffed with only an officer and a chauffeur shall be placed OOS.
c. Units staffed with only an officer and a chauffeur shall respond to any verbal alarms received while in quarters.
d. When an understaffed unit is the only unit on the scene, they shall take a defensive position. However, if a known life hazard could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member.

Answer 11

A
(AUC 287 8.3.4, 8.3.5, 8.3.6)
The correct answer is: While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum of three firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms.

Question 12

Company Commanders plays a critical role in ensuring members wear their PPE correctly. Which one statement below is not in accordance with the FDNY’s policy on personal protective equipment?
Select one:
a. Bunker pants shall never be worn without knee pads in place. It is prohibited to remove or alter any part of the bunker gear.
b. The wearing of bunker pants suspenders is an essential part of the bunker pants function in protecting the lower extremities. The wearing of the suspenders is strongly encouraged although not required.
c. The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with moisture.
d. Upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, members must leave the area immediately unless the area can be cooled by a hoseline.

Answer 12

B
(AUC 310 6.3, 6.6, 6.7, 6.8)
The correct answer is: The wearing of bunker pants suspenders is an essential part of the bunker pants function in protecting the lower extremities. The wearing of the suspenders is strongly encouraged although not required.

Question 13

Bunker gear must be donned in a particular order: 1. Pants and Boots, 2. Handie-Talkie, 3. Protective Hood and 4. Bunker Coat. Which is the correct order?
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
c. 2, 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4, 3

Answer 13

A
(AUC 310 7.1)
The correct answer is: 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 14

Due to the possibility of members operating without full PPE and also due to the negative perception by the public it is important that members properly wear their gear while responding to alarms. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a. In hot weather, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding to non-structural fires, BARS alarms, non-fire responses, ERS NC, and Class E alarms.
b. Members may drive department apparatus while wearing bunker pants with leather boots.
c. When responding to structural fires in hot weather, if the apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioning unit, members may dispense with wearing coats and protective hoods.
d. While responding to structural fires in conditions other than those described in choice “C”, all members, including chauffeurs, shall don their PPE prior to responding.

Answer 14

D
(AUC 310 7.2.1, 7.2.2, 7.2.4)
The correct answer is: While responding to structural fires in conditions other than those described in choice “C”, all members, including chauffeurs, shall don their PPE prior to responding.

Question 15

Engine 99 returns from a first due fire where one if its members sustained a burn injury to his leg while operating in bunker gear. The member was granted the remainder of the tour by the on-duty medical officer. The Captain of Engine 99 wants the members gear sent out for an integrity examination. Which one action below is correct?
Select one:
a. Contact the Division to have the Division messenger deliver the gear to Quartermaster.
b. Tag the bunker gear, place it OOS, and contact the Administrative Battalion for instructions.
c. Tag the bunker gear, place it OOS, and contact the Safety Battalion for instructions.
d. Send an EDR-1 to the Decontamination Support Unit, who will deliver the gear to Quartermaster.

Answer 15

A
(AUC 310 12.1, Safety Bulletin 7 2.1.2)
The correct answer is: Contact the Division to have the Division messenger deliver the gear to Quartermaster.

Question 16

A Company Commanders responsibilities include ensuring members comply with the restrictions on the storage and wearing of bunker gear in quarters. Which one rule outlined below is described correctly?
Select one:
a. The FDNY strictly prohibits members from wearing or bringing their firefighting protective ensemble into any living areas of the firehouse except during drills.
b. Firefighting protective ensembles shall only be kept at the designated storage area on the clothing rack, at the designated location on or near the apparatus for rapid donning by on-duty members, in a separate storage area designated for such storage, or in personal lockers.
c. Replacement or additional “No Bunker Gear” signs can be obtained by contacting Safety Command.
d. “No Bunker Gear” signs shall be displayed at the entrances to all living areas in the firehouse.

Answer 16

C
(AUC 310 Addendum 3 1.2, 3.1, 3.2, 3.4)
The correct answer is: Replacement or additional “No Bunker Gear” signs can be obtained by contacting Safety Command.

Question 17

The Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) provides the department with an in-house capability to meet the day to day decontamination needs of the department. When sending items to DSU for decontamination, which one procedure mentioned below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. If both the bunker pants and PSS system have been contaminated, members shall separate the PSS from the pants prior to bagging both items. The PSS system shall not be bagged with the bunker coat and pants.
b. Place items in double (two) red or clear bags, tied or taped closed.
c. An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes.
d. All members with the same contaminant shall be listed on a single form. Separate forms are required for different contaminants.

Answer 17

B
(AUC 310 Addendum 5 2.3, 2.5, 3.3)
The correct answer is: Place items in double (two) red or clear bags, tied or taped closed.

Question 18

The Captain working in Ladder 100 is approached by the newly assigned probationary firefighter. The proby has a few questions about the probationary firefighter development program. The Captain makes the following remarks but was incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. Probationary firefighters are provided with monthly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting.
b. At the end of each monthly training module is a twenty question quiz that must be completed.
c. Probationary firefighters get two attempts to pass each quiz. If a passing mark is not attained after the second attempt, the program is temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email.
d. When probationary firefighters have successfully completed each quiz at the end of the module they will print their completion receipt and staple it in their notebook.

Answer 18

C
(AUC 323 2.1, 2.4)
The correct answer is: Probationary firefighters get two attempts to pass each quiz. If a passing mark is not attained after the second attempt, the program is temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email.

