Bx Test 29

Question 1

School visits to firehouses are a common occurrence and there are several regulations related to accommodating children in quarters. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding school visits?
A: School visits shall be no more than 90 minutes duration, between 0900 & 1700 hours.

B: Third and fourth grade classes shall have one adult supervisor for every 15 children

C: Classes below the 3rd grade shall have one adult supervisor for every 5 children.

D: Classes of fifth grade and over shall have one adult supervisor for every 25 children.

Answer 1

C
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 19
C IS CORRECT – 19.2.9
A – Visits shall be no more than one-hour duration between 1000 hours & 1700 hours. 19.2.9
Classes below the third grade shall have one adult supervisor for each 5 children.
Third and fourth grade classes shall have one adult supervisor for each 10 children.
Classes of fifth grade and over and Scout Troops shall have one adult supervisor for each 15 children.

Question 2

Proper dispatch and communication are essential components of any response agency. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: All firehouses have been equipped with an Interruptible Power Supply (IPS) unit to maintain normal operation of the Alarm Teleprinter System during periods of commercial power failure.

B: The Interruptible Power Supply (IPS) unit is adjacent to the electrical service entry in the basement and is connected to the PC/ATS system so that the PC/ATS unit is automatically powered during “blackouts” or power interruptions.

C: The audible alarm (buzzer) located on or near the teleprinter stand will sound where the IPS will not function. The alarm silence switch is located inside the locked IPS cabinet.

D: The officer in charge of a firehouse where the IPS alarm is going off must notify the FDNY Help Desk of the condition.

Answer 2

D
Explanation:
The officer in charge of a firehouse where the IPS alarm is going off must notify THE SUPERVISING FIRE ALARM DISPATCHER of the condition. The Supervising Dispatcher will in turn have the borough communications electrician investigate.
Comm 2 2.8

Question 3

There are certain notifications to make when a member is bitten by a dog. Choose the incorrect notification.
A: Battalion Chief

B: EMS

C: Police Department

D: Board of health

E: Medical Officer

Answer 3

A
Explanation:
1- EMS
2- Police Department
3- Board of Health
4- The Center for Animal Care and Control, if the dog is a stray
5- Medical Officer
Training Bulletins Fires 2 sec 4.13

Question 4

The officer of an engine company is discussing line placement at a cellar fire in a private dwelling. He makes the following comments. Which one is incorrect?
A: When the first line is stretched to the interior on the first floor, high heat conditions at the bottom of the stairs would preclude the descent of the first line down the interior cellar stairs.

B: After size-up, the first hoseline should be stretched to the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the cellar in order to the extinguish the fire.

C: In semi-attached private dwellings the secondary entrance found on the side or rear of the dwelling is generally the fastest option.

D: Depending on where the first hoseline was stretched and the progress of this hoseline, the IC should consider applying water into a cellar window (or BILCO door) for a quick knockdown if there is a heavy fire condition or entry is delayed.

Answer 4

A
Explanation:
A. When the first line is stretched to the interior on the first floor, high heat conditions at the TOP of the stairs would preclude the descent of the first line down the interior cellar stairs.

Private Dwelling ch 3 sec 2.7.1, 2.7.2, 2.8.2

Question 5

Ladder 199, a tiller company is pulling up to a fire in a 5-story Old Law Tenement where two people are hanging out windows on the 4th and 5th floors on opposite sides of the building. There is a heavy smoke condition and the fire is out two windows on the 3rd floor exposure 2 side. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding ladder operations at this fire?
A: The Chauffeur positioned the apparatus 20-30 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.

B: All members are responsible for assisting the chauffeur with the initial placement of the apparatus.

C: Operating as the only aerial ladder in position to affect the rescues, the turntable of the apparatus was placed midway between the locations of the trapped civilians.

D: The less experienced Chauffeur used the sighting along the ladder rail of the top section for accuracy in positioning.

