Bx Test 32

Question 1

You are operating as the single Ladder Company at a water leak in an Old Law Tenement when the resident of the apartment with the leak makes an allegation of lost private property. You would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A: Immediately direct a thorough search of the premises from which the property is missing.

B: If the property is not found, and the complainant alleges that the property was at the scene prior to the arrival of the Fire Department, immediately notify the dispatcher to have a Battalion Chief respond.

C: Realize that if it’s alleged the property was taken by a Fire Department employee, BITS will have to be notified.

D: When information involving lost private property is received after the Department leaves the scene of an operation, the Battalion Chief on duty in the Battalion responsible for the report of the operations shall be notified.

Answer 1

C
Explanation:
Realize that if it’s alleged the property was taken by a Fire Department employee, the INSPECTOR GENERAL’S office will have to be notified.
Regs 11.3.16

Question 2

You’re the first due ladder officer to arrive at a structural fire in a 4-story tenement. A few minutes into the operation your roof firefighter contacts you and states that he sees a conduit running along the roof with a reflective orange label. You would be correct to inform him that this is which item below?
A: High voltage wiring.

B: Low voltage wiring.

C: Natural gas piping.

D: Fuel oil piping.

Answer 2

B
Explanation:
High voltage wiring = Red
Low voltage wiring = Orange
Natural gas piping = Yellow
Other compressed gas piping = Yellow labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas
Fuel oil piping = Yellow with black stripes

Cross ref Fires 8 11.6 C:

Hybrid Vehicles: High voltage cables are color coded ORANGE. Although some are color coded BLUE.

AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 3 Pg 5

Question 3

You have just attended your last study group and discussed the final topic, which was units designated with a suffix when assigned a specific task. Choose the most correct suffix in relation to the task.
A: E100S Responding as a Satellite Unit

B: E200I Responding as a High Pressure Engine

C: E300P Responding as a Planning Section Engine

D: E400K Responding as a Division Task Force

Answer 3

D
Explanation:
A- E100S- Communications Unit
B- E200I- FireIce Unit
C- E300P- High Pressure Engine
Communications ch 2 page- 37 (updated 1/29/2019)

Question 4

Ladder 295 is the FAST truck at a fire in the cellar of a taxpayer and a mayday comes in for a member down. Upon arrival, the members must address the issues surrounding air. Which choice regarding air supply is CORRECT?
A: Once a member is located, a FAST Pak must be called for immediately, regardless of whether the member has air or not.

B: Assuring that the distressed member has an adequate supply of air is the first priority.

C: The universal air coupling provides low pressure air replenishment and is for emergency use only when a member is low or out of air within an IDLH.

D: Unless the member is receiving air from their personal facepiece, use the facepiece attached to the FAST Pak.

Answer 4

A
Explanation:
MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS – CHAPTER 3
A IS CORRECT 7.2
B - Removing the member from the IDLH is critical for survival. Assuring that the distressed member has an adequate supply of air is the next priority. 7.1
C – The UAC provides High Pressure emergency air replenishment. 7.4
D – Use the downed member’s facepiece, unless it is damaged or missing, instead of the facepiece with the FAST Pak. 7.7

Question 5

A newly promoted officer instructing the probationary firefighter on proper housewatch duties was correct in which statement?
A: Where the journal supplied does not have a flagging column, unit commanders shall cause a red line to be drawn 7/8” to the right of the existing red line to provide for such column.

B: Pages 495 running backward to 493 shall be ruled and indexed to record chief’s visits.

C: Pages 497 running backwards to 495 shall be ruled and indexed to record company drills.

D: In quarters where a Battalion Depot (mask cylinders) is located, the company journal shall be ruled and indexed for entries by MSU members and chief officers on page 500 running backwards as necessary.

Answer 5

C
Explanation:
A) Where the journal supplied does not have a flagging column, unit commanders shall cause a red line to be drawn 3/8” to the LEFT of the existing red line to provide for such column.
B) Pages 500 running backward to 498 shall be ruled and indexed to record chief’s visits.
D) In quarters where a Battalion Depot (mask cylinders) is located, the company journal shall be ruled and indexed for entries by MSU members and chief officers on page 494 running backwards as necessary.
CJ 3.1 - 3.4

Question 6

Units are responding to a reported gas leak on the third floor of a multiple dwelling. While responding the first due ladder reports “they are responding with four firefighters.” The second due ladder reports they are responding “understaffed.” Which procedure below is correct in this situation?
A: The 2nd due ladder officer transmits “we are responding understaffed.” No additional information is required in this transmission.

B: A total of one additional truck will be assigned to the box after these two transmissions.

C: Both transmissions must be “urgent” transmissions to the dispatcher.

D: When arriving on scene after the first ladder company, the “understaffed” ladder shall take a defensive position.

Answer 6

B
Explanation:
A. The 2nd due ladder officer transmits “we are responding understaffed” AND STATE THE NUMBER OF FIREFIGHTERS RESPONDING.

C. IF THE OFFICER IS HAVING DIFFICULTY GETTING THIS MESSAGE TO THE DISPATCHER DUE TO HEAVY RADIO TRAFFIC, the officer shall transmit an “urgent” transmissions to the dispatcher to ensure the message is heard.

D. When THE UNDERSTAFFED UNIT IS THE ONLY UNIT ON THE SCENE, they shall take a defensive position.

NOTE “B”: WHEN NOTIFIED THAT A COMPANY IS RESPONDING UNDERSTAFFED THE DISPATCHER SHALL SPECIAL CALL ANOTHER UNIT (ENGINE FOR ENGINE, LADDER FOR LADDER ETC.

AN ADDITIONAL LADDER COMPANY (ABOVE THE FAST TRUCK) SHALL BE ASSIGNED ON A 10-75 WHEN BOTH OF THE TWO INITIALLY ASSIGNED LADDER COMPANIES REPORT RESPONDING WITH FOUR FIREFIGHTERS.

AUC 287: 8.2.4, 8.3.2, 8.3.3, 8.3.6

Question 7

Which CIDS entry is written correctly?
A: MD 6 STY 100X80 CL3-DUPLEX APTS ON 2 TO 3 FL-ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL-MINRESP 33

B: MINRESP 33-MD 6 STY 100X80 CL3-DUPLEX APTS ON 2 TO 3 FL-ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL

C: MD 100X80 6 STY CL3-DUPLEX APTS ON 2 TO 3 FL-ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL-MINRESP 33

D: MINRESP 42-MD CL3 6 STY 100X80-DUPLEX APTS ON 2 TO 3 FL-ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL

Answer 7

A
Explanation:
Criteria for CIDS:
1- FD Designation (BWSTRG, CFRH, MJALT, PG, REHAB, MEGA)
2- Occupancy
3- Description of Building (Height, Dimensions, Construction Class)
4- Critical information
Also** A fire protected structure using metal C joists or steel bar joist would be CL2LW
Non-Fire-Proof structure using ANY type of structural LW material would be CL3LW
Wood frame structure using ANY type of structural LW material would be CL4LW
Communications Ch 4 p-7-8

Question 8

A 10-60 assignment is responding to the collapse of a 6 story 40x100 New Law Tenement. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding unit positioning at a collapse operation?
A: The rescue company arrived first and positioned themselves outside of the collapse danger zone as close to the front of the building as possible.

B: Needed for an immediate rescue, the first arriving aerial ladder positioned themselves in front of the collapsed building.

C: The 3rd and 4th arriving engine company chauffeurs positioned the apparatus to seal off the ends of the block.

D: The first arriving engine company took a hydrant outside of the block and stretched to the front of the collapsed building.

Answer 8

C
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
C IS INCORRECT - The third and fourth engines should take similar positions (separate hydrants) at the rear of the structure. 5.3
A – 5.5
B – 5.4
D – 5.3

Question 9

At a train derailment in an under river tube with multiple victims, these victims should be removed in which order?
1. Ambulatory Victims
2. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Red Tag
3. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Yellow Tag
4. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Red Tag
5. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Yellow Tag
6. Black Tag Victims
A: 1,3,2,5,4,6

B: 1,2,3,4,5,6

C: 1,3,2,4,5,6

D: 1,2,3,5,4,6

Answer 9

B
Explanation:
1. Ambulatory Victims
2. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Red Tag
3. Non-Ambulatory Victims - Yellow Tag
4. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Red Tag
5. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication - Yellow Tag
6. Black Tag Victims
URR 7.1

Question 10

The company officer of Engine 200 is preparing for roll call before the start of her tour. She looks at her manpower and notices that she and one firefighter are the only members working that tour, both of whom are CFR trained. When requesting her needed details from the Battalion, how many CFR trained members must this officer request?
A: 0

B: 1

C: 2

D: 3

Answer 10

B
Explanation:
Company officers of CFR units shall ensure that two CFR FIREFIGHTERS will be working each tour. Officers shall notify their respective Battalion for needed details prior to the start of the tour.

NOTE: While CFR Units must begin each tour with two certified FIREFIGHTERS, in the event that during the tour the minimum CFR staffing reduces to 1 FIREFIGHTER AND 1 OFFICER, the company shall remain available for CFR response.

CFR Ch 2: 1.7, 1.8

Question 11

The modified response program has been adopted citywide. The policy goal is to increase responder and civilian safety by reducing apparatus collision exposure, while still providing a high level of service to the public. Of the following, select the most correct choice, which would require a modified response (10-20 mode).
A: Lock-in with reports of food on the stove

B: Salvage Truck

C: 1st due Engine for a BARS

D: 1st due Ladder for a Class “J”

Answer 11

B
Explanation:
A- Emergency mode (no reports of food or other emergency then modified mode)
B- Modified mode
C- Emergency mode
D- Emergency mode
Class E- 1st due Engine OR Ladder response (emergency mode)
Class J- 0700-1900 1 st due Engine OR Ladder response (emergency mode)
Class J 1900-0700 1st due units in emergency mode
Communications ch 6 add 1

Question 12

Your unit arrives as the first due aerial Ladder Company at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4-story Old Law Tenement-type Rowframe. Of the following choices, which action is incorrect?
A: For this fire, the OV FF’s tool assignment includes a 6’ hook, halligan tool, flashlight and HT.

B: After the Roof FF has reached the roof, the LCC should reposition the aerial for VEIS of the fire apartment when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).

C: The Roof FF should proceed to the roof with the halligan tool , 6’ halligan hook, flashlight, HT and Life Saving Rope (LSR).