Question 19

Cross unit details of probationary firefighters shall be initiated by the Company Commander, in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator. Which one additional comment below is incorrect regarding these details?
Select one:
a. Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days.
b. Cross unit details will commence after the probationary firefighter has completed 90 days of service in the firehouse.
c. Prior to commencement of the detail, Company Commanders shall ensure probationary firefighters have familiarized themselves with FDNY firefighting procedures/bulletins relevant to the area in which they will be detailed.
d. During their detail period, probationary firefighters shall not be detailed out of the cross training unit unless absolutely necessary.

Answer 19

A
(AUC 323 2.6)
The correct answer is: Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days.

Question 20

How often should the Company Commander review their probationary firefighter’s notebook?
Select one:
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Semi-annually

Answer 20

C
(AUC 323 Addendum 2 2.1)
The correct answer is: Monthly

Question 21

The training notebook is an important aspect of the proper development of probationary firefighters. It is vital that these notebooks are properly maintained. Which one choice below is incorrect regarding the training notebook?
Select one:
a. Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the first page of the notebook.
b. Probationary firefighters shall bring the notebook to all drills held in quarters or at a remote site.
c. Training notebooks shall be kept in the company office when not in use.
d. Probationary firefighters shall document all leaves, other than regular leaves in their training notebook.

Answer 21

B
(AUC 323 Addendum 2 1.3, 1.4, 1.7)
The correct answer is: Probationary firefighters shall bring the notebook to all drills held in quarters or at a remote site.

Question 22

Company Commanders also play a critical role in the proper maintenance of the probationary firefighters training notebook. Which one comment below is correct?
Select one:
a. Company Commanders shall ensure that training notebooks are forwarded with the probationary firefighters 9th, 13th, and 17th month evaluations. Books will be returned to the member upon completion of evaluation.
b. If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Battalion within 30 days.
c. The loss or destruction of the training notebook will not be noted in the subsequent evaluation report and will not result in disciplinary action.
d. Members, who have had their probationary period extended, shall continue to maintain their training notebooks for a period of time equal to their extended probation.

Answer 22

D
(AUC 323 Addendum 2 1.6, 1.9, 2.2)
The correct answer is: Members, who have had their probationary period extended, shall continue to maintain their training notebooks for a period of time equal to their extended probation.

Question 23

The Captain of Engine 300 is working the 9x6 tour on a sunny summer day. After roll call she makes her way up to the office and checks the company email. There is an email from fire prevention stating that an anonymous complaint was received for a large accumulation of rubbish in the cellar of the local convention hall in Engine 300’s administrative district. The Captain would be most correct to take which one of the following actions?
Select one:
a. She must make an immediate inspection of the premises to determine conditions, transmit such information to the DC and BC on duty, and forward a report to the Bureau of Fire Prevention via the chain of command.
b. She immediately telephoned the administrative BC.
c. She must conduct a prompt inspection for this possible violation of the law.
d. No action is required at this time.

Answer 23

B
(Regulations 12 12.1.6, 12.1.7)
The correct answer is: She immediately telephoned the administrative BC.

Question 24

Chief and company officers shall cause frequent inspections of buildings or occupancies, excluding living quarters, wherein it is suspected fireworks are being illegally stored or sold. Where such fireworks are discovered all of the following actions are required except which one?
Select one:
a. An FDNY Summons shall be served.
b. The Bureau of Fire Investigation notified and NYPD called to the scene for confiscation and disposal.
c. A small quantity shall be retained by the company officer for evidence, and receipts shall be obtained from the PD official called to the scene.
d. The Bureau of Fire Prevention shall be notified of the incident, followed by a report with full particulars.

Answer 24

A
(Regulations 12 12.1.9)
The correct answer is: An FDNY Summons shall be served.

Question 25

When it comes to inspecting schools, colleges and universities, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Company Commanders shall, during each school year, ensure that any public, private or charter school K-12 located within their administrative district which has not been inspected by the Bureau of Fire Prevention is thoroughly inspected by the administrative unit.
b. Company Commanders shall ensure that all colleges/universities within their administrative districts are inspected during every school year.
c. Operational units will conduct familiarization drills at public, private and charter schools K-12. After the initial familiarization drill, the unit will continue to conduct such drills every year from the most recent familiarization drill.
d. D. RBIS will schedule the inspection of all colleges and universities annually.

Answer 25

C
(Regulations 12 12.1.10, 12.1.11, 12.1.12)
The correct answer is: Operational units will conduct familiarization drills at public, private and charter schools K-12. After the initial familiarization drill, the unit will continue to conduct such drills every year from the most recent familiarization drill.

Question 26

Company Commanders shall require the maintenance of a flexible record system, indicating the size and registered numbers of hose carried on the apparatus. Which one provision outlined below is not in accordance with department regulations?
Select one:
a. Engine companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 2 1/2” and not less than three lengths of 1 3/4” rolled or folded.
b. Additionally, each engine company shall ensure an extra length of 1 3/4” inch hose with a nozzle, either rolled or folded is stored on the apparatus.
c. Ladder companies shall carry not less than six lengths of 2 1/2” hose (rolled or folded).
d. Ladder companies shall carry necessary fittings to place a line in operation including, but not limited to, appropriate hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles etc

Answer 26

C
(Regulations 13 13.2.8)
The correct answer is: Ladder companies shall carry not less than six lengths of 2 1/2” hose (rolled or folded).