Answer 5

C
Explanation:
LADDERS 2 – AERIAL LADDERS
C IS CORRECT – When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable midway between locations. 3.2.3
A – Position the apparatus 25-35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle. 3.1.1
B – The Officer or OV can assist the chauffeur with the initial placement of the apparatus. 3.1.1
D – For the less experienced member, this accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section. 3.1.4B

Question 6

Generally, the only auxiliary fire protection that may be found in taxpayers will be automatic sprinkler systems where they are required by the Code. In some cases due to variances, sprinklers may only be found in the cellar areas. According to the 1968 building code, at a minimum, sprinkler protection is required in areas exceeding?
A: 10,000 square feet

B: 7,500 square feet

C: 12,000 square feet

D: 24,000 square feet

Answer 6

B
Explanation:
Acronym: 10-75
over 10,000 sq ft 1938 code
over 7,500 sq ft 1968 code
Txpyr 2.5.1

Question 7

While operating at an Incinerator fire, Lt Refuse operated incorrectly in which choice?
A: Lt Refuse and his inside team, along with the OV FF operated inside the building to ventilate, search, and locate the blockage

B: While searching for the blockage, Lt Refuse informed his members that if they open a chute door, and a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself

C: Lt Refuse requested his LCC to locate and check out the incinerator room

D: Before ascending to the roof, Lt Refuse instructed his Roof FF to ensure all stairwell doors located on the ground floor to be closed in order to not create an updraft in the building

Answer 7

D
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Fires 7
A- sec 2.1
B- sec 2.2
C- sec 2.4
D- It is very important that, before the Roof FF leaves the lobby he chocks open the stairwell door at the ground floor level. This will provide for maximum draft and vertical ventilation when the bulkhead door is opened….sec 2.3.F.Note

Question 8

When a ladder has been positioned and used by a member to gain entry to a fire building, there is the possibility that he/she will also need it as means of retreat. In this situation which tactic below is incorrect?
A: Do not move or reposition a ladder used in this manner except if it is necessary to use the ladder for ventilation or rescue.

B: Members in the area the ladder was used to access should be notified regarding its repositioning.

C: If moved, the ladder should be returned to its original location.

D: Another option is to replace the ladder as soon as possible.

Answer 8

A
Explanation:
A. Do not move or reposition a ladder used in this manner except if it is necessary to use the ladder for RESCUE ONLY.

Portable Ladders 10.3.11

Question 9

Today is Monday and Firefighter Jones walks into your office to advise you that she is scheduled to work Wednesday’s day tour on a mutual and night tour for herself before going on vacation. She hands you a jury duty notice that puts her on jury duty alert effective Wednesday. You give her several pieces of information. Which was the only CORRECT info according to the Jury Duty PA/ID?
A: You advise her that the mutual exchange of tours is no good due to the jury duty alert.

B: You advise her that her vacation leave will be postponed by the Jury Duty Alert.

C: You advise her that if summoned for jury duty leave, the leave will begin at 0900 on the day scheduled for the start of service.

D: You advise here that Jury duty leave will end at 1800 hours on the last day of jury duty service.

Answer 9

A
Explanation:
PA/ID – 1/96 – JURY DUTY LEAVE
A IS CORRECT - 6.1.1 Members shall not participate in any mutual exchange of tours from 1800 hours on the Sunday prior to the first day of Jury Duty Alert (or 1800 hours on Monday if Monday is a holiday), until they are either released from their jury duty obligation or their period of standby notification expires, whichever is first.
B – Vacation is postponed or interrupted by Jury Duty SERVICE – Not Jury Duty Alert. 8.2
C – The leave will begin at 1800 hours on the day before the scheduled start of service. 4.2
D – Jury duty leave will end at 0900 following the last date of jury duty service. 4.3

Question 10

All members should be familiar with the types of improvised explosive devices (IEDs) that may be encountered. Which of the following is incorrect?
A: Low Explosives are the controlled release of gas that creates a propellant, causing a pushing effect. They are designed to burn and easier to ignite; initiated by flame or impact, detonate at speeds less than 3000 ft/sec (e.g., black powder, smokeless powder, rocket fuel).

B: High Explosives are initiated by shock from a detonator or blasting cap (not spark or flame). They create a shattering effect in an instantaneous release of energy for maximum dispersion and damage, and detonate at speeds greater than 3000 ft/sec. They are the weapon of choice for suicide terrorists.

C: There are five forms of stimuli or “insults” that initiate explosions include heat, friction, impact, electrostatic discharge (ESD) and shock. These insults can be accidentally (by first responders or civilians on scene) or intentionally (by a terrorist or his/her handler) applied to cause an explosion.