D: The company officer should inform the Engine Company Officer of the fire location and any unusual layout that will cause difficulty in reaching the fire. Provide and maintain an unobstructed path through which the hoseline can advance.

Answer 12

B
Explanation:
After the Roof FF has reached the roof, reposition the aerial for VEIS of the fire apartment if fire is on the 3rd floor or above when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). When fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using PORTABLE LADDERS when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).
RF 5.7

Question 13

If the bucket of the tower ladder makes contact with a building, structure or other obstruction, a potentially dangerous condition may present itself. The likelihood of the bucket becoming wedged or stuck will dramatically increase and extreme caution must be exercised. When this occurs which statement below is correct?
A: A possible indicator that the bucket is wedged is an inoperable joystick or a throttle decrease (noise level).

B: The P.T.O. should remain engaged and the apparatus shut down.

C: Members in the bucket shall notify their company officer via an “urgent” transmission.

D: Members in the bucket should remain standing while secured to a substantial part of the bucket using the installed safety belt, life belt or personal harness.

Answer 13

B
Explanation:
A. A possible indicator that the bucket is wedged is an inoperable joystick or a throttle INCREASE (noise level).

C. Members in the bucket shall notify THE INCIDENT COMMANDER via an “urgent” transmission.

D. Members in the bucket should remain LOW (IMMEDIATELY CROUCH, SIT OR OTHERWISE REMAIN LOW) while secured to a substantial part of the bucket using the installed safety belt, life belt or personal harness.

Tower Ladder Ch 3 3.6

Question 14

You responded to several calls on your first day out of FLSTP, which included a Class 3, Vehicle accident, CO, Vehicle fire, and a Stuck Elevator. Which signal did you transmit incorrectly?
A: Class 3, you transmitted a 10-35-2 for construction activities

B: Vehicle accident, you transmitted a 10-36-1 for an accident with no injuries and no washdown

C: C.O. run you transmitted a 10-38-2 for CO meter reading of 6 ppm

D: Vehicle fire you transmitted a 10-24 because the vehicle had plates

E: Stuck Elevator call, you transmitted a 10-29-1 because the elevator was occupied

Answer 14

B
Explanation:
10-36-1 vehicle accident or emergency requiring washdown
10-36- 2 vehicle accident, no injuries and no washdown
10-36-3 vehicle accident with injuries
10-36-4 vehicle accident, with or without injuries, with a trapped victim requiring extrication
THIS CHAPTER IS A MUST READ
Communications ch 8

Question 15

The members of Ladder 139 were discussing Members in Distress with the officer while at roll call and there were several statements made. Which one is CORRECT regarding a downed member?
A: Under no circumstances is the officer to get physically involved in the operation. It is the responsibility of the officer to supervise the operation and keep members focused with the job on hand.

B: If the FAST Pak is not at your location, await the member carrying it to save time.

C: If unable to activate the distressed member’s EAB to establish identification, position them on their right side which will provide access to the turnout coat and the PRA identification number which will provide unit and position.

D: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve half-way to guarantee a constant flow of air.

Answer 15

D
Explanation:
MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS – CHAPTER 3
D IS CORRECT – 7.9
A – 3.1 – Unless no one else is available. 3.1
B – 7.8 - If the FAST Pak is NOT at your location, START the removal procedure. Communicate with the member assigned the FAST Pak to determine a suitable location to meet.
C – 10.1.2 - If unable to activate the distressed member’s EAB, key the mic on the distressed member’s handie-talkie to obtain their identity on EFAS.

Question 16

Upon transmission of signal 10-76 and 10-77 Mega High-Rise, the dispatcher shall special call a designated unit to perform the duties of the Lobby Control Unit. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: The LCU shall take on the duties of the Systems Control Unit when directed by the IC.

B: The Company Officer assigned as Lobby Control Unit Leader shall don the ICS vest with the insert “LOBBY CONTROL UNIT LEADER”.

C: While responding, ascertain the identity and designation of the units that have responded or are responding to the incident from the MDT printout.

D: On arrival, promptly report to the Operations Section Chief, or, if not on scene, the Incident Commander.

Answer 16

D
Explanation:
On arrival, promptly report to the LOGISTICS SECTION CHIEF, or, if not on scene, the Incident Commander.
ICS Ch 2 Add 4 2, 3, 4.1, 4.2

Question 17

Multiple alarm units are operating at the scene of a holding operation for a fire in multiple row frames. Hoselines are deployed as follows. Which one was deployed to the correct location?
A: The first line was stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.

B: The second line was stretched to the opposite exposure.

C: The third hoseline was stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.

D: When not needed to back up the first line, the second line was stretched into the fire building.

Answer 17

C
Explanation:
First hoseline
The first hoseline is stretched into the fire building through the front door.

Second hoseline
The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.

Third hoseline

If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure. If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the opposite exposure.

Rowframes 6.5

Question 18

Members assigned to tasks which are not under the “Immediate Supervision” of their Company Officer must contact such Officer before entering a dangerous area and advise such Officer of their status at frequent intervals, especially when attempting tasks not normally associated with their assignment. If contact cannot be made with their Company Officer, they shall contact certain members in priority order. Choose the correct priority order
A: IC, Company Chauffeur, any other HT equipped member

B: Company Chauffeur, IC, any other HT equipped member

C: IC, nearest Company Officer, any other HT equipped member

D: Fire Sector Chief, IC, Company Chauffeur

Answer 18

B
Explanation:
Communications ch 9 sec 9.2.2
Code- CIA
Chauffeur
IC
Any other HT equipped member

Question 19

According to Vacant Buildings, which of the following is CORRECT regarding marking these buildings?
A: Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the front entrance.

B: Permanently sealed doors and windows are sufficient locations to place additional markings.

C: The Letters FO shall be made alongside vacant building markings when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members.

D: The Letters RO shall be made directly over the vacant building markings in cases where the roof is opened to a degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation.

Answer 19

D
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – VACANT BUILDINGS
D IS CORRECT - 3.1
A – Alongside the front entrance at a height that is in line with the area DIRECTLY ABOVE the front entrance. 3.1
B – DO NOT MARK sealed door or windows. The structure should be marked at locations that are likely to remain undisturbed. 3.1
C – Directly UNDERNEATH vacant building markings. 3.1

Question 20

At the scene of a structural fire, the aerial ladder must be positioned properly for safe and effective operations. Which placement operation is not in accordance with Department procedures?
A: The recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2” to 6”. In case of rescue, use the 2” positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it.

B: At a very extreme angle (e.g., placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building) allow the ladder to barely touch the building. This will prevent excessive movement when a member climbs to a high elevation, as during the climb, the ladder will be forced to rest against the building, which then stabilizes it.

C: When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress at this window. Therefore, the ladder tip should be less than 2” over the window sill.

D: For a severe fire with people on the fire escape above the fire, place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from the face of the building, and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.

Answer 20

C
Explanation:
When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress at this window. Therefore, the ladder tip should be less than 6” over the window sill.
Lad 3.1.5, 3.1.6, 3.3.1

Question 21

When operating at the scene of a fire at a ConEd transmission and distribution substation, company officers must be aware of the many hazards involved and ensure their members operate safely. Which tactic below is not in accordance with department procedures?
A: A battery room fire may be extinguished with dry chemical extinguishers or water application from a safe distance.

B: A 3 ½” supply line shall be stretched, but not charged, to the sprinkler siamese if present.

C: Members shall set up handlines and/or large caliber streams to protect exposed buildings around the substation.

D: When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 10-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line.

Answer 21

D
Explanation:
D. When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 18-FOOT safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line.

NOTE “C” Cross ref AUC 338 2.1: Handlines shall NEVER be used on energized electrical components at ConEd facilities.

(BUT YOU CAN USE HANDLINES TO PROTECT EXPOSURES)

AUC 338 Addendum 2: 5.1,5.2,5.5, 6

Question 22

You are giving a drill on the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) during a recent Company Drill. You were incorrect in which choice?
A: The EFAS trained member designated at roll call shall monitor EFAS and the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT for the duration of the incident

B: When communicating by HT the member monitoring EFAS shall be identified by radio designation “EFAS”

C: EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1. EFAS has the capability of monitoring several channels at a time

D: Only EFAS trained members can be assigned to monitor EFAS

Answer 22

C
Explanation:
Communications ch 9 add 3
A- sec 2
B- sec 2.3.note….e.g., EFAS to Command
C- sec 6.1….EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 Channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels. However, it can only monitor ONE channel at a time, therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use……see Comm ch 11 add 3 2.3.note- Encrypted Channels can only be monitored on the portable EFAS as of 5/1/2018
D- sec 11.1

Question 23

You are the officer in the Fast Truck assigned to a fire in the cellar of a private dwelling where the first line does not advance down the main interior cellar entrance due to fire conditions and a second line is entering the secondary entrance. A mayday transmission is received from the second due ladder company’s Irons firefighter. The BC activates you as the fast truck. Based on your knowledge of private dwellings, which is the CORRECT location you’re most likely to encounter this firefighter?
A: Augmenting searches on the first floor.

B: Conducting primary searches on the upper floors.

C: Operating in the cellar conducting searches

D: Making portable ladder removals in the rear

Answer 23

C
Explanation:
Private Dwellings Chapter 4 pg 23
C is correct – 10.4.2 – 2nd Due truck assumes responsibility for searches of the cellar. 1st due conducts primary of the first floor and upper floors. The second arriving ladder inside team will coordinate their advance with the second hoseline into the cellar via a secondary entrance. They will assume responsibility for primary search and examination of the cellar.

Question 24

For a first-floor fire in a Brownstone, each choice below is in accordance with Department policy except?
A: All interior hoselines stretched should be 1 ¾”.

B: The first hoseline is stretched through the front door on the first floor to extinguish the fire.

C: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall immediately be stretched to the top floor of the fire building.

D: If a third hoseline is necessary, it will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.

Answer 24

C
Explanation:
The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched through the FRONT DOOR ON THE SECOND (PARLOR) FLOOR to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.
Bwst 3, 3.2

Question 25

When discussing vertical ventilation tactics with her members, the ladder company officer made the following points. Which one is correct?
A: The change in the fire dynamics of modern contents fires require that all ventilation be controlled, communicated, and coordinated with operations on the fire floor.

B: The ladder company officer shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point, paying particular attention to fire venting out.

