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Question Bank > FT Capts 3 > Flashcards

FT Capts 3 Flashcards

1
Q

At chemical suicide incidents, the primary threat to first responders is?
Select one:
a. Blood-Borne pathogens
b. Inhalation
c. Skin absorption
d. Flammability

A

B
(HM 11-2)
The correct answer is: Inhalation

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2
Q

An Engine arrives first on the scene of an apparent chemical suicide incident in a van in a parking lot. In this situation, they would be correct to think they should?
Select one:
a. Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached, primarily for vapor dispersal
b. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1, and insure the response of the fire marshals
c. If the victim is still alive, remove the victim’s clothing and flush the victim with copious amounts of water
d. Vent the vehicle immediately upon making entry

A

C
(HM 11—4, 4,1)
The correct answer is: If the victim is still alive, remove the victim’s clothing and flush the victim with copious amounts of water

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3
Q

Which odor below is correctly linked with the gas product listed?
Select one:
a. Hydrogen Cyanide gas - Rotten eggs odor
b. Nitrogen gas - Fruity odor
c. Phosphine gas - Fish or garlic odor
d. Hydrogen Sulfide Gas - Bitter almond odor

A

C
(HM 11-Pg 4)
The correct answer is: Phosphine gas - Fish or garlic odor

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4
Q

Engine 298 arrives at a CFR-D response where the use of fentanyl by an unconscious victim is suspected. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. Symptoms of fentanyl exposure include pinpoint pupils, low blood pressure and shallow breathing
b. Treatment should never take place in the area of suspected exposure
c. After administering Naloxone, wait 5 minutes, and if the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 9 breaths per minute, administer a repeat dose of Naloxone
d. If an overdose is strongly suspected and the patient’s respiratory rate is 9 per minute or less, administer Naloxone

A

C
(HM 18—3,4)
The correct answer is: After administering Naloxone, wait 5 minutes, and if the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 9 breaths per minute, administer a repeat dose of Naloxone

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5
Q

Members operating at a 10-75 are exposed to synthetic opiods during firefighting efforts. Regarding their contaminated PPE, they would be most correct to?
Select one:
a. Maximize the use of free chlorine-based decontamination solutions on their PPE
b. Bag items requiring decontamination in double sealed clear plastic bags with an attached label
c. Spray their gear with copious amounts of water so it will excessively drip off
d. Remove contaminated PPE using techniques that will aerosolize the powdered contaminants

A

B
(HM 18—5.2, 5.3)
The correct answer is: Bag items requiring decontamination in double sealed clear plastic bags with an attached label

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6
Q

An officer conducting drill on Lithium Ion Storage Systems was incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. An explosive atmosphere can be created in enclosed areas by the flammable gases produced by lithium ion batteries
b. Containers are defined as small to medium size storage enclosures. Be aware that containers may not have exhaust systems
c. Uninterruptible Power Supply applications should not be shut down by members without consulting the building engineer
d. Grid support systems should not be shut down by members without consultation of the utility personnel

A

B
(HM 19—2, 3, 4)
The correct answer is: Containers are defined as small to medium size storage enclosures. Be aware that containers may not have exhaust systems

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7
Q

First alarm units arrive at a Lithium Ion Storage System location where they find no fire or smoke showing from any of the containers at the scene. In this situation, they would be incorrect to take which action?
Select one:
a. Establish a danger zone a minimum of 50 feet from any container exhaust fan
b. Ensured all members stayed behind the fencing surrounding the ESS location
c. Stretched both a precautionary handline and supply lines to the FDC for the water extinguishing system
d. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1

A

A
(HM 19—5)
The correct answer is: Establish a danger zone a minimum of 50 feet from any container exhaust fan

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8
Q

When operating at a Lithium Ion ESS location at a hospital facility, where there is no fire or smoke showing, and there is no rise in temperature of any batteries, members would be correct to take which action?
Select one:
a. Ensure a minimum of a 100-foot danger zone is maintained around all containers
b. Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC
c. Charge the FDC water extinguishing system
d. Transmit a 10-80 No Code
e. Shut down the ESS

A

B
(HM 19—5)
The correct answer is: Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC

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9
Q

When operating at a Lithium Ion ESS location owned by Con Ed, where there is no fire or smoke showing from any container, but there is a rise in temperature of some batteries, members would be incorrect to take which action?
Select one:
a. Shut down the ESS under direction of the Con Ed White Hat rep
b. Charge the FDC water extinguishing system
c. Be aware that exhaust fan openings are usually located on the container on the same side as the FDC
d. Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC

A

C
(HM 19—5)
The correct answer is: Be aware that exhaust fan openings are usually located on the container on the same side as the FDC`

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10
Q

When operating at a Con Ed Lithium Ion ESS location where there is fire and smoke showing from a container, first alarm units would be correct to take which action(s)?
Select one or more:
a. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 signal
b. Ensure a 50 foot danger zone is maintained around all containers
c. Charge the FDC water extinguishing system
d. Use at least a 30 degree fog pattern to cool adjacent exposures
e. Shut down the ESS, but this may only be done under the direction of the Con Ed White Hat
f. Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC

A

A,B,C,F
(HM 19—5)
The correct answers are: Charge the FDC water extinguishing system, Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC, Ensure a 50 foot danger zone is maintained around all containers, Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 signal

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11
Q

Regarding the POST FIRE considerations after a Lithium Ion ESS fire, it would be most correct to think that?
Select one:
a. FDNY personnel may perform overhauling only after consult with the SME
b. FDNY personnel may open container or cabinet doors after consult with the SME and assurance the fire is extinguished
c. Decommissioning the fire watch is the responsibility of the FDNY IC
d. FDNY personnel may enter containers only after consult with both Haz Mat and the SME

A

B
(HM 19—6)
The correct answer is: FDNY personnel may open container or cabinet doors after consult with the SME and assurance the fire is extinguished

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12
Q

An officer drilling on the Digital In-Line Gauge was incorrect when he stated that?
Select one:
a. The red LED readout indicates pressure
b. The blue LED readout indicates gallons per minute of water flow
c. The gauge may be preconnected to a folded length of hose
d. The gauge does not regulate water flow

A

C
(TB Tools 36—1.1, 2.1, 3.1A)
The correct answer is: The gauge may be preconnected to a folded length of hose

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13
Q

An effective firefighting stream for a 2 ½” hoseline with a 1 1/8” MST is between?
Select one:
a. 275-300 GPM
b. 200-225 GPM
c. 225-250 GPM
d. 250-275 GPM

A

C
(Tools 36—3.1E)
The correct answer is: 225-250 GPM

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14
Q

Which point concerning operations with the Digital In-Line Gauge is correctly stated?
Select one:
a. The goal is to obtain a static pressure of 70 psi for a 3-length stretch and 80 psi for a 4-length stretch
b. Pressure and flow alerts are a direct indication of unsafe conditions
c. Kinks should be suspected if the pressure reading is normal and the flow of water is increased
d. If the gauge fails to display upon initial start-up, make one more attempt to turn the gauge on

A

D
(TB Tools 36—3.1 E, F, 4.1)
The correct answer is: If the gauge fails to display upon initial start-up, make one more attempt to turn the gauge on

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15
Q

The red digital readout will alternately flash ______, when pressure exceeds ______.
Select one:
a. HI-PSI, 100 psi
b. HI-PSI, 200 psi
c. HI-P, 200 psi
d. HI-P, 100 psi

A

C
(TB Tools 36—4.1)
The correct answer is: HI-P, 200 psi

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16
Q

The blue digital readout will alternately flash ______, when water flow exceeds ______.
Select one:
a. HI-FLO, 250 gpm
b. HI-F, 250 gpm
c. HI-F, 275 gpm
d. HI-FLO, 275 gpm

A

B
(TB Tools 36—4.1)
The correct answer is: HI-F, 250 gpm

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17
Q

The blue digital readout will alternately flash ______, when water flow is less than _____.
Select one:
a. LO-FLO, 80 gpm
b. LO-F, 100 gpm
c. LO-FLO, 100 gpm
d. LO-F, 80 gpm

A

D
(TB Tools 36—4.1)
The correct answer is: LO-F, 80 gpm

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18
Q

Regarding the batteries utilized for the Digital In-Line Gauge, it would be most correct to state that?
Select one:
a. When a slowly flashing “LO batt” occurs, the battery shall be swapped as soon as possible
b. The gauge is powered by a special 9v rechargeable lithium ion battery. Other battery types may be used in an emergency.
c. Batteries should be rotated and recharged weekly and after use
d. After 3 hours of usage, the digital readout will slowly flash “LO batt”.