Question 27

Company Commanders shall arrange, each _____ 9x6 tour, for the operation of all motors and pumps of special unit apparatus stored in quarters. Company Commanders shall cause a thorough ____ inspection of aerial, tower and portable ladders.
Select one:
a. Monday; Weekly
b. Monday; Monthly
c. Tuesday; Weekly
d. Tuesday; Monthly

Answer 27

B
(Regulations 13 13.2.13, 13.2.14)
The correct answer is: Monday; Monthly

Question 28

When repairs to the apparatus are needed, company officers are required to follow certain procedures. Which one mentioned below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When repairs to the apparatus are needed, and the department mechanic determines the unit cannot respond, the officer must promptly notify the dispatcher, BC, and DC.
b. When a units emergency lights are not working, a spare apparatus must be requested.
c. If a unit is not returned to service within two hours of the original notification, the company officer must notify the BC and DC.
d. If the unit’s electronic siren is out of service, the officer must notify the BC and DC and go out of service.

Answer 28

D
(Regulations 13 13.3.7, 13.3.8)
The correct answer is: If the unit’s electronic siren is out of service, the officer must notify the BC and DC and go out of service.

Question 29

Members whose driver’s license has been suspended, revoked, expired, or in any way considered invalid, shall not drive any department vehicles. Such members shall forward a report to the _____, with all relevant information within _____ of such occurrence.
Select one:
a. Chief of Operations; one week
b. Chief of Personnel; one week
c. Chief of Operations; two weeks
d. Chief of Personnel; two weeks

Answer 29

B
(Regulations 13 13.4.20)
The correct answer is: Chief of Personnel; one week

Question 30

One of the Company Commanders responsibilities is to ensure house assessments are administered in accordance with the department’s regulations. Which statement below is correct regarding house assessments?
Select one:
a. A firefighter, designated as the company’s commissar, shall collect house assessments from members.
b. All members shall pay house assessments weekly.
c. The senior firefighter assigned to the company shall determine the amount of house assessment to be paid by each member.
d. House assessments shall be paid in units where assigned, or, in the event detail exceeds 30 days, in unit where detailed.

Answer 30

D
(Regulations 15 15.1.14, 15.1.15)
The correct answer is: House assessments shall be paid in units where assigned, or, in the event detail exceeds 30 days, in unit where detailed.

Question 31

Company journals shall be an accurate and complete daily record of all matters affecting the interests of the Department, or administration of units and personnel assigned thereto. Which one description of the company journal is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Inside the back cover of the journal there shall be affixed an accurate and current company roster.
b. All entries by the housewatch firefighter shall be in blue or black ink. All entries by other members shall be in red ink. No lines shall be left blank between entries.
c. Pages 500 running backward to 498, inclusive, shall be ruled and indexed to record visits of chief officer.
d. For uniformity, pages 495 to 497 shall be used for recording all training sessions.

Answer 31

A
(Regulations 15 15.2.1)
The correct answer is: Inside the back cover of the journal there shall be affixed an accurate and current company roster.

Question 32

The company journal shall have a ____ year retention period. The company office record journal shall be retained for ____ years.
Select one:
a. 10; 10
b. 10; 20
c. 20; 10
d. 20; 20

Answer 32

C
(Regulations 15 15.2.1, 15.3.1)
The correct answer is: 20; 10

Question 33

The Captain of Ladder 199 is discussing Military Leave benefits with one of his probationary firefighters who is a member of the National Guard. The Captain makes the following remarks but was incorrect in which choice below?
Select one:
a. Member placed on Military Leave to fulfill service obligations with the National Guard or Reserves may be eligible for a maximum of 240 hours of paid Military Leave per calendar year, not to exceed 240 hours in one continuous period of absence.
b. There is no yearly carryover of unused Military Leave Entitlement.
c. Excusals for partial tours are permitted for a minimum of 3 hours. If excusal for a partial tour results in a combination of fire department duty time and military duty time in excess of 24 consecutive hours, members must request excusal time for the entire tour.
d. Vacation leave will always be interrupted by Military Leave. Interrupted vacation leave must resume immediately upon return from Military Leave as determined by the Military Desk.

Answer 33

D
(PAID 7-75 4.1, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5)
The correct answer is: Vacation leave will always be interrupted by Military Leave. Interrupted vacation leave must resume immediately upon return from Military Leave as determined by the Military Desk.

Question 34

The evaluation program for firefighters 1st through 5th grade is an important tool to evaluate and record the performance as well as assess the capabilities and skills of firefighters. Which one evaluation procedure described below is correct?
Select one:
a. The only time an evaluation report shall be forwarded for each firefighter 1st grade through 5th grade is on May 1st each year.
b. Evaluators shall be regularly assigned unit officers. Covering officers shall never be designated as evaluators.
c. Commanding officers may serve the dual role of evaluator and reviewing officer.
d. All evaluation reports are to be reviewed by the senior regularly assigned officer in the unit.

Answer 34

C
(PAID 6-78 2.0)
The correct answer is: Commanding officers may serve the dual role of evaluator and reviewing officer.

Question 35

Captain Smith of Ladder 199 is preparing to forward his firefighters’ evaluations to the Battalion. He calls Firefighter Jones up to the office to sign his evaluation. After reviewing the form, Firefighter Jones refuses to sign it. Captain Smith would be correct to inform Firefighter Jones which one of the following points?
Select one:
a. Firefighter Jones must sign the evaluation.
b. The lack of a signature will affect the validity of the rating.
c. In addition to his signature, Firefighter Jones may add his own comment to the rating if he desires.
d. If Firefighter Jones still refuses to sign, the signature line will be left blank.