C: Vertical ventilation shall not be performed until it is ordered by the ladder company officer.

D: When roof ventilation is delayed, the bulkhead door must remain closed and not even checked for trapped occupants.

Answer 25

A
Explanation:
B. The ladder company officer shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point, paying particular attention to AIR BEING PULLED IN.

C. Vertical ventilation shall BE PERFORMED UNLESS THE ROOF FIREFIGHTER IS ORDERED TO DELAY OR WITHHOLD VERTICAL VENTILATION.

D. When roof ventilation is delayed, THE BULKHEAD DOOR SHALL BE FORCED OPEN TEMPORARILY TO CHECK FOR TRAPPED OCCUPANTS.
Ventilation 9.0, 10.1.1, 10.2.1

Question 26

The terms “MAYDAY” and “URGENT” are intended for use in situations where immediate communication is necessary to protect life or protect injury. From the list below, choose the most correct MAYDAY/URGENT transmission given.
A: MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 FAST OV to Command, MAYDAY. Command to Ladder 100 FAST OV go ahead with your MAYDAY. Ladder 100 FAST OV to command MAYDAY, MISSING MEMBER LOCATED

B: URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Ladder 100 FAST OV to Command, URGENT. Command to Ladder 100 FAST OV go ahead with your URGENT. Ladder 100 FAST OV to command URGENT, LOST MEMBER LOCATED

C: MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 FAST OV to Command, MAYDAY. Command to Ladder 100 FAST OV go ahead with your MAYDAY. Ladder 100 FAST OV to command MAYDAY, COLLAPSE FEARED

D: URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Ladder 100 FAST OV to Command, URGENT. Command to Ladder 100 FAST OV go ahead with your URGENT. Ladder 100 FAST OV to command URGENT, UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER

Answer 26

A
Explanation:
Communications ch 9 pages 3-12
B- MAYDAY
C- URGENT
D- MAYDAY..Life threatening injury or Unconscious member

Question 27

At a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling, when the door to the fire apartment is found closed on arrival, window failure has not occurred, but size-up indicates there is a wind condition, take all of the following actions except?
A: Prior to entry into the fire apartment, a Wind Control Device should be in position above the fire apartment ready for immediate deployment. As a precautionary tactic, the IC may decide to deploy the Wind Control Device over an intact window of the fire room/area.

B: The hoseline can be advanced to the fire apartment and charged.

C: Prior to opening the door of the fire apartment, the Ladder Officer shall get a report on exterior conditions from members operating outside the building and the Roof firefighter operating on the floor above.

D: The Ladder Officer and both members of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform a search for the interior fire area location.

Answer 27

D
Explanation:
The Ladder Officer and ONE MEMBER of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform a search for the interior fire area location while the OTHER MEMBER stays at the fire apartment door INSIDE the apartment, making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position, thereby limiting the flow path.
Also….The door to the fire apartment must remain controlled in the closed position until the Ladder Officer requests the charged hoseline be advanced into the fire apartment or requires other assistance. Generally, the charged hoseline should not be advanced into the fire apartment until the main fire area/room has been located and if possible confined by closing a door. Once the hoseline advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Ladder Officer, the door shall be chocked open.
MD Add 3 5.3

Question 28

The Buckeye Pipeline basic components are two 12” steel pipes. One carries kerosene base aviation fuel and the other several different types of fuels. Which additional statement below is correct concerning operations at the Buckeye Pipeline?
A: Inside each valve box should be three rubber covers, one yellow, one red and one orange.

B: Under the yellow cover, is the square male stem for the manual valve.

C: Under the red cover, there is low voltage wiring.

D: To shut off the valve, turn it clockwise approximately 42 full turns. This task must be performed on both valves at each location.

Answer 28

D
Explanation:
A. Inside each valve box should be a set of rubber covers, one yellow and one red.
B. Under the yellow cover, there is low voltage wiring.
C. Under the red cover, is the square male stem for the manual valve.
D. AUC 149 2.1.5

Question 29

When using the APX8000XE HT radio, how long should you pause after the Push To Talk button is depressed?
A: 1/4 second

B: 1/2 second

C: 3/4 second

D: 1 second

Answer 29

B
Explanation:
Communications ch 11 add 2 sec 1.3

Question 30

You are the first arriving ladder company officer on the scene of a confined space emergency where members will have to make an entry to remove an injured and unconscious worker. Recalling your knowledge of safe atmospheric conditions in which to operate, which choice listed below is INCORRECT?
A: Carbon Monoxide levels not over 35 PPM.

B: Oxygen concentration levels between 18.5% and 22.5%.

C: Hydrogen Sulfide levels not over 10 PPM.

D: Flammability range not over 10% of LEL.

Answer 30

B
Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Confined Space
B IS INCORRECT – 4.1 Oxygen concentrations between 19.5% & 23.5%.

Question 31

In an effort to provide better security for its tenants, the New York City Housing Authority (NYCHA) has begun installing electromagnetic locking devices on the main lobby entrance doors to their buildings. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A: From the outside, these locks are deactivated by a frequency operated button (FOB). When the key FOB is placed by the reader located on the door frame, there will be an audible tone (buzzing) emitted for 7-9 seconds; this tone indicates the electromagnetic lock has been deactivated, at which time the door may be opened.

B: A crash bar lock, also known as a panic bar, is located on the inside of the door. Pushing the crash bar retracts the mechanical latching device and deactivates the electromagnetic lock, allowing the door to be opened from the inside.

C: Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security. This can be done by calling the 24 hour NYCHA Emergency number directly or through the dispatcher. Units can also seek assistance from the building management office at the premise location.

D: Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, and the door will remain unlocked. In this case, units will be able to access a NYCHA building without the use of keys.

Answer 31

D
Explanation:
Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, BUT THE DOOR WILL REMAIN LOCKED by the crash bar lock. A special key will be needed to unlock the door from outside the building and can be requested for use from the building management office at the premise location.
MD Add 4 1-1.4

Question 32

When a CFR company arrives at a medical response, the officer shall transmit the appropriate signal based on the patient condition and/or the care provided by the CFR company. Which additional operating procedure mentioned below is incorrect?
A: A PCR is not required when a CFR company is on-scene (10-84) at a CFR assignment unless patient care is provided.

B: When requesting an ambulance, companies must provide the following information to the dispatcher: CUPS status; age; chief complaint; if CPR is initiated; and the pulse and respiratory rate.

C: Packaging efforts must begin immediately while treating life threats only if the patient is critical.

D: If the patient is potentially unstable or stable, perform the appropriate focused physical exam for the patient.

Answer 32

C
Explanation:
C. Packaging efforts must begin immediately while treating life threats only if the patient IS CRITICAL OR UNSTABLE.

CFR Ch 2 3.10, 3.11, 3.12, 3.13

Question 33

You are responding into a possible terrorist incident when the dispatcher comes on the air and states that all responding units are to switch over to the encrypted tactical channel as per the IC on scene. The correct channel you switched over to can be found in which choice?
A: Channel 3

B: Channel 6

C: Channel 9

D: Channel 10

Answer 33

C
Explanation:
Channel 3 is secondary tactical but not encrypted
Channel 10 is encrypted Command Channel
Encrypted Channels can ONLY be monitored on the portable EFAS as of 5/1/2018
Communications ch 11 add 3 sec 2.3.2.note 7/17/2019

Question 34

The members of Engine 199 and Ladder 199 were at drill and discussing the search assessment marking that were made at the scene of a major collapse they had previously. Which of the following is CORRECT about the markings described below?
A: A large V with a circle and vertical line indicates a victim(s) was removed.

B: A large V with an arrow pointing in the direction indicated a spot where a deceased victim was located.

C: Horizontal and Vertical lines through the large circled V are indications that multiple deceased victims are still located in this void.

D: A large V with a circle and an arrow pointing in the direction indicated the potential location of a victim.

Answer 34

A
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE ADDENDUM 2
A IS CORRECT – Horizontal lines are used to indicate deceased victims. Vertical lines are to indicate that confirmed victims have been removed. Does not specify live or deceased. 5.4/5.5
B – Large Circled V with a Horizontal line through it. 5.4
C – This means that all victims that have been previously located have been removed. 5.5
D – Large V with a circle indicates a confirmed victim. 5.2

Question 35

At a fire operation, placement of the tip of the portable ladder provides for easier and safer mounting and dismounting. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: Placed at a window - Tip shall be level with window sill.

B: Placed at a roof - Tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.

C: Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 inches above the fire escape railing.

D: Placed against a fire escape - Tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.

Answer 35

C
Explanation:
Placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall - Tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing.
Lad 1 7.4

Question 36

When positioning the Tower Ladder the ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to the objective is ___ feet. A test of the intercom system shall be made ___ and at the initial stages of placing the Tower Ladder into operation.
A: 25; daily

B: 25; each tour

C: 32; daily

D: 32; each tour

Answer 36

D
Explanation:
Tower Ladder Ch 1: 1.5; Ch 2: Pg 2

Question 37

In order to give an adequate drill on the new Motorola APX8000XE HT, all company officers should be well versed in its use. From the list below, choose the most correct statement made in regards to the APX8000XE radio.
A: When making a long transmission on the APX8000XE HT, a short audible warning tone at approximately 20 seconds and a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds will be heard

B: To activate the Emergency Alert Button (EAB), depress the orange button approximately one second

C: To reset the EAB, depress EAB for 1/2 second or by turning HT off and then back on

D: The 7 digit numeric ID for Squad 288 BU is 8288004

Answer 37

B
Explanation:
Communications ch 11 new as of 7/17/2019
A- 26, 30….sec 3.3
B- sec 3.5
C- 2 seconds or by turning HT off and then back on…sec 3.5.1.1
D- 8288004 is Hook/Control….. Squad 288 FE/BU- 8288005….sec 4.1….also see Communications ch 11 add 4 p-4

Question 38

Engine 48 and Ladder 56 arrive in that order at a single car accident involving a pin where there are four victims in the vehicle and no fire condition. According to disentanglement and extrication procedures, which is the only CORRECT action taken by the units at this box?
A: The engine split into two teams. The officer and two CFR firefighters went to the car to gain access to the victims, the remaining members stretched a dry precautionary handline.

B: The truck company chauffeur used the apparatus to block traffic before proceeding to chock the wheels of the vehicle.

C: Once the door was popped, the inside team performed patient stabilization.