A

C
(TB Tools 36—5.3, 5.6)
The correct answer is: Batteries should be rotated and recharged weekly and after use

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19
Q

The Digital In-Line Gauge will display a digital readout of “LO batt” flashing rapidly when ____ minutes of battery life remain?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 15
c. 10
d. 30

A

C
(TB Tools 36—5.3)
The correct answer is: 10

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20
Q

Which point concerning the “Floor Jack” is correct?
Select one:
a. Its maximum capacity is 3000 pounds
b. It takes 4 pumps to achieve the maximum height
c. The load must be centered on the floor jack saddle
d. Its maximum lifting height is 15 inches

A

C
(Tools 37—1, 4.3)
The correct answer is: The load must be centered on the floor jack saddle

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21
Q

Engine 324 is setting up its “Blitzfire” at a 3rd alarm fire to protect exposures 2 and 2A utilizing the oscillating feature of the Monitor. They should be aware that the monitor?
Select one:
a. Needs a minimum of 175 psi to oscillate
b. Can be set up to oscillate horizontally with either a 20 degree, 30 degree or 40 degree sweep
c. Has a vertical stream range from 15 degrees to 90 degrees above the horizontal
d. Should be supplied with only one 3 ½” supply line

A

B
(TB Tools 38—4.4, 6.2, 6.3, 7.1)
The correct answer is: Can be set up to oscillate horizontally with either a 20 degree, 30 degree or 40 degree sweep

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22
Q

The maximum inlet pressure for the Blitzfire with any type of solid stream tip or fog nozzle is?
Select one:
a. 175
b. 125
c. 200
d. 150

A

A
(TB Tools 38—4.1, 7.3)
The correct answer is: 175

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23
Q

When operating at the maximum inlet pressure, the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor will flow approximately _____ gpm with the 1 ¼” solid stream tip?
Select one:
a. 490
b. 500
c. 600
d. 550

A

A
(TB Tools 38—7.5 B)
The correct answer is: 490

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24
Q

Which point concerning the use of the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is correctly stated?
Select one:
a. It can be operated with either a fog nozzle or solid stream stacked tips of 1 ¼”, 1 ½” or 2”
b. The safest method of restraining the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is to use a utility rope around a substantial object which is then tied off to the Blitzfire’s forward attachment point
c. When using solid stream tips, the Blitzfire’s integrated stream shaper should be supplemented with another stream shaper attached to the solid stream tip to reduce stream break up and provide better reach
d. The Max-Force Dual Pressure Fog Nozzle adjusts from straight stream to a 135-degree wide fog pattern

A

C
(TB Tools 38—7.2, 7.4B, 7.5A, 8.2)
The correct answer is: When using solid stream tips, the Blitzfire’s integrated stream shaper should be supplemented with another stream shaper attached to the solid stream tip to reduce stream break up and provide better reach

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25
Q

Members drilling on the Beluga Auto Glass Knife were correct to state that?
Select one:
a. The knife can be used to cut Laminated Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows, commercial construction glass and residential construction glass
b. The Beluga blade will push the bulk of the debris towards the vehicle compartment
c. All 2018 and newer automobiles and trucks are required to have laminated safety glass installed on all windows except the rear window.
d. The Beluga blade cutting head can swivel 180 degrees and penetrates less than 3/8”

A

A
(TB Tools 39—2.1, 2.3, 3.2, 3.4, 3.5)
The correct answer is: The knife can be used to cut Laminated Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows, commercial construction glass and residential construction glass

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26
Q

The kindling, building, maintaining or use of an open fire in NYC is prohibited with five exceptions. Which exception is not stated correctly?
Select one:
a. Coke fueled salamanders at construction sites
b. Approved open fires used for special effects in connection with television, motion picture, theatrical and other entertainment productions
c. Outdoor non-commercial barbecue fires in equipment provided by and located in city parks
d. Portable outdoor barbecues at Group R-1 and R-2 occupancies
e. Training of fire brigades where such training is required by law, rule or regulation

A

D
(AUC 5 Add 3—Pg 1)
The correct answer is: Portable outdoor barbecues at Group R-1 and R-2 occupancies