D: In general, flame initiates high explosives with detonators, and shock initiates low explosives with primers. Members familiar with the components of the triggering apparatus may recognize what may be a device prior to it detonating.

Answer 10

D
Explanation:
In general, SHOCK initiates high explosives with detonators, and FLAME initiates low explosives with primers. Members familiar with the components of the triggering apparatus may recognize what may be a device prior to it detonating.
B Note: An average bullet from a rifle travels at approximately 2700 ft/sec).
ERP Add 3 6.2, 6.3, 6.5

Question 11

When operating on a highway, lighting and carrying flares can play an important role in terms of safety. Choose the incorrect information in regards to flares.
A: When lighting flares or carrying a lit flare, care must be taken to point flares away from body at all times

B: Carry lit flares in a vertical position to avoid burning wax or chemical from dropping onto hand or body

C: Never look directly at a lit flare. This may cause temporary night blindness

D: Replenish lit flares approximately every 30 minutes

Answer 11

B
Explanation:
Carry lit flares in a HORIZONTAL position to avoid burning wax or chemical from dropping onto hand or body
Training Bulletins Fires 8 p-7

Question 12

During victim removal at an incident in an under river rail, which of the following victims should be removed after the ambulatory victims?
A: Red tag victims requiring disentanglement.

B: Yellow tag victims requiring disentanglement.

C: Red tag non-ambulatory victims.

D: Yellow tag non-ambulatory victims.

Answer 12

C
Explanation:
Red tag non-ambulatory victims.
Yellow tag non-ambulatory victims.
Red tag victims requiring disentanglement.
Yellow tag victims requiring disentanglement.

Under River Rail 7.1

Question 13

Midtown companies are on the scene of a smoky Amtrak train fire and have commenced operations. Which choice made by the officers was CORRECT during firefighting in the vicinity of catenary lines?
A: Once power is removed to the catenary lines, a fog nozzle, in the fog position may be used from the platform into the train avoiding any contact with the overhead electrical wires and the pantograph connection.

B: The application of water shall be considered only when power to the third rail, 480-volt standby power, and power to the catenary wires have been shut down. The catenary lines must be grounded prior to any water application.

C: Short bursts of a solid stream are acceptable to avoid accumulations of water pooling. Run-off water presents an electrical hazard and officers shall make certain that firefighters are not standing in the path of run-off water.

D: All fire teams applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the stream and observe a minimum approach distance of 4’ to catenary wires.

Answer 13

A
Explanation:
AUC 207 – ADDENDUM 9 – CATENARY WIRES
A IS CORRECT 3.2.1
B – Catenary lines do not have to be grounded prior to water application 3.2
C – Short bursts of a fog stream – 3.2.3
D – Minimum approach of distance of 10’ 3.2.4

Question 14

Two members conducting a drill on proper operations for incidents where a Fire Department member is in distress identified which incorrect comment?
A: Signal 10-66 shall be transmitted to the dispatcher via Department radio, once it has been verified that a member is missing, lost, trapped or seriously injured, and additional resources are required to locate and/or rescue the member.

B: In addition to the signal 10-66, transmit signal 10-60 or 10-60 Code 1 if there are any indications that members are missing/lost/trapped/seriously injured as a result of a collapse.

C: On transmission of the next higher alarm which is part of signal 10-66, the Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene.

D: If a Chief Officer is not available initially, a SOC Unit Officer may temporarily be designated the FAST Group Supervisor.

Answer 14

C
Explanation:
On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all units OTHER THAN Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a STAGING AREA until ordered to the scene.
MMID 5 2.2.3, 2.4, 3.2, 7.1

Question 15

The AFFF Foam extinguisher is primarily used for Class B fires such as Pit fires, flowing flammable liquid fires, and car fires. The AFFF Foam extinguisher can even be used for some Class A fires that include Tire fires, and small rubbish fires. This extinguisher, if not used in a certain time frame must be emptied, refilled, and recharged. The correct time frame can be found in which choice?
A: An AFFF extinguisher not used within one year after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged

B: An AFFF extinguisher not used within nine months after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged

C: An AFFF extinguisher not used within six months after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged

D: An AFFF extinguisher not used within two years after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged

Answer 15

A
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Foam add 2 sec 5

Question 16

The search assessment marking system is used during collapse operations to keep track of areas that have been searched and the associated hazards within such areas. Which comment below regarding these markings is incorrect?
A: The marking consists of a 2’x2’ “X” with designated markings in each quadrant.