D: The Roof & OV brought the Hurst tool and equipment to the operation. The power unit was placed in the front of the vehicle.

Answer 38

D
Explanation:
DISENTANGLEMENT AND EXTRICATION
D IS CORRECT 3.3.3 - The power unit should be placed in the front or rear of the vehicle. 4.2.2 - Roof and OV bring Hurst tool equipment to scene of accident and initiate operation.
A – The remaining members shall stretch and charge a precautionary hand line. 4.1
B – The Officer and inside team are responsible for initiating a perimeter survey and chocking the vehicle. 4.2.1
C – If an engine or EMS is NOT on the scene, members shall stabilize the patient. Once an engine or EMS arrives, the inside team can pass off patient stabilization and assist the outside team. The Engine was on the scene. 4.2.1

Question 39

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the “Communications Unit?”
A: To operate as a Communications Unit, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of three trained members. Trained officers count towards this total, however, the Communications Unit does not require a trained officer to be in service.

B: At large, complex operations that will extend over many operational periods (e.g. major collapses, natural disasters, recovery operations) the Communications Unit will be part of the Logistics Section, operating under the Communications Unit Leader.

C: The Communications Unit will report to the Communications Unit Leader (COML), if staffed. If the COML is not staffed, or has not arrived, they will report to the Resources Unit Leader (RESL). If neither the COML nor the RESL is on scene, they will report to the Incident Commander (IC).

D: The officer of the Communications Unit will be designated as the Communications Unit Leader (COML).

Answer 39

D
Explanation:
The officer of the Communications Unit will NOT be designated as the Communications Unit Leader (COML).
ICS Ch 2 Add 3 2.2, 2.3, 3.2

Question 40

Which of the following operations is a FDNY single command event when the NYPD is on-scene first?
A: Auto Extrication

B: Impalement

C: Boat in Distress

D: Gas Emergency

Answer 40

B
Explanation:
SINGLE COMMAND “ABC FEEDS”

AUTO EXTRICATION FDNY OR NYPD (FIRST TO ARRIVE)
BOAT N DISTRESS FDNY OR NYPD (FIRST TO ARRIVE)
CONFINED SPACE
FIRE ELEVATOR INCIDENT OR EMERGENCY
ENTRAPMENT/IMPALEMENT
DOWNED TREE
STRUCTURAL COLLAPSE

NOTE “D” IS UNIFIED COMMAND

AUC 276: 4.2, 5.1

Question 41

Before the arrival of the 2nd arriving BC, the 2nd arriving engine officer shall provide the communications link between the lobby and the fire area pending the establishment of the Fire Sector/Branch during a High-Rise Office Building fire. Choose the incorrect procedure when establishing the communications link.
A: The 2nd arriving Engine Officer will take the 1st arriving BC’s Post Radio and report with his/her company to their normal location, in the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the first handline is being stretched

B: Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the 2nd engine officer shall establish contact with the Incident Command Post on the command channel via the Post Radio. The officer will verify that the Post Radio is in place and give his/her location to the IC

C: The 2nd engine officer will then use the Post Radio on the tactical channel to announce to units in the fire area that a communications link with the Incident Command Post has been established

D: In addition to his/her normal duties, the 2nd engine officer must maintain the communications link with the lobby until the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director arrives on the floor below the fire

Answer 41

C
Explanation:
The 2nd engine officer will then use THEIR HANDIE-TALKIE radio on the tactical channel to announce to units in the fire area that a communications link with the Incident Command Post has been established
Communications Ch 12 sec 6.2

Question 42

While at MUD, the members of Engine 39 and Ladder 16 were discussing scaffolding emergencies and several of the members chimed in with statements. Which of the statements below is INCORRECT according to the bulletin?
A: At an occupied stalled suspended scaffold, evaluate the worker’s safety lines. If present and in good condition, lower down the LSR and have them clip into their harnesses.

B: At an occupied stalled suspended scaffold, If the hoist motor is overheated, allow it to cool for at least 15 minutes and then have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.

C: At an occupied stalled suspended scaffold, generally, there is no need for any firefighter to be lowered by a life-saving rope to reach stranded workers.

D: At an occupied stalled suspended scaffold, a life-saving rope evolution can only lower a victim down and is a very dangerous operation for the victim.

Answer 42

A
Explanation:
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – SUSPENDED SCAFFOLD EMERGENCIES
A IS INCORRECT – 3.2 B & 5.2 – If safety lines are NOT PRESENT OR SUSPECT, lower LSR down to workers.
B – 5.4
C – 5.5 1st bullet point
D – 5.5 2nd bullet point

Question 43

For a fire in a vacant rowframe, in the middle of a block of occupied frames, which line placement consideration below is incorrect?
A: The first to arrive Engine company should drop two hoselines; one 3 1/2” line to supply a TL, and a 1 3/4” hoseline.

B: The first hose line shall enter the most severe exposure.

C: If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second hoseline shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure.

D: The third hoseline is stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.

Answer 43

D
Explanation:
The third hoseline is stretched to the FIRE BUILDING OR OPPOSITE EXPOSURE, depending on where the second hoseline was stretched.
Vacant Buildings in a Row of Occupied Frames
The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one a 3 ½” line to supply a TL, and a hoseline to enter the most severe exposure.
If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second hoseline shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure.
The third hoseline is stretched to the fire building or opposite exposure, depending on where the second hoseline was stretched.
RF 6.7 A

Question 44

When the FireIce extinguishing agent is utilized at the scene of a manhole fire, which of the following provisions is correct?
A: Using a nozzle pressure between 60-100 psi is optimal.

B: The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 25 feet.

C: Only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce.

D: Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately two feet in front of the hole manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole.

Answer 44

C
Explanation:
A. Using a nozzle pressure between 60-80 psi is optimal. (NOTE: 60-100 psi is allowed but 60-80 psi is OPTIMAL).

B. The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 50 FEET. (Note: The nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a MINIMUM SAFE DISTANCE OF 25 FEET)

D. Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately ONE FOOT in front of the hole manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole.

AUC 180 Addendum 2 7.2, 8.3, 8.4, 8.5

Question 45

Spray caps shall NOT be placed on hydrants in all the following cases except _________
A: mains that are 20 inches or less

B: red or yellow hydrants

C: two-way streets or near intersections

D: on bus routes or on access routes to main traffic arteries.

Answer 45

A
Explanation:
A. Mains larger than 20 inches
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 2 sec 3.3

Question 46

Engine 2, a Water/Ice Rescue Company, was out procuring the meal along Spring Creek and is flagged down for a couple of people that fell in the water and cannot get themselves out. One of the members suggests deploying the inflatable water rescue hose. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding this operation?
A: Only Water/Ice Rescue companies are equipped with the inflatable hose and equipment. They will be designated by the suffix “W” on the response ticket.

B: Supply air from either an SCBA or Fast Pak using the Hansen fitting. The hose can be filled directly from a cylinder or if close enough, via the apparatus air outlet.

C: Five lengths of 2½ hose can be inflated in approximately 45 seconds from on standard 45-minute cylinder. The apparatus air outlet can supply 5 lengths in approximately 1 minute.

D: When deployed as a loop it increases buoyancy and can be used for multiple victims. Each looped length is capable of supporting approximately 10 people.

Answer 46

D
Explanation:
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – WATER RESCUE 2 – ADDENDUM 1
D IS CORRECT. 4.1
A – Every company including Battalions carry the yellow water rescue fittings. The equipment is found in the Water Safety Kit that is issued to all units. 1.1 & 2.1 – COMM CH 2 PG 37
B – Do not fill the hose directly from the cylinder. 2.1
C – Both can fill 5 lengths of 2 ½ in approximately one minute. 3.2 & 3.3

Question 47

Part of a company officer’s initial size-up should also include a ventilation profile of the fire conditions. Which comment below concerning size-up is correct?
A: Evaluation of the volume, pressure and velocity of the smoke venting from the building is more important than evaluating the air being pulled into the building.

B: Any unusual ventilation profile must be immediately communicated to the IC only.

C: On arrival, a vented fire should not be considered a favorable condition; we must still control, communicate and coordinate all ventilation tactics.

D: While in the Growth stage, the fire may no longer have enough pressure to push smoke from the building.

Answer 47

C
Explanation:
A. Evaluation of the volume, pressure and velocity of the smoke venting from the building is EQUALLY AS IMPORTANT AS evaluating the air being pulled into the building.

B. Any unusual ventilation profile must be immediately communicated to the LADDER COMPANY OFFICER INSIDE THE FIRE AREA TO BE VENTED AND THE IC.

D. While in the DECAY STAGE, the fire may no longer have enough pressure to push smoke from the building.

Ventilation 4.1

Question 48

You the Lieutenant are working in E-100 for the 9X6 tour when you receive a CFRD cardiac run to 2300 Southern Blvd in the great Borough of the Bronx. Upon arrival, and EMS already on scene, you initiate contact to EMS utilizing what HT channel?
A: Channel 1

B: Channel 10

C: Channel 11

D: Channel 14

Answer 48

A
Explanation:
Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. Engine 100 to EMS)
When the use of HT Channel 1 is impractical, EMS/Fire frequency (Channel 10) may be used at non-fire emergencies to facilitate communications such as a MCI
Communications ch 14 add 1 sec 2

Question 49

Engine companies will arrive at a medium fire condition in a vacant 1 story 50x100 taxpayer subdivided into four stores. Which Engine Company tactic is INCORRECT according to Firefighting Procedures Vacant Buildings?
A: The members of the Engine 1 stretched a 1¾” hand line to the fire store.

B: Engine 2 was dedicated to the task of supplying water to a Tower Ladder in order to ensure proper water delivery.

C: Engine 3, operating from a purely defensive position stretched a 2½” line to the front of an exposure.

D: Following an exterior attack and interior risk assessment, Engine 4 advanced a 1¾” hand line into the fire building to complete final extinguishment.

Answer 49

A
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – VACANTS
A IS INCORRECT – Members should stretch hose line consistent with dept policies for each building type – 6.1A medium or heavy fire in a taxpayer requires 2 ½ hose. TXPR 7.12
B – 6.1B
C – 6.1C
D – 6.1F

Question 50

At a fire in a high rise office building, what is the recommended pump discharge pressure for a fire on the 64th floor?
A: 350 psi

B: 400 psi

C: 450 psi

D: 500 psi

Answer 50

C
Explanation:
Floors 61 to 70 - 450 psi
HROB 4.1.7

Question 51

Exterior Insulation Finish System (EIFS) can be found in combustible and non-combustible occupancies including offices, taxpayers, factories, hotels, multiple dwellings and private houses. When encountering these systems, which of the following operating procedures is correct?
A: Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, a Tower Ladder must be special called.