Answer 35

C
(PAID 6-78 4.0 D#3)
The correct answer is: In addition to his signature, Firefighter Jones may add his own comment to the rating if he desires

Question 36

The fire department recognizes that problems with substance abuse and other situational stress can affect members of the department and their families both on and off duty. The FDNY has both voluntary and supervisory referral procedures in place when dealing with such matters. Which one procedure below is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. One situation where a supervisory referral occurs is when an individual with a previous voluntary referral seeks assistance for a second time in a 5 year period.
b. All members may voluntarily refer themselves to CSU for assistance and will be offered one voluntary referral about which CSU will divulge no information regarding the member’s participation in treatment.
c. If a voluntary referral fails to comply with the treatment program, but notifies CSU and returns to BHS for an exam to determine duty status on the next working day after leaving treatment, no action will be taken and the medical exam will not include a substance test unless the medical officer deems it necessary.
d. Any member who receives a supervisory referral and fails to comply with the treatment program recommended or approved by CSU will have their non-compliance reported to BITS. The member will be subject to appropriate disciplinary action, including the possibility of suspension and/or termination.

Answer 36

A
(PAID 1-84 2.7, 2.8.2, 4.1, 4.2)
The correct answer is: One situation where a supervisory referral occurs is when an individual with a previous voluntary referral seeks assistance for a second time in a 5 year period.

Question 37

Captain Davis is working in Ladder 300. Lately, one of his firefighters has been exhibiting abnormal behavior, and Captain Davis is concerned that this firefighter may be experiencing some sort of situational stress. Captain Davis takes the following actions, but was only correct in which one point below?
Select one:
a. Captain Davis documents the nature of the members conduct, its frequency and effect on member’s performance and on co-coworkers. The date(s), time(s) and place(s) of such behavior should be noted as well as the name(s) of any witnesses.
b. Notification will be in the form of a request to the Chief Medical Officer for a complete medical examination. The request shall be placed in a sealed envelope and forwarded through the chain of command.
c. The referring officer will list a telephone number by which a medical officer can reach them to discuss the reason(s) for the referral. The request shall give a description of the alleged unusual behavior.
d. During officer hours, if, in the opinion of the officer, the behavior of any member is such as to present a danger to the member or to anyone else, an immediate telephone call shall be made to BITS. In addition, an immediate telephone notification shall be transmitted to the next higher level of command for relay as required.

Answer 37

A
(PAID 1-84 5.2, Addendum 1 #1, 3, 4, 5, 5.1)
The correct answer is: Captain Davis documents the nature of the members conduct, its frequency and effect on member’s performance and on co-coworkers. The date(s), time(s) and place(s) of such behavior should be noted as well as the name(s) of any witnesses.

Question 38

Company Commanders shall monitor the evaluation of firefighters 6th grade assigned to their units. Which one comment below is incorrect regarding these evaluations?
Select one:
a. Company Commanders shall not grant extended leaves, such as vacation, to the 6th grade members during their final months of probation.
b. A very important aspect of the program should be the regular scheduling of evaluation conferences with probationer. The probationary firefighter should, at this time, be given the opportunity to describe their actions and reasons therefore.
c. Covering officers and officers in charge of units where a probationer is detailed shall always notify the probationer’s Company Commander of any significant items noticed during a tour of duty with a probationer.
d. For information and guidance, Company Commanders and Evaluation Officers may call the evaluation desk, Bureau of Personnel.

Answer 38

C
(PAID 5-84 A, B, D)
The correct answer is: Covering officers and officers in charge of units where a probationer is detailed shall always notify the probationer’s Company Commander of any significant items noticed during a tour of duty with a probationer.

Question 39

The Captain of Ladder 199 has a probationary firefighter that was on medical leave during her probationary period and thus her probation has been extended. Regarding this firefighter’s evaluations, the Captain should know all of the following points are correct except which one?
Select one:
a. When probationary firefighters have had their probationary period extended, for whatever reason, additional evaluation reports are required.
b. For an extension of up to 90 days, one report is required.
c. For an extension of more than 90 days, a report every four months is required.
d. In all cases, the final report is due four weeks prior to tenure.

Answer 39

C
(PAID 5-84 E)
The correct answer is: For an extension of more than 90 days, a report every four months is required.

Question 40

Engine 100 and Ladder 200 are operating at a car fire. During extinguishment, one of the members of Ladder 200 suffers a serious laceration to his wrist. The Captain of Ladder 200 made the proper notifications regarding this injury except in which one incorrect choice below?
Select one:
a. The initial notification to the dispatcher was made with the “mixer off.” This notification included the name and unit number of the seriously injured firefighter.
b. Following this notification, an immediate telephone notification was made to the dispatcher with full particulars.
c. As soon as possible thereafter, particulars were also telephoned to FDOC.
d. Signal 10-45 shall not be used to indicate a fatality or serious injury to an on-duty member.

Answer 40

A
(Comm 8 8.2.6)
The correct answer is: The initial notification to the dispatcher was made with the “mixer off.” This notification included the name and unit number of the seriously injured firefighter.

Question 41

All members should be aware of the limitations and safety precautions necessary when operating on mobile radios. Which point below regarding mobile unit radio operations is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Handie-talkies and cell phones should not be operated within 150 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress.
b. Apparatus, post and marine radios should not be operated within 300 feet of such areas.
c. Only handie-talkies may be operated in a building in which police personnel are searching for an explosive device.
d. If the transmitting radio on the apparatus radio is depressed for longer than one minute, an audible signal, will alert the user that the transmission has been automatically interrupted.

Answer 41

C
(Comm 8 8.4.5, 8.4.6)
The correct answer is: Only handie-talkies may be operated in a building in which police personnel are searching for an explosive device.