B: Both slashes of the “X” are drawn upon entry into the structure, or a room or hallway inside the structure.

C: Debris piles are difficult to mark, however they shall be marked similarly using common sense.

D: The markings are made using the same lime-yellow colored reflective spray paint currently used to mark vacant buildings.

Answer 16

B
Explanation:
B. The “X” is constructed in two operations. One slash is drawn upon entry into the structure, or a room or hallway inside the structure. A second slash is drawn when the unit exits the area.

Collapse Addendum 2: 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, 3.2

Question 17

Ladder 199 is an aerial ladder company first due at heavy fire venting from the second floor of a four story OLT type rowframe. The chauffeur made several decisions based on conditions. Which one of the choices was INCORRECT?
A: The LCC raised the aerial to the roof of the fire building for rapid ascent by the roof firefighter.

B: The LCC waited for the roof size up prior to repositioning the aerial ladder to the fire floor.

C: The LCC teamed up with the second arriving LCC prior to providing VEIS of the fire apartment.

D: The LCC repositioned the aerial to the floors above for VEIS.

Answer 17

B
Explanation:
BROWNSTONES AND ROWFRAMES
B IS INCORRECT – 5.7 PG 36 #5 – When fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).
A – 5.7 pg 36 #3
C – 5.7 pg 36 #5
D – 5.7 pg 36 #6

Question 18

Knowledgeable of the characteristics and hazards of bowstring truss roofs are essential to the safety of members when battling a fire in a taxpayer. Which choice below is incorrect?
A: These structures have a characteristic hump-like roof profile where the roof appears to rise up from below the parapet wall to tower above it. The longer the span, the higher the bow.

B: Failure of one truss element can cause a failure of the entire truss, and this in turn may pull down a number of trusses in a domino effect which will cause the entire roof, or a large portion, to collapse. Failure, however, will only occur in the later stages of a fire.

C: One common bowstring truss design flaw involves snow loads. Early building codes assumed snow accumulations of uniformed depth; in reality, however, snow that drifts due to the wind can be significantly deeper in one area, particularly behind raised parapet walls. This eccentric(off-center), unbalanced, concentrated load can create an overload on the trusses.

D: Bowstring truss roof overload can occur due to later additions of loads that were not considered in the original design, such as accumulation of roofing material, heavier ceiling finishes, new mechanical equipment installations and conversion of the truss space into mezzanines, storage areas, office space, etc.

Answer 18

B
Explanation:
Failure CAN occur in the EARLY STAGES of the fire.
A Note: This easily recognized silhouette, if not obscured by signs, built up parapets or smoke conditions, gives notice of truss construction. Other types of truss construction are not as easily discerned from the exterior of the building.
Taxpayer 3.3.3 A, C, D, F, H

Question 19

You are in command of a ventilation support group and just went 10-84 at a High-Rise fire. The only correct operation you performed can be found in which choice?
A: The evacuation stairwell is the first consideration for pressurization and will be pressurized upon the order of the IC

B: The attack stairwell shall be pressurized when necessary, or for sequential ventilation

C: Positive Pressure Fans should never be left unattended

D: When placed at the attack stairway door, the Positive Pressure Fan is to be placed 6-8 feet from the door tilted back 80 degrees

Answer 19

C
Explanation:
AUC 349
A- Attack Stairwell….sec 6.2
B- Evacuation Stairwell….sec 6.2
C- sec 6.4
D- 4-6 feet, 80 degrees….sec 7.2

Question 20

Engine company officer’s that need to exchange the data card for the AED must follow certain steps. Which step below is described incorrectly?
A: The data card shall be placed in envelope with a copy of the PCR.

B: The engine company exchanging the card shall forward the data card to the Office of Medical Affairs.

C: Any time the AED is applied to the patient and turns the unit on, the engine company must exchange the data card for a blank one.

D: The identity of the CFR depot shall be written on the envelope.

Answer 20

B
Explanation:
B. The engine company exchanging the card WILL BRING THE DATA CARD TO THE CFR DEPOT. THE CFR DEPOT shall forward the data card to the Office of Medical Affairs.