B: Initial handlines should only be positioned for an exterior attack on the fire.

C: If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building.

D: A 2 ½” hoseline must be stretched for a fire in any EIFS building.

Answer 51

C
Explanation:
A. Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, AN ADDITIONAL ENGINE AND LADDER SHALL BE SPECIAL CALLED. THE SPECIAL CALLED LADDER SHALL BE A TOWER LADDER IF ONE IS NOT ASSIGNED ON THE FIRST ALARM.

B. Initial handlines should be positioned for BOTH AN INTERIOR AND EXTERIOR attack on the fire.

D. THE SIZE OF THE HANDLINE STRETCHED IS DEPENDENT ON THE SIZE OF THE BUILDING AND THE EXTENT OF THE FIRE. A BUILDING 3 STORIES OR HIGHER, OR A LARGE AREA BUILDING, MAY REQUIRE THE USE OF A 2 ½” HANDLINE. A 1 ¾” HANDLINE MAY BE SUFFICIENT FOR A SMALLER PRIVATE DWELLING.

AUC 362: 2.2, 2.3, 2.8

Question 52

All units must know how to recognize Class 2 Multiple Dwellings. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: Horizontal Bands or Belt Courses will usually be present above the windows of the 1st, 2nd or 3rd floors. This feature varies from building to building and it may be located above only one of the floors, all or any combination.

B: The majority are 8-18 stories. A small percentage are taller and have been discovered up to 32 floors with a single stair.

C: Color or type of brick will be uniform throughout and can be constructed of limestone block.

D: Building sizes vary from 45’ x 45’ to more than 200’ x 250’.

Answer 52

C
Explanation:
MD ch 4 sec 3
The lower one, two or three floors may have a different color or type of brick or be constructed of limestone block.

Question 53

When operating at the scene of a medical response, company officers must follow CFR protocols. Which protocol mentioned below is correct?
A: The CFR unit is not required to complete a PCR if the patient is DOA.

B: When the patient is exhibiting dependent lividity FDNY personnel must begin resuscitation efforts.

C: When a patient refuses medical aid, a PCR is not required.

D: If a patient is exhibiting altered mental status or appearing to be an emotionally disturbed person declines to accept treatment, the officer in charge should request police assistance and remain on the scene until the arrival of EMS.

Answer 53

D
Explanation:
The CFR unit IS REQUIRED to complete a PCR if the patient is DOA.

B. FD personnel will begin resuscitation efforts of a patient UNLESS THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS EXIST: OBVIOUS DEATH; DEPENDENT LIVIDITY; RIGOR MORTIS; DECOMPOSITION; VALID DO NOT RESUSCITATE ORDER.

C. When a patient refuses medical aid, a PCR IS REQUIRED.

CFR Ch 2 sec 4.4, 4.6, 4.9.1, 4.10

Question 54

When operating at a Hazardous Material incident, scene security and control involves preventing or reducing the exposure to any civilian or responder, as well as preventing the transfer of hazardous substances by civilians, members and equipment from the Exclusion Zone to the Support Zone. Choose the most correct procedure when operating within these zones.
A: Contamination Reduction Corridor is established in the Exclusion Zone

B: Yellow barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Exclusion Zone

C: Red barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Contamination Reduction Zone

D: Safe Refuge Area is established in the Contamination Reduction Zone

Answer 54

D
Explanation:
A- Contamination Reduction Zone
B- Red tape
C- Yellow tape

ERP Hazardous Materials sec 4

Question 55

The members of Ladder 32 were drilling on roof operations with the probationary firefighter and asked her which cut number in the sequence represents the 6’ long cut. The sharp proby responded with which CORRECT answer?
A: Cut #1

B: Cut #2

C: Cut #3

D: Cut #4

Answer 55

C
Explanation:
LADDERS 3
C IS CORRECT – PG 54 PICTURE – Cut #3 is the 6’ long cut. All others are 3’.

Question 56

All units should be familiar with the operation of building fire pumps in high rise office buildings. Which of the following choices contains correct information?
A: Building fire pumps are usually located in the cellar or sub-cellar and fire lines connected to them should be painted black.

B: The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem in). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a clockwise direction.

C: It is never permissible to start pumps as ordered without checking the bypass valve. Notify the Fire Safety Director upon his/her arrival of any actions taken.

D: The efficiency of the pump will not be affected if the bypass is open. A loss of 45% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 25% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open.

Answer 56

B
Explanation:
A) Building fire pumps are usually located in the cellar or sub-cellar and fire lines connected to them should be painted RED.
C) It IS permissible to start pumps as ordered without checking bypass valve. Notify the ENGINEER upon his/her arrival of this and any other actions taken.
D) The efficiency of the pump WILL be affected if the bypass is open. A loss of 25% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 45% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open. HROB 4.12 D, E, 4.18 B

Question 57

Ladder 80 has just taken up from a challenging brush fire operation. The company officer gathers her members for an informal critique of the fire. She makes the following points. Which one is incorrect?
A: In all circumstances, units responding to a brush fire shall never self-commit to operations.

B: If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place capable of protecting operating forces.

C: Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Have units positioned on streets at the top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire from the bottom of the hill.

D: Use extreme caution when brush fires burn near utility transmission lines. Never operate hoselines beneath high voltage lines.

Answer 57

A
Explanation:
A. Units responding to a brush fire ARE NOT TO self-commit to operations UNLESS STRUCTURES ARE EXPOSED.

AUC 151: 5.1.2, 5.4.6, 5.4.16, 5.11.11

Question 58

The Department of Transportation numerically classifies chemicals according to their major hazardous characteristics. The correct numerical classification for Corrosives can be found in which choice?
A: 9

B: 8

C: 7

D: 5

Answer 58

B
Explanation:
There are 9 Classifications
1- Explosives
2- Compressed gases
3- Flammable Liquids
4- Flammable Solids
5- Oxidizers
6- Poisons
7- Radioactive Material
8- Corrosives
9- Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
Hazardous Materials 2 sec 2.1

Question 59

Ladder Company operations can vary based on first and second due arrival as well as the type of apparatus and where the fire is. Which choice CORRECTLY describes the first option for ladder company operations in tenement buildings? (Another available member is always available as a second option)
A: At a fire on the 3rd floor front of a 5 story OLT w front and rear fire escapes, where the 1st arriving ladder is an aerial, the 1st and 2nd OV’s teamed up to VEIS the fire apartment off the front fire escape.

B: At a fire on the top floor of a 5 story OLT with a rear fire escape, where the first ladder is an aerial, the 1st roof and OV teamed up to VEIS the fire apartment off of the rear fire escape.

C: At a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story OLT with a rear fire escape, where the 1st ladder was a tower ladder, the 1st and 2nd roof firefighters teamed up to VEIS the floors above the fire apartment from the rear.

D: At a fire on the 4th floor front of a 5 story OLT with front and rear fire escapes where the 1st arriving ladder was a tower ladder, the 2nd OV and Chauffeur teamed up to VEIS the floor above via the front fire escape.

Answer 59

D
Explanation:
LADDERS 3
D IS CORRECT – 3.4.6 #4 PG 27 TOP
A – 1st OV & LCC team up to enter the fire apartment from the front fire escape. 3.2.5 #4 pg 12
B – 1st & 2nd OV’s team up to VEIS the fire apartment from the fire escape 3.2.5 #2 pg 12 top
C – 1st & 2nd roof FF’s team up to VEIS the fire apartment from the rear fire escape when 1st truck is TL. 3.3.5

Question 60

Safety is of the utmost importance when operating at any incident on a highway. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: Normally, operating across a center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up.

B: When encountering a barrier, divider or highway separation of any type (permanent or temporary) the IC shall select an area for access to the incident only after visually identifying the preferred area of crossing and directing a member to use a tool to test the surface on the opposite side of the barrier, divider or highway separation for the presence of a solid and stable surface.

C: Once chosen, a safe crossing corridor shall be the only means of access and egress utilized at a particular incident unless otherwise directed by IC. When established, it shall be clearly marked (cones/barrier tape) to identify the designated area.

D: When a hazardous separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Safety.

Answer 60

D
Explanation:
When a hazardous separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of OPERATIONS.
Note: If a safe crossing corridor cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation.
B Note: Once the presence of a solid and stable surface is verified, this location should be communicated to all members.
C Note: In addition, at night or whenever visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means of lighting to illuminate the area.
TB Fires 8 9.1 C

Question 61

Ladder 300 arrives at the scene of a transformer fire. As the officer approaches the scene, the on-scene utility company representative informs the officer that the transformer is a NYC owned Non-PCB transformer. The officer should expect to see which color label?
A: Yellow

B: Red

C: Blue

D: Green

Answer 61

C
Explanation:
PCB Transformers: EPA label
PCB Contaminated Transformers (NYC owned only): DEP Yellow Label
Non-PCB Transformer (NYC owned only): DEP Blue Label

AUC 266 1.5.1, 1.5.3, 1.5.4

Question 62

You are first to arrive to a vehicle (truck) accident with possible hazardous materials involved. Your initial action is to ID the material by various means such as visible placards, labels, chemical names, and symbols on the container, tank, drum, or vehicle. When unable to ID the material through these means, you decide to ask the driver for the shipping papers. The correct name of the shipping papers and location where they are kept can be found in which choice?
A: Bill of Lading and kept in the cab within reach of the driver

B: Cargo manifest and kept near or attached to the hazardous material

C: Waybill bill and kept in a clear folder under the drivers seat

D: Air bill and kept near or attached to the hazardous material

Answer 62

A
Explanation:
Truck- “Bill of Lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver
Railroad- “Waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine
Aircraft- “Air bill” is kept by the pilot
Ships- “Cargo Manifest” is kept by the master or first mate
Hazardous Material 2 sec 4.4

Question 63

Members are operating at the scene of a 2½ story peaked roof private dwelling fire with window bars throughout and the fire is in the cellar with extension to the first floor. There is a secondary entrance to the cellar through a Bilco door in the rear and heavy smoke is showing from the attic windows and louvered vents. Which choice below represents INCORRECT firefighting procedures at this fire?
A: Operating as the only officer 10-84, the 1st arriving engine officer ordered the hand line operated into a cellar window on the advanced cellar fire.