Question 42

One engine and one truck are dispatched to a reported sparking wire outside a private dwelling. On arrival units encounter a pole mounted transformer that is seeping smoke. The most correct signal to give following this operation is which one of the following choices?
Select one:
a. 10-25 Code 1
b. 10-25 Code 2
c. 10-25 Code 3
d. 10-25 Code 4

Answer 42

D
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: 10-25 Code 4

Question 43

Ladder 100 responds to an elevator emergency reporting a stuck elevator with people trapped. On arrival, they encounter a malfunctioning unoccupied elevator. Members shut off the power and secure the elevator shaft. The officer would be most correct to transmit which signal?
Select one:
a. 10-40 Code 2
b. 10-31
c. 10-29 Code 1
d. 10-29 Code 2

Answer 43

D
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: 10-29 Code 2

Question 44

Engine 300 responds to a Class 3 for a valve alarm Home Depot. Upon investigation the Captain of Engine 300 discovers that there are workers servicing the system which caused the alarm to activate. The Captain would be most correct to transmit which of the following signals?
Select one:
a. 10-35 Code 1
b. 10-34 Code 1
c. 10-35 Code 2
d. 10-34 Code 2

Answer 44

D
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: 10-34 Code 2

Question 45

Units respond to a Class 3 alarm in a commercial establishment in Manhattan. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director informs the first arriving officer that he’s not sure why the alarm activated. After performing a thorough investigation, the officer cannot determine the cause of the alarm. This officer would be most correct to transmit which one of the following signals?
Select one:
a. 10-35 No Code
b. 10-35 Code 1
c. 10-35 Code 2
d. 10-35 Code 3

Answer 45

A
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: 10-35 No Code

Question 46

One engine and one ladder operate at a minor MVA involving two vehicles. There are no injuries to any civilians but the ladder company is required to extricate a passenger from one of the vehicles. Following this operation, the officers would be most correct to transmit which one of the following signals?
Select one:
a. 10-36 Code 1
b. 10-36 Code 2
c. 10-36 Code 3
d. 10-36 Code 4

Answer 46

D
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: 10-36 Code 4

Question 47

Ladder Company 299 is taking up from a routine unoccupied car fire. After leaving the scene, they are waved down by a civilian who states that they witnessed someone attempting to light the car on fire a few minutes before the fire department’s arrival on scene. The Captain of Ladder 299, who was the IC at this fire, would be most correct to take which of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Transmit a 10-41 Code 3 via department radio.
b. Notify the dispatcher and BFI by telephone, that the fire has been declared suspicious.
c. Request the response of a Battalion Chief to the scene.
d. Transmit a 10-41 Code 2 via the department radio.

Answer 47

B
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: Notify the dispatcher and BFI by telephone, that the fire has been declared suspicious.

Question 48

The Captain of Engine 399 is drilling with members about the proper procedures when the first arriving engine transmits a 10-70. He makes the following comments but was incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. The signal 10-70 is a notification that the first arriving engine does not have a positive water source.
b. This notification shall be an “urgent” transmission to the dispatcher only.
c. An example of a situation that requires a 10-70 is no water/insufficient pressure at a standpipe outlet.
d. The second arriving engine will be designated the “water resource unit’ and must be prepared to initiate water supply operations compatible with conditions encountered at the scene.

Answer 48

B
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: This notification shall be an “urgent” transmission to the dispatcher only.

Question 49

When transmitting a 10-75 for fire in a building, the company officer shall state all of the following pieces of information except which one?
Select one:
a. Whether it’s occupied or unoccupied
b. What floor on which the fire is located
c. The height of the building in stories
d. The type/occupancy of the building

Answer 49

A
(Comm 8)
The correct answer is: Whether it’s occupied or unoccupied

Question 50

Ladder 400 is operating at a stubborn cellar fire in a brownstone. Ladder 400’s irons firefighter has become separated from the rest of the inside team while searching the rear of the occupancy. The irons firefighter makes several attempts to contact his officer but he is receiving no response. Which of the following members shall this firefighter attempt to contact next?
Select one:
a. The Incident Commander
b. Ladder 400’s Extinguisher Firefighter
c. Ladder 400’s LCC
d. Ladder 400’s OV

Answer 50

C
(Comm 9 9.2.2 B)
The correct answer is: Ladder 400’s LCC

Question 51

Members are operating at a challenging 2nd alarm fire on the top floor of a large multiple dwelling. While searching the top floor fire apartment, the Captain of Ladder 100 discovers an unconscious firefighter. The Captain performed the following actions, but was incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. She immediately pressed her EAB and contacted the IC.
b. She transmitted “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, Ladder 100 to Command, Mayday.”
c. After receiving acknowledgement, she responded with “Ladder 100 to Command, Mayday-Injured Member”
d. She provided the following information: location, unit and identity of the injured member, nature and extent of the injuries if known, and the resources needed.

Answer 51

C
(Comm 9 9.4.1 C)
The correct answer is: After receiving acknowledgement, she responded with “Ladder 100 to Command, Mayday-Injured Member”

Question 52

An officer who becomes aware that a member under their supervision is missing shall follow certain procedures to effectively communicate critical information to the IC. Which one procedure stated below is correct?
Select one:
a. The information provided to the IC in the officer’s “mayday” transmission shall include the missing member’s assigned unit.
b. If the missing member is an officer, any team member can transmit the “mayday” message.
c. If an officer locates the missing member, he/she shall immediately press the EAB of the missing member, and then contact the IC.
d. Any member that locates a missing member shall transmit an “urgent” transmission to the IC stating, “urgent, missing member located.”

Answer 52

B
(Comm 9 9.4.1 D)
The correct answer is: If the missing member is an officer, any team member can transmit the “mayday” message.