CFR Chapter 4 2.2.1

Question 21

Which choice is INCORRECT about Ladder Company assignments at High Rise MD’s?
A: The 1st Ladder Company controls the attack and evacuation stairway doors on the fire floor.

B: The 2nd Ladder Company recalls elevators to gain control of them and to prevent occupant use.

C: The 3rd Ladder Company Officer shall confirm the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position

D: The 4th Ladder Company shall have a carbon monoxide meter and TIC included in their tools.

Answer 21

B
Explanation:
The 2nd Ladder Company ensures that all elevators are recalled and searched.
1st Ladder Company- Elevator recall to gain control of the elevators and to prevent occupant use.
MD ch 2 sec 9

Question 22

Of the following contributing factors that affect ventilation tactics, which is listed incorrectly?
A: Energy efficient building construction (such as energy efficient windows, additional insulation) coupled with modern building contents (hydrocarbon-based products versus natural fibers) expose firefighters to more rapid heat development and intense thermal conditions.

B: The increased heat release rates of modern fires create more radiated heat along the flow path from the fire area. This radiated heat is absorbed by the member’s personal protective equipment (PPE) at a faster rate than convective heat, putting members at greater risk of burns.

C: Due to the potential for rapid fire growth, PPE has evolved to provide greater overall thermal protection; however, this can often make it difficult to detect deteriorating and unsafe conditions; resulting in members penetrating further into, and remaining longer in, an untenable area.

D: It is critical for members to conduct a proper size-up of the fire conditions prior to entering an IDLH environment. PPE was not designed to allow members to go further within a fire area; it was designed to protect members in the event that conditions quickly transitioned to an untenable situation.

Answer 22

B
Explanation:
The increased heat release rates of modern fires create more CONVECTIVE heat along the flow path from the fire area. This CONVECTIVE heat is absorbed by the member’s personal protective equipment (PPE) at a FASTER rate than RADIANT heat, putting members at greater risk of burns.
Vent 3.1

Question 23

The Electronic BF-4 (EBF-4) is a web-based software application via the FDNY Intranet requiring FDNY personnel (e.g., Officers, Battalions Chiefs, Deputy Chiefs) to prepare, print, and submit an electronic version of the BF-4 riding list form. From below, select the correct information that describes the EBF-4.
A: The EBF-4 should not be completed prior to the start of the tour

B: Chief and Company officers shall submit a Preliminary EBF-4 prior to the start of the tour

C: When the probationary firefighter is granted tenure (on his/her anniversary date) the Company Commander shall remove the (PR) designation from the probationary firefighter’s name.

D: To ensure that the In-Rig EBF-4 application continues to work properly, and to ensure that all Officers are familiar with it, the In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every Saturday on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet

Answer 23

A
Explanation:
AUC 346….new as of 1/30/2020
A- sec 2.1
B- Shall submit a Preliminary or Final EBF-4 at the start of each tour
C- The (PR) designation shall not be removed in advance of the Department Order….sec 2.11
D- Every Sunday 9x6 ….sec 6.6

Question 24

The Roof/OV team of the first arriving ladder company are performing aerial ladder operations at a peaked roof private dwelling fire. Which action taken below is incorrect?
A: Prior to using the aerial ladder the roof and/or OV firefighters shall conduct a quick survey around the perimeter of the dwelling to ensure there are no occupants in need of immediate rescue in the rear or on either side of the building.

B: If an aerial ladder operation and/or rescue are indicated, the roof/ov team will make entry. Perimeter searches will be communicated and tasked to the first arriving ladder chauffeur.

C: Prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the members shall request permission from the ladder company officer operating in the fire area in order to coordinate ventilation tactics with interior operations.

D: The roof/OV tool assignment is a 6’ halligan hook and/or halligan for each member.

Answer 24

B
Explanation:
B. If an aerial ladder operation and/or rescue are indicated, the roof/OV team will make entry. Perimeter searches will be communicated and tasked to the SECOND ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY.

Private Dwellings Chapter 4: 5.3

Question 25

Which of the following postings is CORRECT as an appropriate use of the department’s Social Media Policy?
A: Firefighter A took and posted a picture to his social media page with family members while in uniform following his graduation ceremony at the Training Academy.

B: Firefighter B took and posted a video to her social media page after operations were completed at a fire in a commercial building.