B: Unable to locate an interior stair and operating as the only available hand line, the engine officer had the members reposition the line to the rear entrance.

C: The FAST truck was utilized to remove some of the window bars from the cellar and first floor windows pending the arrival of the extra truck.

D: Upon arrival, the extra truck made sure to remove at least one window bar on the fire floor and on the floor above for placement of ladders.

Answer 63

B
Explanation:
CROSS REFERENCE – PRIVATE DWELLINGS – FAST TRUCK – SB 84 WINDOW BARS
B IS INCORRECT – The decision to reposition the first hoseline to a secondary entrance can only be made by an Acting Chief Officer/Chief Officer. 2.7.4.
A – PD’S Chapter 3 2.6 – the IC (Chief or Company Officer)
C – MMID CH 4 – 4.1 – Under IC - Have the FAST unit provide additional egress routes while still maintaining unit integrity, e.g., remove window bars, place portable ladders.
D – Safety Bulletin 84 4.8

Question 64

All members should be familiar with the proper use of elevators. Of the following choices, which is correct?
A: When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 8th floor or below units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.

B: Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within seven floors of the fire floor.

C: When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, if Fireman Service is available, use a car with the Fireman Service feature. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.

D: Not more than five members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.

Answer 64

C
Explanation:
A- When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 7th FLOOR OR BELOW units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.
B- Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within FIVE FLOORS of the fire floor.
D- Not more than SIX members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.
TB Emerg 1 6.1.2, 6.1.3, 6.1.4, 6.1.8

Question 65

The proper position of the Tower Ladder varies depending on the type of building involved. Which apparatus position described below is incorrect?
A: The Tower Ladder can potentially cover six Rowframes.

B: When performing a rescue at a tenement, the preferred method of rescue is the angular approach where the member operating the bucket first raises the bucket up to the victim’s level, and out of the victim’s reach, and then extends in for the rescue.

C: The positioning of the Tower Ladder in the courtyard or rear lot of an H-type building can be used to prevent the spread of fire across the throat.

D: At a taxpayer, the Tower Ladder should be positioned to operate at the roof level and protect exposures.

Answer 65

D
Explanation:
D. At a taxpayer, the Tower Ladder should be positioned to operate at the STREET level and protect exposures.

Tower Ladder Ch 2: 2.1.2, 2.1.3, 2.1.4, 2.1.5

Question 66

The first arriving units at a chemical release in a subway will be incident driven. However, for the most part, the first arriving units have predetermined assignments in place according to FDNY procedures.Choose the Company/Team that incorrectly carried out their assignment.
A: First arriving Ladder/Team 1 performed evacuation and hazard assessment

B: First arriving Ladder/Team 2 performed site access

C: Second arriving Ladder/Team 1 directed ambulatory victims from the Safe Refuge Area to the Gross Decontamination Area

D: Second arriving Ladder/Team 2 defined initial Exclusion Zone with red Haz-Mat barrier tape

Answer 66

B
Explanation:
First arriving Ladder/Team 2 performed BACK-UP to first arriving Ladder/Team 1
First arriving Ladder/Team 1- Evacuation and Hazard Assessment
First arriving Ladder/Team 2- Back-up
Second arriving Ladder/Team 1- Evacuation to Gross Decon
Second arriving Ladder/Team 2- Site Access Control
ERP add 2 sec 6

Question 67

Ladder 199 is assigned on a single unit response for a steam leak. Upon arrival they find a High Energy Line Break in a building. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding this type of response?
A: If possible, members should wait for Con Edison personnel to shut the necessary valves.

B: In an emergency, members should attempt to shut the building steam shutoff outside the building.

C: Do not shut the inside service valve. This valve should only be shut by Con Edison Personnel.

D: High Pressure steam pipes inside buildings are typically insulated, but unlike the street, a HELB in a building will not result in an asbestos release.

Answer 67

A
Explanation:
STEAM EMERGENCIES
A IS CORRECT. 4.4
B – FD members should not attempt to shut this valve. 4.4
C – In an emergency, members may shut the Inside service valve. 4.4
D – Steam pipes are typically insulated and a HELB in a building will likely release asbestos inside the building. 4.4

Question 68

Two Ladder Company members discussing the Pak-Tracker identified which incorrect comment made earlier in the tour?
A: The maximum range from an SCBA’s transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 900 feet line of sight.

B: The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres.

C: Pak-Trackers are currently carried by all ladder, rescue and squad companies and shall be brought to the Incident Command Post by the FAST unit, rescue and squad companies.

D: When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full-alarm for 10 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA’s identity (unit and member assignment) and relative signal strength.

Answer 68

B
Explanation:
The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is NOT suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres.
C Note: A member of the FAST unit will monitor the Pak-Tracker. The rescue and squad Pak-Tracker’s will remain at the command post as a backup should the FAST unit be deployed.
TB SCBA Add 8 2.1, 3.1, 4.1, 5.2

Question 69

Which of the following forms may contain a DNR order that is valid in the pre-hospital setting?
A: Health Care Proxy

B: Living Will

C: Power of Attorney

D: MOLST

Answer 69

D
Explanation:
A, B, & C are not recognized in a pre-hospital setting.

If a MOLST form is presented as evidence of a DNR Order, review the MOLST to confirm it contains a DNR Order.

CFR Ch 2 Addendum 1 3.6, 3.7, 3.8, 4.1.4

Question 70

The incorrect position/tactic when operating at an explosion (Post-Detonation) can be found in which choice?
A: First arriving engine company properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims

B: With Ladder companies on scene, the 2nd arriving engine officer will report to, and remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control until relieved by a BC

C: First arriving Ladder officer to enter the Point of Impact and begin conducting a rapid assessment tagging only deceased victims (black tag)

D: One of the duties of the second arriving Ladder company is to report to the Triage Transfer Point and assist in the removal of patients to either Treatment Areas or the Transportation Sector

Answer 70

A
Explanation:
2 1/2” hoseline
Remember, if no Ladder on scene and all actions in choice A have been taken, first arriving engine officer to enter the Point of Impact and begin conducting rapid assessments
ERP add 3 p- 13- 17

Question 71

Proper handling of evidence is essential to any investigation involving a suspicious fire. Which choice below is the only correct way to preserve evidence?
A: One method is to use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials. This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a new or used paint can.

B: If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid.

C: Try to avoid the use of plastic bags. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic.

D: A plastic container can be used in an emergency. As soon as possible, place into a can or jar and submit to the Fire Marshal.

Answer 71

B
Explanation:
A) One method is to use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials. This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a NEW paint can (NEVER use a can that was previously used.)
C) Try to avoid the use of plastic CONTAINERS. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container.
D) A plastic BAG can be used in an EMERGENCY. It should be new, of heavy gauge and used in pairs. Place evidence into one bag and tie it closed. Then place that bag into the other and tie it closed. As soon as possible, place into a can or jar and submit to the Fire Marshal.
TB Arson 2.3 Note, 3.3, 5.3-5.3.4

Question 72

A company officer should be aware that which of the following situations requires a written notification to BITS?
A: A members dangerous misuse of Department vehicles.

B: A member has a serious confrontation with a civilian.

C: Preference of charges against a member.

D: Reporting the arrest of a Department member.

Answer 72

C
Explanation:
Phone Notification: “ABCD”

Arrest of member; Alcohol on duty
Brawl between members
Confrontations with civilians, PD, or other government agencies which may lead to disciplinary action.
Dangerous misuse of a Department vehicle, Drugs on duty

Written Notification: “IMMAC”

Incompetence
Misconduct not falling within jurisdiction of IG
Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time.
Arrest of member (follow up information)
Charges (Preference of charges against a member)

AUC 268: 3.1, 4.1

Question 73

Out-of-service hydrants can be a priority repair if they fit a certain criteria. Which of the following hydrants shall not be indicated as a “Priority Repair” to the DEP?
A: If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, they are both priority repairs.

B: A hydrant that is out of service near vacant structures.

C: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of high-profile locations

D: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of critical infrastructure locations

Answer 73

B
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 2 sec 2.8.1

Question 74

In most situations, the 2nd arriving engine company will team up with the 1st arriving engine to operate the 1st hoseline. This is especially important in a taxpayer, as the advance of a charged 2 ½” hoseline can be grueling. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. Regarding this operation, which is correct?
A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving officer to confirm this.

B: The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine officer to confirm this.

C: The hose stretches are long but complete, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged.

D: There may be a need for a 2nd hoseline to address possible fire extension or a life hazard.

Answer 74

B
Explanation:
TAXPAYERS 7.1.6
A. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this.
C. The hose stretches are sufficiently short
D There is an immediate need

Question 75

Conventional engine apparatus in the FDNY are equipped with a two-stage centrifugal pump. These apparatus’ have a total rated capacity of 2,000 GPM and a maximum pressure rating of ___ psi.
A: 700

B: 600

C: 500

D: 250

Answer 75

B
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 2 sec 2.1

Question 76

The ladder officer working in the quarters of Engine 100 and Ladder 100 enters the kitchen during his night tour and discovers two on-duty and two off-duty members of the truck drinking what appears to be alcoholic beverages. No other members are involved. He immediately takes the following actions. Which one is correct?
A: He prohibits the on-duty members from leaving the premises. He allows the off-duty members to leave quarters.

B: He notifies the administrative BC and the IG.

C: He immediately has the Engine and Ladder placed out of service.

D: He documents the incident in the company journal

Answer 76

D
Explanation:
A. He prohibits the on-duty AND OFF-DUTY members from leaving the premises.

B. He notifies the administrative BC and BITS.

C. He immediately has the Ladder placed out of service. (NOTE: ONLY THE AFFECTED UNIT. THERE WERE NO MEMBERS OF THE ENGINE INVOLVED)

“PROBBE”

Prohibit ON AND OFF-DUTY members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving the premises without the permission of the investigating officer.
Relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty.
OOS: Have the AFFECTED UNIT placed OOS.
BITS: Notify BITS
BC: Notify the administrative BC
Entry in the company journal

AUC 202: 5.5

Question 77

The FDNY also has a number of engine apparatus that have a 3rd stage, designated as “3rd Stage Engines”, which have a total rated capacity of 2,000 GPM and have a maximum pressure rating of ____
A: 700 psi

B: 600 psi

C: 800 psi

D: 500 psi

Answer 77

A
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 2 sec 2.1.3

Question 78

Firefighter Jones suffered a hand injury while helping prepare the meal on a detail to Engine 199. Which action taken by the officer was CORRECT regarding the injury and CD72?
A: Because the injury occurred in quarters, once the report was generated, the officer entered the 16-digit FDID number on the report.