Question 53

It’s important for a company officer to know what to expect when the IC decides to discontinue an interior attack and institute an exterior attack. Several key points regarding this scenario are outlined below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The IC shall immediately press their EAB and transmit “urgent-urgent-urgent, Command to all units, urgent back out, back out.”
b. On transmission of this message, all units shall withdraw from the building.
c. Following this transmission, the IC immediately contacts each unit individually by HT to confirm the receipt of this message.
d. The IC shall ensure a roll call is conducted immediately and all members are accounted for.

Answer 53

A
(Comm 9 9.4.2 C)
The correct answer is: The IC shall immediately press their EAB and transmit “urgent-urgent-urgent, Command to all units, urgent back out, back out.”

Question 54

Members are operating at a 2nd alarm fire in a warehouse. A “mayday” was transmitted for a missing member, and the IC turns to the Captain working in Ladder 300 and directs him to conduct an emergency alert tone assisted rescue. He has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. All members are to operate on a newly designated primary tactical channel.
b. The member designated to produce the tone should be located in proximity to the search activity to avoid confusion among searchers.
c. The emergency alert tone is pressed every few minutes to transmit the emergency alert tone and then pausing, allowing for the possibility of response from the missing, lost or trapped member.
d. When the definite location of member has been determined, the emergency alert tone should be discontinued to lessen the discomfort of trapped member and to enable communication between this member and searchers.

Answer 54

D
(Comm 9 9.5.3, 9.5.5, 9.5.6B, 9.5.10)
The correct answer is: When the definite location of member has been determined, the emergency alert tone should be discontinued to lessen the discomfort of trapped member and to enable communication between this member and searchers.

Question 55

The Captain of Ladder 100 wants to order the HT recording for a recent operation where her company operated as the first due truck. The Captain must order these recordings by which of the following methods?
Select one:
a. Email the HT Recorder Unit.
b. Telephone the HT Recorder Unit.
c. Fax the request through the chain of command.
d. Fax the request directly to the HT Recorder Unit.

Answer 55

A
(Comm 9 Addendum 1 8.1)
The correct answer is: Email the HT Recorder Unit.

Question 56

A Captain designated as the roll call officer at an operation should be aware that all of the following statements are correct except which one?
Select one:
a. Each incident will determine which companies should be called first when the emergency roll call is being conducted.
b. If a company officer does not answer when called, the roll call officer will either call a firefighter operating with that officer or call another company operating in the immediate area of that officer, in an attempt to locate them.
c. If these members are unable to account for the officer and the officer still has not responded to the roll call, the roll call officer must take the required actions for a missing member as outlined in Firefighting Procedures, Managing Members in Distress.
d. The member assisting the roll call officer using the pre-printed forms must record the results of the roll call, accounting for member as they respond.

Answer 56

C
(Comm 9 Addendum 2 4.6, 4.9, 4.10)
The correct answer is: If these members are unable to account for the officer and the officer still has not responded to the roll call, the RCO must notify the IC, who in turn must take the required actions for a Missing Member as outlined in Firefighting Procedures, Managing Incidents Involving Members in Distress.

Question 57

When an emergency roll call is being conducted at an operation the company officers on scene have several responsibilities. Some of these responsibilities are listed below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When answering the roll call, the company officer must state specifically what members they have accounted for.
b. All company officers, when answering the roll call, will state the number of firefighters riding on the apparatus responding to the incident and account only for those members under their immediate supervision.
c. In the event a ladder, rescue or Squad Company has been reduced to four or less firefighters and an emergency roll call is being conducted, the officer must include which position they are riding without in their response to the roll call officer.
d. During an emergency roll call, a company officer shall not transmit unless called by the roll call officer; they have a mayday/urgent of their own; they have critical information affecting the mayday/urgent; or they have critical information regarding the on-going operation.

Answer 57

B
(Comm 9 Addendum 2 5.1, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4)
The correct answer is: All company officers, when answering the roll call, will state the number of firefighters riding on the apparatus responding to the incident and account only for those members under their immediate supervision.

Question 58

The Captain of Ladder 250 is drilling with his new probie on EFAS. He makes the following comments but was incorrect in which one?
Select one:
a. It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, before performing any other duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit.
b. Upon arrival of the FAST Unit, the EFAS trained member designated at roll call to monitor EFAS shall report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. This member will then monitor both EFAS and the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT.
c. When the Division is on-scene, it shall be the responsibility of the Division Back-up Firefighter, if available, to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS to either: assist the EFAS trained member of the FAST UNIT or relieve the Battalion firefighter if the Battalion firefighter has not been relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit.
d. The member monitoring EFAS shall be identified by radio designation “EFAS” when communicating by HT, e.g., “EFAS to Command” “Command to EFAS”.

Answer 58

A
(Comm 9 Addendum 3 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4)
The correct answer is: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, before performing any other duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit.

Question 59

The EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit is sitting in the Battalion vehicle at an operation when a member presses their emergency alert button and transmits a “mayday” message. The EFAS firefighter should expect all of the following things to occur except which one?
Select one:
a. The company, position, and name of the transmitting member will be listed in red in both the “Radio Status” and “Maydays” areas.
b. In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing the company, position and time of the mayday.
c. The EFAS system is capable of handling multiple emergency alert transmissions at the same time. All active maydays will appear in red in both the “Radio Status” and “Maydays” area.
d. Once cleared, the member’s highlighted identity line will change from red (active) to yellow in the “Radio Status” area. The members highlighted identity line will change from red (active) to white (cleared) and will remain in the “Maydays” area.

Answer 59

D
(Comm 9 Addendum 3 5.1.1, 5.1.2, 5.1.3, 5.1.4)
The correct answer is: Once cleared, the member’s highlighted identity line will change from red (active) to yellow in the “Radio Status” area. The members highlighted identity line will change from red (active) to white (cleared) and will remain in the “Maydays” area.