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27
Q

Engine 255 arrives at the scene of a fire reported in the rear of a Private Dwelling. When they arrive, they find a patio fireplace in the back yard, fueled by LPG, being used for ambiance at a house party. As this is the first time they have ever been to this dwelling, they would be correct to believe that use of this device is?
Select one:
a. Illegal, and they should order the use of the outdoor fireplace discontinued immediately
b. Illegal, and they should order the use of the outdoor fireplace discontinued immediately and serve a criminal summons
c. Legal, if they have an FDNY permit and there is an emergency shut off gas valve installed
d. Legal, if it is located at least 5 feet from the house, no closer than 5 feet to any combustibles, and not within 5 feet of any exits

A

A
(AUC 5, Add 3—Pg 2)
The correct answer is: Illegal, and they should order the use of the outdoor fireplace discontinued immediately

28
Q

Which point concerning the use of portable outdoor barbecues is correct?
Select one:
a. Portable outdoor barbecues require a readily accessible garden type hose attached to a water supply or a minimum of one portable fire extinguisher
b. There cannot be any windows or doors within 10 feet of a portable outdoor barbecue in use
c. Portable outdoor barbecues shall not be stored or used within 15 feet of any combustible waste, combustible material, or on any combustible building surface
d. The total grate area of a portable outdoor barbecue shall not exceed 8 square feet

A

A
(AUC 5, Ch 2, Add 3, Pg 3)
B, C. Portable outdoor barbecues shall not be stored or used within 10 feet of any combustible waste, combustible material, or any combustible building surface, including combustible roofs and decks. To the maximum extent feasible, windows, doors and other building openings within 10 feet of a barbecue in use shall be kept closed. An entrance door shall be closed immediately after entering or exiting the building while the barbecue is in use.
D. The total grate area of a portable outdoor barbecue shall not exceed 10 square feet

29
Q

Regarding the use of portable outdoor barbecues at R-2 occupancies, it would be correct to state that?
Select one:
a. Indoor storage of 16.4 ounce containers at a Group R-2 is limited to four containers per dwelling unit
b. 20-pound LPG containers may only be used on the ground level of a Group R-2 premises
c. Barbecues designed for use with LPG containers may be used or stored or the premises of a Group R-2 provided there is a readily accessible Class “K” extinguisher available
d. LPG containers may only be 16.4 ounces or 20 pounds at a Group R-2

A

A
(AUC 5, Chap 2, Add 3—Pg 3)
The correct answer is: Indoor storage of 16.4 ounce containers at a Group R-2 is limited to four containers per dwelling unit

30
Q

Regarding the use of portable outdoor barbecues at R-3 occupancies, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Barbecues designed for use with LPG containers may be used or stored on the premises of a Group R-3 occupancy
b. At R-3 occupancies, the maximum indoor storage of 16.4 ounce containers is limited to four per dwelling unit
c. Twenty-pound LPG containers may be used on a rooftop or balcony of an R-3 occupancy only when the roof or balcony is completely made of noncombustible material and there are no combustibles within 10 feet
d. At R-3 occupancies, LPG containers may be either 16.4 ounces or 20 pounds

A

C
(AUC 5, Chap 2, Add 3—Pg 3)
The correct answer is: Twenty-pound LPG containers may be used on a rooftop or balcony of an R-3 occupancy only when the roof or balcony is completely made of noncombustible material and there are no combustibles within 10 feet

31
Q

Combustible material stored inside of a building must be maintained _____ or more below the ceiling in areas of buildings not protected by a sprinkler system, or a minimum of _____ below sprinkler head deflectors in areas protected by a sprinkler system?
Select one:
a. 18 inches, 18 inches
b. 2 feet, 18 inches
c. 2 feet, 2 feet
d. 18 inches, 2 feet

A

B
(AUC 5, Chap 2, Add 3—Pg 4)
The correct answer is: 2 feet, 18 inches

32
Q

A company officer is supervising fire operations on the roof of a New Law Tenement building where he notes the presence of conduit that is color coded orange, and piping that is color coded yellow. In this situation, he would be most correct to think?
Select one:
a. The conduit has low voltage wiring and the piping has natural gas
b. The conduit has high voltage wiring and the piping has fuel oil
c. The conduit has high voltage wiring and the piping has natural gas
d. The conduit has low voltage wiring and the piping has fuel oil