B: With or without the member’s signature, the report must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure.

C: Upon completion of the report, the officer printed two copies of the injury report. One copy was sent to be filed in his assigned company’s Uniformed Filing System, and the other sent to be filed in his personnel folder.

D: The officer on duty prepared a letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the particulars of the incident.

Answer 78

B
Explanation:
SAFETY BULLETIN 7 – CIRS
B IS CORRECT 4.1 - All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
A - If the injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 9’s in the 16 digit space and the Supervisor will be required to provide the address or cross streets where the injury/exposure occurred (e.g. address in front of hydrant, address of training academy, firehouse) 3.4
C- The Supervisor shall print two copies of the Injury/Exposure Report. File one copy in the member’s personnel folder and file the other copy in the Uniformed Filing System IN THE UNIT WHERE THE MEMBER WAS WORKING WHEN THE INJURY/EXPOSURE OCCURRED. Detailed or covering members shall have a copy of their Injury/Exposure Report forwarded to their assigned unit. 4.2
D – The Battalion Chief investigating the injury is responsible for this report. 4.3

Question 79

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the search rope?
A: Inspect the search rope after each use and repack it monthly.

B: A single marker is set at 25 feet, two markers set at 50 feet, three markers set at 75 feet, four markers set at 100 feet, five markers set at 125 feet, six markers set at 150 feet and the last set of seven markers for 175 feet.

C: Ensure the rope is dry before packing.

D: If it becomes necessary to relieve a unit at a forward point of the search, the relieving company should enter the area to be searched with their right hand in contact with the rope (if possible). The company being relieved should exit the IDLH with their right hand in contact with the rope (if possible.)

Answer 79

A
Explanation:
* Recent Upate*
Repack and inspect quarterly
TB Tools Rope 6 sec 3.4, 8.2, 13

Question 80

Taxpayer fires can be some of the most challenging fires our members face, and proper line placement is critical to successful operations. Which of the following line placements described below is correct?
A: First hoseline must go through the front entrance

B: First hoseline at an advanced fire was stretched to protect the occupied exposure.

C: Second hoseline must back up the first hoseline without exception if heavy fire is encountered.

D: At a cockloft fire, the second line must immediately go to the most severe exposure.

Answer 80

B
Explanation:
B, In certain cases, particularly occupied exposures, the first hose line stretched may need to be stretched and operated to protect life or the property of the exposed structures. Large caliber streams may also need to be positioned early in the operation and utilized to protect life or the property of the exposed structures.
First Hoseline: Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine and Ladder Officer. After size-up, the first hoseline should be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire.
B. Second Hoseline: Initially positioned and charged outside the fire building as a back-up for the first hoseline. When not needed to back-up the first hoseline, it can be used to extinguish any fire discovered in an adjoining store, in the cellar, or the upper floor of a 2-story taxpayer.
C. Third Hoseline: The use of a third line (and any additional hoselines) shall be directed by the IC to cover additional stores, exposures, the roof of the fire building, or to reinforce lines already in operation when necessary. IC’s must also be aware of the need to stretch a 3 ½” supply line to a Tower Ladder early in an operation when fire conditions indicate the potential need for an exterior attack.
Note: It is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine company to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area or potential fire area is protected by a sprinkler system.
Taxpayer 7.3.1

Question 81

As the first arriving officer to a fire in a Place of Worship, size-up is a major concern, especially when it comes to early collapse. From the choices listed below, choose the most correct statement as it relates to collapse in a Place of Worship.
A: A steeple atop a bell tower is more stable than a dome above a tower

B: Both older and newer architecture Places of Worship are susceptible to early collapse

C: When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones, exposures 2, 3, and 4 sides are the most dangerous areas during a fire

D: Tower Ladders should be placed directly in front of the building to provide direct access to the Rose window and attic ventilation opening for water application to extinguish fire in the concealed attic or cockloft

Answer 81

B
Explanation:
FFP Places of Worship
A- A steeple atop a bell tower is MORE UNSTABLE than a dome above a tower…sec 4.2
B- Sec 4.3
C- Exposures 1,2,4……sec 4.7
D- TLs should be placed NEAR the front of the structure, in a “corner safe” area outside of the collapse danger zone……..1,2 corner 1,4 corner p-1 and sec 5.2.4

Question 82

Companies in Battalion 24 will arrive at a fire in a Commercial building that is still under construction. The fire is on the 54th floor and units were advised by the night watchperson that the 55th floor was poured sometime within the last 24 hours. Based on our knowledge of buildings under construction, which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding this fire scenario?
A: Units arriving on the 54th floor would expect a fast-moving fire caused by the heavy fire load as a result of the temporary storage of the wood forms from the most previously poured floor.

B: Units moving up in the building will discover that beginning at the 51st floor, the floors have been stripped of their supporting plywood forms and are in the curing stage. The 4x4” studs will be placed every eight feet indicating reshoring.

C: When fire involves the plywood formwork and/or supporting timbers of the most recently poured floor, structural damage could occur ranging from spalling, cracks, sag, partial or complete failure.

D: For a fire on the 54th floor, the structural stability of that floor would not be considered sound. This floor will not have cured sufficiently despite its use as the base for the shoring and forms above.

Answer 82

C
Explanation:
SB 7 ch 5
A - The storage of sheets of plywood and wooden timbers previously stripped from a cured floor. This lumber is usually stored on the floor which is two levels below the most recently poured floor 2.2.1
B -Will usually be found on at least eight floors below the most recently poured floor. 2.11
D - The structural stability of the actual floor below the most recently poured floor is generally considered sound because this floor should have cured and set-up sufficiently to be used as the base for the shoring and formwork above 2.10

Question 83

All members should know how to place a foam handline into operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: The proper location for the eductor is one length from the pumper outlet. Ensure a sufficient quantity of AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate (five-gallon containers) is at the location of the operating pumper.

B: For 1 ¾” hose, the maximum stretch is six (6) lengths to the nozzle. For 2 ½” hose, the maximum stretch is ten (10) lengths to the nozzle.

C: The ECC should provide 200 PSI at the eductor.

D: When operating uphill, head pressure is created and will have minimal effect on foam production; however, this could cause the needle on the go-gauge to approach the red.

Answer 83

A
Explanation:
The proper location for the eductor is AT THE PUMPER OUTLET ONLY. Ensure a sufficient quantity of AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate (five-gallon containers) is at the location of the operating pumper.
TB Foam Evol 1 2.2 - 2.4

Question 84

New ventilation procedure discuss some critical fire dynamic concepts that are important to understand regarding fire development. Which concept described below is correct?
A: The exchange of air is bidirectional when there are vent openings on the same level and the level above the fire.

B: When air flows in towards the fire, and smoke and heat flows out from the same vent opening, this is known as a unidirectional flow path.

C: The Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve differs from the Modern Fire Behavior curve but the fire will behave the same way up until the Growth Stage.

D: With the Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve, the stage where firefighters can effectively operate and extinguish the fire, thereby limiting fire growth and smoke production is the Elongated Decay Stage.

Answer 84

D
Explanation:
A. The exchange of air is bidirectional when there IS A SINGLE VENT OPENING ON THE SAME LEVEL AS THE FIRE.

B. When air flows in towards the fire, FROM ONE VENT OPENING KNOW AS THE INLET WHILE HEAT, SMOKE AND FIRE VENT OR EXHAUST FROM ANOTHER VENT OPENING KNOWN AS THE OUTET, THIS IS KNOWN AS A UNIDIRECTIONAL FLOW PATH.

C. The Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve differs from the Modern Fire Behavior curve but the fire will behave the same way up until the ELONGATED DECAY STAGE.

Ventilation 2.2, 2.3, 2.4.7

Question 85

Which tactic was incorrectly performed at a recent Loft building fire?
A: In a Newer Cast-Iron loft building, FFs opened up sections of a Segmental Arched floor checking for extension

B: Initially, all hoselines stretched shall be 2 1/2”

C: During a cellar fire in a Cast-Iron loft building with a sprinkler servicing the fire area, if the first engine has not supplied it, the second engine shall stretch a supply line to feed this system

D: During a lower floor fire in a Cast-Iron loft building with a sprinkler servicing the fire area, if the first and second engine couldn’t supply the sprinkler, the third engine will ensure the sprinkler system is supplied

Answer 85

A
Explanation:
A- Segmental arch floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse….sec 5.2.1
B- sec 6.1.1, 6.3.1, 6.3.2
C- sec 6.1.1.B
D- sec 6.2.2

Question 86

Clutter conditions are described as Light, Medium, & Heavy. Which choice is CORRECT regarding these conditions?
A: In a medium clutter condition there is minimum concern for entrapment, structural issues or unusual fire spread.

B: In a Heavy Clutter condition, Smoke/CO detectors may or may not be present or working properly.

C: In a Medium Clutter condition, primary searches may be possible but delayed. Secondary searches will be delayed.

D: In a Light Clutter condition, entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement.

Answer 86

C
Explanation:
SAFETY BULLETIN 92 – CLUTTER
C IS CORRECT – PAGE 4 CHART
A – Light Clutter under Access/Egress
B – Medium Clutter under member safety
D – Medium Clutter under Access/Egress

Question 87

Officers should know how to instruct members in the proper use of the power saw as well as maintenance of this tool and associated blades. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: Place Carbide Tip Blades out of service when six (6) or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade or two (2) or more tips are broken or missing from the 12-tooth blade, when the blade is cracked, or if the center hole wears out of round.

B: Discontinue use and discard abrasive discs whenever they are cracked or badly nicked, the center hole wears out of round, or the disc is worn down to 8” diameter or less.

C: To begin a cut using the Diamond Blade, bring the blade into contact with the material to be cut, then run the engine at a speed such that the material to be cut does not get caught in the spacing at the outer edge of the blade and cause the blade to bounce or bind. The speed is gradually increased as the blade cuts into the material.

D: If the Diamond Blade becomes glazed over and cuts ineffectively, it can be cleaned by running the blade through an abrasive material such as concrete. This will expose more diamonds on the blade’s edge.