C: Firefighter C exchanged social media information with a woman she successfully resuscitated while on a CFR-D response.

D: Firefighter D was granted permission by the Battalion Commander to “friend” a 15-year old aspiring firefighter he rescued at a fire recently.

Answer 25

A
Explanation:
PA/ID 2/2013 – SOCIAL MEDIA POLICY
A IS CORRECT - FDNY personnel shall not post photographs of themselves in uniform, unless the uniform was worn during an event for which a uniform is required. 5.2.5
B - Members of the Department are prohibited from taking photographs, videotaping or recording audio while working unless authorized to do so by OPI. (Office of Public Information) 5.2.6
C - Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact with patients, fire victims or any members of the public with whom they interact in their capacity as FDNY employee. 5.2.7
D - Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact (e.g., “friending,” or “following”) with minors with whom they interact in the course of their FDNY employment, unless specifically authorized by a Department Assistant Commissioner (or higher rank) or DEPUTY CHIEF (or higher rank). 5.2.8

Question 26

Two members discussing injury and exposure reporting were able to identify which incorrect comment made?
A: All injuries sustained in quarters require the officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief.

B: Within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure, modifications to the report replace the original submission, and the report will continue to be categorized as original.

C: After 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure, all modifications to the report will be saved as amendments.

D: Biological exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the biological exposure, with or without the member’s signature. and/or narrative

Answer 26

D
Explanation:
BIOLOGICAL exposures must be entered into CIRS IMMEDIATELY to ensure appropriate exposure investigation and follow-up.
INJURY/EXPOSURE (NON-BIOLOGICAL) information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 DAYS from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
C Note: If multiple amendments are made during a calendar day, only the last submitted amendment will be permanently saved. Amendments made on separate days will be saved separately with the appropriate date.
SB 7 4.1, 4.3-4.5

Question 27

The incorrect operation when applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components can be found in which choice?
A: The primary means of applying water to energized electrical components is through the use of a Tower Ladder

B: When applying water to 138 kV electrical components when using straight streams, the minimum safe operating distance is 75 feet

C: If the stream is not reaching the intended target area then the water supply must be shut down at the pumper and the position of the basket or the angle and/or pattern of the stream must be adjusted

D: When Tower Ladders are out of reach, Aerial Ladders may be used with their Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle attached to the ladder pipe

Answer 27

D
Explanation:
AUC 338
A- sec 5.4
B- sec 5.3
C- sec 5.4.6
D- The Aquastream Master Stream carried by all Aerial Ladder and Engine Companies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of 130 degrees. This nozzle shall not be used because it does not provide enough stream penetration to allow for maintaining safe operating distances….sec 5.5.Note

Question 28

As a bare minimum, the rescuer who is entering a confined space must know certain things that will allow them to conduct the rescue in as safe a manner as possible. Which one listed below is incorrect?
A: The hazards within the space.

B: How to communicate with the victim inside.

C: First Aid procedures and CPR.

D: How to escape the space in an emergency.

Answer 28

B
Explanation:
B. How to communicate with the ATTENDANT OUTSIDE.

Confined Space Section 4

Question 29

As an officer making an entry in the company journal for lost property, you would be correct to make which entry in the flagging column?
A: LP

B: Lpr

C: PR

D: PL

Answer 29

C
Explanation:
PR - Property lost, missing, found, delivered, received, invoiced, loaned and supplies received.
CJ p8

Question 30

Engine Companies have very specific duties when operating at a chemical attack in an underground subway. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: The first arriving Engine should stage the apparatus and equipment upwind and away from any potential sources of contamination such as subway entrances and sidewalk gratings, but near enough to begin Gross Decontamination of contaminated victims. When staging the apparatus, position near the location of the access/egress point(s) of first arriving Ladder Company performing assessment.

B: The first arriving Engine should remain outside the subway system unless ordered by the IC. They should direct persons who have been decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points (CCPs) staffed by EMS for triage, treatment and transport.

C: The first arriving Engine should provide an estimate of the number of victims to Incident Commander. Additionally, they should inform the first arriving Ladder Company and second arriving Engine officer if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area.

D: The second and third arriving Engines may operate independently, each at their own entrance, to ensure that decontamination facilities are available quickly at these locations. Additionally, they should be prepared to perform CFR-D duties as needed.