Question 60

Several key features of EFAS are described below. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. EFAS defaults to tactical channel 1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 channels, excluding UTAC and NYMAC channels.
b. EFAS is installed on the MDT of all Battalion and Division vehicles.
c. The EFAS startup is delayed 30 seconds to allow it to connect to Starfire. Do not attempt to select the EFAS button during this time.
d. When viewing the EFAS screen, units arriving on scene, and pressing 10-84 will cause the Battalion or Division MDT to automatically switch back to Starfire.

Answer 60

B
(Comm 9 Addendum 3 1.4, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, 6.1)
The correct answer is: EFAS is installed on the MDT of all Battalion and Division vehicles.

Question 61

Captain Wright is working in Engine 500. They respond 5th due to a confirmed fire on the 14th floor of HRFPMD. On arrival, Engine 500 is ordered to report to the floor below the fire with the high-rise nozzle (HRN). The fire has control of several rooms, and Captain Wright anticipates that it will be necessary to move the high rise nozzle from one room to another to achieve knockdown of the fire. He has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. Start with the window downwind of the original fire room and extinguish fire in this room first. Then move to the window that the wind is blowing into and complete knockdown of the fire.
b. A shutoff will be placed in line one length back from the nozzle. When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at this shutoff.
c. Once in position, the company officer will order the nozzle back into operation.
d. The IC will initiate and maintain handie-talkie contact with the spotter to make sure the nozzle is being operated effectively and the stream is knocking down the fire.

Answer 61

B
(Tools 7, Data Sheet 17 5.11, 5.12, 5.14)
The correct answer is: A shutoff will be placed in line one length back from the nozzle. When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at this shutoff.

Question 62

Units are operating at an advanced fire in the cockloft of a large H-Type Multiple Dwelling. The Captain of Engine 100 is ordered to report to the top floor with the cockloft nozzle. Which one point below is incorrect regarding this operation?
Select one:
a. The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Squad and Division vehicles.
b. A hole approximately 4’x4’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 3” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle.
c. Prior to using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, consideration shall be given to cutting a vent hole over the main body of fire.
d. When using the cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door.

Answer 62

B
(Tools 7, Data Sheet 18 2.2, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
The correct answer is: A hole approximately 4’x4’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 3” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle.

Question 63

The combination nozzle system provides the advantage of two different nozzles, both of which can be attached to the base pipe. Which one additional comment below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The original one piece cockloft nozzle has not been removed from engine companies equipped with the combination nozzle.
b. The combination nozzle system kit is mounted above the portable ladder rack on selected engines.
c. Engine companies not trained in the use if the combination nozzle system should continue to use the conventional high rise nozzle or cockloft nozzle as required.
d. When using the cockloft nozzle tip the two 1/2” OSTs are not to be removed; these tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.

Answer 63

A
(Tools 7 Data Sheet 19 1.4, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1)
The correct answer is: The original one piece cockloft nozzle has not been removed from engine companies equipped with the combination nozzle.

Question 64

The combination metal/concrete diamond blade is a new blade that Ladder companies have received to replace abrasive discs. The Captain of Ladder 250 is discussing some of the features of this new blade with his members, but was only correct in which one statement below?
Select one:
a. If the blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, discontinue using it, and the blade must be placed out of service.
b. If the blade becomes glazed over and cuts ineffectively, it must be placed out of service.
c. The blade is bi-directional. It will cut effectively when used in either direction. Disregard any directional arrows on earlier versions of the blade.
d. The blade may be used for dry cutting only and cannot be used to cut wood.

Answer 64

C
(Tools 9 Appendix 1 2.3.6, 2.3.8, 2.3.13, 2.3.15, 2.3.16)
The correct answer is: The blade is bi-directional. It will cut effectively when used in either direction. Disregard any directional arrows on earlier versions of the blade.

Question 65

The new Thermal Imaging Camera bulletin was recently reissued. The bulletin is intended to explain the basic theory and application of thermal imaging cameras. All of the following points concerning thermal imaging cameras are correct except which one?
Select one:
a. One thermal imager is assigned to each battalion vehicle, Engine Company, and Ladder Company.
b. There must be thermal contrast, or a temperature difference in order for the thermal imager to display an image.
c. When the thermal imager switches from low heat/high sensitivity mode to high heat/low sensitivity mode, a high heat/low sensitivity indicator or icon will appear on the display.
d. The average field of view of thermal imagers is approximately 50 degrees vertically.

Answer 65

D
(Tools 27 1.4, 2.5, 2.9, 4.4)
The correct answer is: The average field of view of thermal imagers is approximately 50 degrees vertically.

Question 66

The Evolution 6000 Thermal Imaging Camera is the newest camera in the FDNY’s arsenal. Several key features of this camera are described below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The high heat (low sensitivity) mode is indicated by a green triangle inside a green square that appears in the upper left corner of the display.
b. If colors yellow through red appear in more than 32% of the display the camera will shift into the high heat (low sensitivity) mode.
c. The temperature measurement feature in the thermal imager provides atmospheric or air temperature readings and this feature can be utilized and relied upon to make tactical interior structural firefighting decisions.
d. The camera informs the operator when the TIC is shuttering as indicated by a green square just below the upper left corner of the display for approximately 3 seconds before and during the shuttering cycle.

Answer 66

C
(Tools 27 Data Sheet 4 3.1, 3.4, 3.5, 3.7)
The correct answer is: The temperature measurement feature in the thermal imager provides atmospheric or air temperature readings and this feature can be utilized and relied upon to make tactical interior structural firefighting decisions.