Answer 87

A
Explanation:
Place Carbide Tip Blades out of service when EIGHT (8) or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade or THREE (3) or more tips are broken or missing from the 12-tooth blade, when the blade is cracked, or if the center hole wears out of round.
C Note: Then work at full throttle and allow the blade to cut the material. Do not apply excessive pressure as doing so may damage the blade.
TB Tools 9 Add 1 2.1.3, 2.2.6, 2.3.16, 2.3.17

Question 88

DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape shall be used to isolate designated areas that members should not enter. Members may only enter the area marked off by this tape in certain situations. Which one mentioned below is incorrect?
A: To save life.

B: When authorized by the Safety Chief.

C: When authorized by the Sector Chief.

D: When authorized by the Incident Commander.

Answer 88

B
Explanation:
Code: “SIL”

Sector Chief
Incident Commander
Life

AUC 360 2.3

Question 89

The incorrect procedure when deploying the K.O. curtain can be found in which choice?
A: The K.O. Curtain shall never be deployed in the horizontal position

B: The 2nd arriving ladder company officer will coordinate the deployment once ordered

C: The IC and the ladder company officer on the fire floor will be notified when the K.O. Curtain is in position fully covering the target window

D: The request for removal of the K.O. Curtain will only be made by the ladder company officer inside the fire apartment after consulting with the spotter outside the fire building

Answer 89

D
Explanation:
Evolution 34
A- sec 5.4
B- sec 1.2.note
C- sec 5.11
D- The request for removal of the K.O. Curtain will only be made by the ladder company officer inside the fire apartment after consulting with the engine company officer in charge of the hoseline inside the apartment…..sec 5.14

Question 90

Which of the following tactical decisions was CORRECT according to ladder company operations for a fire on the top floor of a 5-story old law tenement with fire escapes on the front and rear?
A: The 2nd arriving ladder company inside team assisted the first Ladder Company in entry and search of all top floor apartments.

B: The 1st arriving OV proceeded to the roof and unable to descend, assisted with roof ventilation operations prior to attempted ventilation of the fire apartment.

C: The 2nd arriving LCC was not needed in front of the building so he assisted with searches of the apartments on the fire floor.

D: The 1st arriving ladder company inside team forced entry into the fire apartment and immediately began their search for fire victims.

Answer 90

A
Explanation:
LADDERS 3
A IS CORRECT – 3.5.2 Pg 28
B – If unable to descend the fire escape, notify the ladder company officer, attempt coordinated ventilation of the fire apartment from roof level, and then assist the roof firefighter with the roof vent. 3.2.5 #2 pg 12
C – If not needed in front of the building, the 2nd LCC proceeds to the roof. 3.5.2C
D – 1st inside team penetrates to the seat of the fire and try to contain it by shutting a door or using a portable extinguisher, a thorough primary search must be started at this point. 3.2.1 #7.

Question 91

The Digital In-line Gauge is a valuable tool for Engine Companies. Which of the following features is incorrect?
A: The Blue LED readout displays pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) and the Red LED readout displays water flow in gallons per minute (gpm).

B: The gauge is not to be pre-connected to a folded length of hose. It is powered by a rechargeable lithium ion 9 volt battery to provide optimal power and longevity for 5 hours of operation.

C: An effective firefighting stream for a 2 ½” hoseline with a 1 1/8” MST is between 225 and 250 gallons per minute (GPM). Therefore, the goal is to obtain a residual pressure (nozzle open, water flowing) of approximately 70 PSI for a 3 length stretch or 80 PSI for a 4 length stretch, with a flow of 225-250 GPM.

D: Suspect kinks if the pressure reading is normal or higher and the flow is reduced below normal. Suspect a burst length if the pressure reading is normal or lower and the flow is increased above normal.

Answer 91

A
Explanation:
The RED LED readout displays pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) and the BLUE LED readout displays water flow in gallons per minute (gpm).
TB Tools 36 2.1, 3.1 A, E, F

Question 92

When completing a Pre-hospital Care Report (PCR) which general procedure outlined below is incorrect?
A: When a CFR company applies and turns on their AED during cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, the original PCR shall be immediately faxed and forwarded to the Office of medical affairs.

B: The chauffeurs name must be entered on the PCR whether or not he/she provides care.

C: Circle the name of the member completing the PCR.

D: To make corrections on the PCR, members shall place a single line through the word(s) to be omitted or corrected and write the accurate information above the word(s) to be corrected.

Answer 92

B
Explanation:
B. If the chauffeur does not provide patient care, DO NOT ENTER his/her name on the PCR.

CFR Ch 5 2.1, 3.4, 4.19

Question 93

Thermal imaging cameras (TIC) shall be carried and used at all structural fire operations by all units equipped with this tool. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Operators shall utilize the supplied carabineer and retractor and ensure that when attached, the TIC is accessible and does not interfere with their Personal Protective Equipment.

B: Operators of TICs should remember to stay low and scan slowly, if necessary, utilizing a six (6) sided method of scanning to compensate for the narrow, approximately 50 degree field of view of the TIC.

C: Thermal imaging does not see through clear glass or plastic; these materials may act as a mirror to IR. Likewise, shiny surfaces will reflect IR creating a mirror effect with the actual source of the image opposite the reflected surface. Thermal imaging will not see through water.

D: The focal point of a TIC is approximately 6 feet from the camera lens. Operators viewing objects within 6 feet may be too close and objects within 6 feet may be blurry, out of focus or featureless. To help prevent this, operators should scan an area before entering or advancing.

Answer 93

D
Explanation:
The focal point of a TIC is approximately 3 FEET from the camera lens. Operators viewing objects within 3 FEET may be too close and objects within 3 FEET may be blurry, out of focus or featureless. To help prevent this, operators should scan an area before entering or advancing.
B Note: Note: Begin by looking straight up overhead at the ceiling (1), slowly lower the TIC to find the seam of the ceiling and the wall in front of you (2). Then follow the seam around left (3) and right (4) or right and left to estimate the size of the room eventually lowering the thermal imager scanning the floor area (5) and remembering to look to the rear (6).
TB Tools 27 3, 3.3, 4.1-4.5

Question 94

When driving through standing water, the depth of water to be crossed should not exceed ___ inches for first line apparatus.
A: 12

B: 18

C: 24

D: 50

Answer 94

B
Explanation:
The depth of water to be crossed should not exceed 18” for first line apparatus, and 50” for FDNY Hi-Axle vehicles.

AUC 159: 5.4.3

Question 95

Engine 1 responds to a fire in a HRMD and needs to supply the standpipe on the 88th floor. The ECC correctly gives ____ psi.
A: 540

B: 520

C: 560

D: 580

Answer 95

A
Explanation:
Eng ops ch 8 add 2 chart

Question 96

Members of the FDNY have seen an uptick in the amount of chemical suicide incidents throughout the five boroughs. Of the procedures listed below, choose the incorrect procedure when operating at a chemical suicide incident.
A: Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. This line is primarily for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion

B: Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy prior to entering

C: Remove patient from the hazardous environment and check for responsiveness. Remove patients clothing and flush with copious amounts of water as a part of emergency decon before transport

D: Upon confirmation, transmit a 10-80-1 and ensure the response of NYPD

Answer 96

A
Explanation:
This line is primarily for DECONTAMINATION; the line can also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion
Hazardous Materials ch 11 sec 4.1

Question 97

Battalion 99 stopped by for drill and was discussing steam leaks and high energy line breaks to which the companies responded. Which of the following statements made during the drill was CORRECT?
A: Never enter a Con Edison generating plant without Con Ed personnel, unless there is a confirmed life hazard.

B: A vent stack on the street with a blue stripe on the top of it indicates a leaking steam main.

C: At a Con Ed facility, plant personnel will mitigate the emergency. FD should only enter to perform search and rescue for missing plant personnel.

D: High heat may make it impossible to enter the affected area for search and rescue, however, the level of oxygen in the air is unaffected by steam.

Answer 97

C
Explanation:
STEAM EMERGENCIES
C IS CORRECT – 4.1
A – The bulletin does not address confirmed life hazards. Never enter a Con Edison facility without Con Edison personnel. 4.1 When entering a plant, stay close to the provided escort and be guided by their advice.
B – 4.3 - If a vent pipe has a blue stripe on the top of it, this indicates that the steam is the result of a water leak, not a leaking steam main.
D – 4.4

Question 98

Ladder 200 is operating at the scene of a person pinned underneath a subway car. The on-scene BC informs the truck officer that power removal is pending confirmation by the FDNY dispatcher. The officer of Ladder 200 orders one of his members to shut power via the power removal box. Which action described below is incorrect?
A: After activating the power removal box, the member immediately contacted the Desk Superintendent via the emergency telephone.

B: The member located the power removal box and emergency telephone near a blue light.

C: Following the operation, the officer of Ladder 200 forwarded a letterhead report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations with full particulars.

D: The activation of the power removal box does not alleviate the Officer in Command of the responsibility of requesting and confirming the removal of power via the FDNY dispatcher.

Answer 98

C
Explanation:
C. Following the operation, THE INCIDENT COMMANDER forwarded a letterhead report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations with full particulars.

NOTE: The question stated the BC was on-scene, therefore the report is his/her responsibility.
AUC 207: 3.2.4, 8.1

Question 99

For a fire on the 15th floor of a 16-story Class 2 building, units should follow the procedures in each of the choices below except?
A: The 2nd Ladder Roof FF should bring the Halligan Hook, Halligan, LSR and Life Belt, drop off the LSR to the floor above (floor 16), then proceed to the roof.

B: If fire escapes are not available/accessible and no outside operations are required, the 2nd LCC should communicate with their officer to determine duties.

C: If fire escapes are not available/accessible the 2nd OV FF should anticipate elevators not being equipped with fire service and realize service elevators may need to be operated in manual mode.

D: The 2nd Ladder Officer & Forcible Entry Team will communicate with the 1st Ladder Company upon arrival. Unless needed to augment operations on the fire floor, the 2nd Ladder Company will proceed to and operate in the apartment above the fire.

Answer 99

A
Explanation:
Prior to proceeding to the roof bring the LSR to the floor above the fire. When the fire floor is WITHIN TWO FLOORS OF THE ROOF, proceed to the roof with the LSR. If LSR rescue is required, assist in rescue.
MD 8.8.7-8.8.10