Answer 30

C
Explanation:
The first arriving Engine should provide an estimate of the number of victims to Incident Commander. Additionally, they should inform the SECOND ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY and INCIDENT COMMANDER if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area.
ERP Add 2 7.1.1, 7.1.4, 7.1.6-7.1.8, 7.2

Question 31

Which procedure is incorrectly stated during a Collapse Operation?
A: Aerial Ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes

B: All ambulances should stage away from the operations site, in an area where egress can be made once patients have been loaded for transport

C: 2nd arriving Engine will ensure a 3 1/2” supply line is stretched to the first TL

D: Upon hearing one long blast from an air horn, all members ceased operations and remained quiet

Answer 31

B
Explanation:
Collapse Operations
A- sec 5.4
B- First arriving ambulances need to be close to the scene to provide supplies for triage and initial treatment. Additional units should stage away from the operations site, in an area where egress can be made once patients have been loaded for transport ….sec 5.6
C- sec 7.3
D- sec 9.2

Question 32

When operating at an unoccupied swinging suspended scaffold emergency which of the following actions is incorrect?
A: If roof rigging is suspect, attempt to secure it with a utility rope.

B: Member shall not go out onto an unoccupied scaffold unless absolutely necessary.

C: Members operating near windows or the roof edge shall utilize safety lines as a precaution against falling.

D: Avoid operating below the scaffold to avoid being struck by the scaffold or falling building material.

Answer 32

B
Explanation:
B. AT NO TIME SHALL ANY MEMBER go out onto an unoccupied scaffold.

Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 4.2, 4.3

Question 33

Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding Older Cast-Iron Lofts built from the 1840s to the 1870s?
A: Larger dimensional buildings can be irregularly (L-shaped) constructed with frontage on two adjacent streets, or 200 feet deep with frontage on 2 parallel streets. Buildings with larger frontages (up to 50 feet) have wider windows and entranceways with cast-iron columns and arches to support heavy timber or iron girders.

B: Interior support columns can be composed of cast-iron, wrought-iron, brick or wood. Wooden floor joists run from side wall to side wall, while girders and columns run front to rear.

C: Interior walls, flooring, and trim are of wooden construction and the height between the floor and ceiling is a minimum of 8 feet. The roof is built flat using wood rafters and some top floors have dropped-ceilings below the roof, creating cockloft areas.

D: These structures have two enclosed, fireproof stairs. Interior stairs leading to the cellar may be remote from the main interior stairway and of open, wooden construction.

Answer 33

D
Explanation:
These structures have ONE UNENCLOSED WOODEN STAIR, often winding around the elevator shaft, OR ONE STRAIGHT RUN STAIR. Interior stairs leading to the cellar may be remote from the main interior stairway and of open, wooden construction.
Note: Fire escapes can be found on the front, rear, as well as the sides (corner buildings).
A Note: These girders may be supported by the rear wall and on flanges at the back of the cast-iron front wall. Ornamental cast-iron plating may also be found bolted into front facade masonry.
Loft 4.1.2-4.1.4

Question 34

Members performing the tactic ventilation for search when operating at an OLT shall comply with certain procedures. Choose the incorrect procedure.
A: The Ladder Officer shall be notified when a search team enters from the exterior to conduct a search for a known life hazard or when they are entering to conduct standard search procedures

B: Members venting for search should be cognizant of the location of the main body of fire and the position of hoselines. Officers must notify members searching remote from hoselines when the hoselines begin to advance towards their position

C: Upon completion of clearing of the window and before entering, reassess the smoke and heat condition to determine if the area is still tenable. If conditions now prevent access, immediately notify the Ladder Officer of this situation

D: After venting, the priority action for the member is to conduct an immediate search of the area (VEIS)

Answer 34

D
Explanation:
After venting, the priority action for the member is to ISOLATE the area by closing a door before conducting the search (VEIS)
Ladders 3 p-50

Question 35

When using a tower ladder to extinguish a fire in a place of worship which one of the following tactics outlined below is correct?
A: A properly positioned tower ladder can cover a building with a frontage of 150 feet.

B: When fire is located within the large area of the nave, the first priority is water application into the ventilation opening for the concealed roof space.

C: When fire is not visible in the large area of the nave but is suspected to be within the concealed area of the attic or cockloft, water application into the Rose window is the priority.