Question 67

The Captain working in Ladder 99 hears some of the members of her company discussing the features of the Met-L-X extinguisher. Which one of the comments made was incorrect?
Select one:
a. The MET-L-X handheld extinguisher may be used on Class D (combustible metal) fires.
b. The MET-L-X extinguisher can be identified by the orange label affixed to the extinguisher.
c. When this non-reactive agent is applied to the fire, the salt forms a crust excluding air from contact with the metal.
d. MET-L-X is also suitable for fires in solid chunks such as casings.

Answer 67

B
(Tools 34 2.1, 2.2, 2.3)
The correct answer is: The MET-L-X extinguisher can be identified by the orange label affixed to the extinguisher.

Question 68

The members in question 7 continue their discussion about the LITH-X extinguisher. Several points are mentioned, but they were only correct in which one?
Select one:
a. The LITH-EX extinguisher was specifically developed for use on lithium fires, but will not be effective when used to extinguish magnesium.
b. The LITH-EX extinguisher is superior to the MET-L-X extinguisher at adhering to hot vertical surfaces.
c. The LITH-EX extinguisher does not cake or crust like MET-L-X but it does exclude oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat away from the metal, eventually extinguishing the fire.
d. These extinguishers will have the same color identification label as the MET-L-X extinguisher but it will state LITH-X.

Answer 68

C
(Tools 34 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
The correct answer is: The LITH-EX extinguisher does not cake or crust like MET-L-X but it does exclude oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat away from the metal, eventually extinguishing the fire.

Question 69

The Captain of Engine 399 is working the day tour when a civilian knocks on the firehouse door and asks to speak to the officer in charge. The civilian informs the Captain that she is concerned about the absence of any smoke detectors in the building where she lives. The Captain would be most correct to take which action below?
Select one:
a. Referred the complainant to DOB by dialing “311”
b. Referred the complainant to HPD by dialing “311”
c. The Captain telephoned Fire Prevention.
d. The Captain telephoned the administrative BC.

Answer 69

B
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 5 8.0)
The correct answer is: Referred the complainant to HPD by dialing “311”

Question 70

Under Local Law 112 enacted in 2013 all carbon monoxide alarms installed after the effective date of this law shall be of a type that emits an audible notification at the expiration of the useful life of such alarm.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree?

Answer 70

A
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 6 7.0)
The correct answer is: Agree

Question 71

At street festivals and outdoor gatherings, fire apparatus access shall be provided, by maintaining an unobstructed fire lane of not less than _____feet in width. The sponsor or promoter of the event shall conspicuously mark a solid ______ circle 12 inches in diameter in the center of the emergency access lane to indicate the location of each fire hydrant within the boundaries of the event.
Select one:
a. 15; yellow
b. 20; red
c. 15; red
d. 20; yellow

Answer 71

A
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 7 6.4, 6.5)
The correct answer is: 15; yellow

Question 72

The Captain of Engine 300 is working a busy night tour in the Borough of Manhattan. Just after midnight, Engine 300 receives a ticket to respond to a water leak at a local social club. On arrival, there is no water leak but it appears there may be overcrowded conditions. The Captain took the following actions. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The Captain checked the FDNY Public Assembly Permit as well as the posted occupancy load (they should agree).
b. The Captain checked the Certificate of Occupancy and the DOB Certificate of Operation.
c. The Captain determined the number of occupants present knowing that a cabaret or social club must have at least 15 square feet of space per person.
d. The Captain requested the response of a BC.

Answer 72

C
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 8 2.1, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
The correct answer is: The Captain determined the number of occupants present knowing that a cabaret or social club must have at least 15 square feet of space per person.

Question 73

The NYC Fire Code provides for a right of entry by the Commissioner and authorized representatives of the Department to enter and inspect a building for the purposes of determining compliance with the Fire Code. Which one procedure mentioned below is incorrect when a company is denied access for an inspection?
Select one:
a. If a company is denied access on the first attempt to gain access for an inspection, the company officer shall immediately request the response of a BC.
b. A summons may be served if the area to be inspected is open to the general public at the time of the inspection.
c. If the individual denying access is not the owner of the premises, conduct an ownership search of the premises and attempt to contact the owner(s) to obtain consent and assistance for entry.
d. If the owner still refuses entry, an inspection warrant may be requested through the chain of command. Police officers have the authority to execute administrative or criminal search warrants. Peace officers (firefighters) are not empowered with this authority.

Answer 73

A
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 9 # 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 9)
The correct answer is: If a company is denied access on the first attempt to gain access for an inspection, the company officer shall immediately request the response of a BC.

Question 74

Where doubt exists as to the legality of an alteration utilizing steel plates, a company officer shall forward which of the following forms?
Select one:
a. A-8
b. A-17
c. High Priority DOB Referral
d. Normal Priority DOB Referral

Answer 74

C
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 10 2.0)
The correct answer is: High Priority DOB Referral

Question 75

The Captain of Ladder 400 is discussing firefighting operations at Places of Worship fires. The discussion is focused on some of the construction features and their associated problems as they relate to fires in these buildings. Which comment made during this discussion is correct?
Select one:
a. Older architecture is generally recognizable due to their large open area often without the high vaulted ceilings, simplification of form and lack of ornate decorations.
b. Both older and newer architecture places of worship are susceptible to early collapse.
c. The newer style is susceptible to early collapse due to the large high timber truss roof.
d. One of the 5 major defects or faults in construction of places of worship is the small quantity of combustible material used in the truss roof construction.

Answer 75

B
(Places of Worship 1.3.8, 1.3.9, 1.3.10, 1.3.11)
The correct answer is: Both older and newer architecture places of worship are susceptible to early collapse.