D: When fire is not visible in the large area of the nave but is suspected to be within the concealed area of the attic or cockloft, water application into the ventilation opening is the priority.

Answer 35

D
Explanation:
A. A properly positioned tower ladder can cover a building with a frontage of 100 FEET.

B. When fire is located within the large area of the nave, the first priority is A TOWER LADDER STREAM INTO THE ROSE WINDOW.
C. When fire is not visible in the large area of the nave but is suspected to be within the concealed area of the attic or cockloft, water application into THE VENTILATION OPENING is the priority.
Places of Worship Fires 8.9, 8.10, 8.11, 8.12

Question 36

On a 10-76 for a fire in a high rise office building, all of the assignments below are correct except?
A: The first and second arriving engine companies shall be teamed to stretch and operate the first line. The third and fourth arriving engine companies shall be used to stretch and operate the second line.

B: The CFR engine company, with all CFR-D equipment and forcible entry tools, shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director.

C: The first arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the fire floor, and the second arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above.

D: The third arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above the fire. The fourth arriving ladder company shall be assigned similarly, to operate on the upper floors and to initiate the search of the attack stairway.

Answer 36

C
Explanation:
The first arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the fire floor, and the second arriving ladder company shall be assigned to AUGMENT the search and evacuation of the FIRE FLOOR.
HROB 5.3.1 B

Question 37

For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction depending on the duration and intensity of the fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally estimated to be ___ minutes. However, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within ___ minutes.
A: 30; 20

B: 30; 5-10

C: 60; 20

D: 60; 5-10

Answer 37

C
Explanation:
Private Dwellings Ch 6: 1.6

Question 38

What is the proper code to transmit for a fire in a vehicle that has no value other than salvage and no owner can be located?
A: 10-21

B: 10-22

C: 10-23

D: 10-24

Answer 38

C
Explanation:
10-23: Abandoned/Derelict Vehicle Fire (ADV) - A fire in a vehicle that has no value other than salvage and no owner can be located.
10-24: Auto Fire - A fire in a vehicle with plates or in any vehicle having a value greater than that of salvage.
Comm 8 p8

Question 39

As a company officer at the Command Post, ready to be deployed at a large-scale structural fire, the IC designates you the Roll Call Officer (RCO) and tasks you with conducting an emergency roll call. Which of the following is incorrect?
A: First monitor the HT and make sure you are not interrupting any emergency transmissions before transmitting “Roll Call Officer to All Units, Prepare for an Emergency Roll Call”. Then pause to give officers a chance to account for members.

B: Each incident will determine which companies should be called first when the emergency roll call is being conducted. The RCO will have to evaluate the situation to determine which company will be called first.

C: Companies will be called individually. When called, company officers will account for the firefighters of their company that are within sight or hearing without using the HT.

D: If a company officer does not answer when called, the RCO must immediately notify the IC, who in turn must take the required actions for a Missing Member.

Answer 39

D
Explanation:
If a company officer does not answer when called, the RCO will either CALL A FIREFIGHTER operating WITH that officer or CALL ANOTHER COMPANY operating IN THE IMMEDIATE AREA of that officer, in an attempt to locate them. For LADDER COMPANIES this would be the CAN or IRONS firefighter; for ENGINE COMPANIES, the NOZZLE or BACK-UP firefighter should be able to account for their officer. IF these members are unable to account for the officer and the officer STILL has not responded to the roll call, the RCO must notify the IC who in turn must take the required actions for a Missing Member.
Comm 9 Add 2 4.5, 4.6, 4.7, 4.10

Question 40

You are working in L-100 and arrive 2nd due for a top floor fire in a 5 sty OLT with extension to exposure 2. Of the tactics that were carried out during this fire, you were incorrect in which tactic?
A: You and your inside team went to the top floor

B: If the first OV has already vented the fire apartment, then the 2nd OV will vent the adjoining apartment as ordered

C: L-100 Roof FF ascended to the roof with a saw and halligan

D: You directed L-100 LCC to exposure 2

Answer 40

C
Explanation:
Ladders 3
A- Proceed to top floor to assist 1st ladder company in entry and search of all top floor apartments…sec 3.5.2
B- sec 3.5.2
C- Saw and 6’ Halligan Hook 3.4.7
D- 3.5.2