A

A
(AUC 5, Chap 2, Add 3—Pg 5)
The correct answer is: The conduit has low voltage wiring and the piping has natural gas

33
Q

All conduit and piping installed after July 1st, 2014 shall be both color coded and continuously labeled.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

A
(AUC 5, Chap 2, Add 3—Pg 5)
The correct answer is: Agree

34
Q

Regarding the placement of fire emergency markings on entrance doors to dwelling units in Group R-1 or Group R-2 buildings, it would be correct to state that?
Select one:
a. Fire emergency markings are not required on stairwell doors
b. Multi-floor dwelling units always require fire emergency markings, regardless of the number of dwelling units on a floor, unless the building is sprinklered throughout,
c. Fire emergency markings, when required, shall be placed not more than 12 inches from the bottom of the door
d. If there are 8 or more dwelling units on a floor, and the building is not protected by a sprinkler throughout, fire emergency markings are required on all entrance doors

A

C
(AUC 5, Chap 2, Add 3—Pg 6)
The correct answer is: Fire emergency markings, when required, shall be placed not more than 12 inches from the bottom of the door

35
Q

Whenever a building is required to have fire emergency markings on entrance doors to dwelling units, stairwell doors will then always be required to have approved markings on the door jamb on the public corridor side not more than 12 inches from the bottom of the door?
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

B
Except in buildings protected throughout by a sprinkler system.
(AUC 5, Chap 2, Add 3—Pg 6)
The correct answer is: Disagree

36
Q

Captain Markings arrives at a fire in a High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling reported on the 14th floor of the building. When he gets to the 14th floor hallway he finds a medium smoke condition in the public hallway so he proceeds with the Extinguisher FF to try and locate the open door. He then locates an open door which is obviously the fire apartment because heavy smoke is coming from it and sees the fire emergency marking on the door jamb indicated below. In this situation, the Captain should be aware that the fire apartment is a?
★
1
4
A
15A
↑
Select one:
a. Sandwich apartment, with only one door on the 14th floor
b. Duplex apartment, with only one door on the 14th floor
c. Duplex apartment, with the primary entrance door on the 14th floor and a secondary entrance door on the 15th floor
d. Sandwich apartment, with the primary entrance door on the 14th floor and a secondary entrance door on the 15th floor

A

C
(AUC 5, Ch 3, Add 7)
The correct answer is: Duplex apartment, with the primary entrance door on the 14th floor and a secondary entrance door on the 15th floor

37
Q

Which one of the following points concerning operations at Foreign Embassies, Consulates, and Missions is not correctly stated?
Select one:
a. Diplomats, Consulates, their families and their staff may refuse permission for members to enter their Embassies, Consulates, and Missions, but may not refuse entry to members into their legal residences
b. Diplomats have been issued Department of State Identification cards. Diplomat’s rights extend to their families and their staff
c. Consults do not possess Department of State Identification cards, but they shall be treated in the same manner as Diplomats
d. All Embassies, Consulates, and Missions are to be entered into the CIDS program

A

A
(AUC 196—1.1, 2.1, 4.3)
The correct answer is: Diplomats, Consulates, their families and their staff may refuse permission for members to enter their Embassies, Consulates, and Missions, but may not refuse entry to members into their legal residences

38
Q

Ladder 12 arrives first at a multiple dwelling in a Loft building on the West Side that for a report of smoke from a window. Members find a light smoke condition showing from a Diplomat’s apartment on the 3rd floor. The L-12 Officer is greeted by a staff member for the Diplomat at the front of the building who states they do not want the FDNY to enter. In this situation, the officer would be most correct to think that?
Select one:
a. A Tower Ladder should be positioned in the front of the building for exterior operations or possible rescue and a portable ladder should also be raised for a possible rescue
b. The first arriving Engine should stretch a 1 ¾” hand line to the front of the building
c. The Ladder Officer should attempt to negotiate that at least one member be allowed to enter to investigate conditions
d. If entry is allowed, immediately evacuate the apartment if any explosives or ammunition are found anywhere in the dwelling

A

D
(AUC 196—4.5)
The correct answer is: A Tower Ladder should be positioned in the front of the building for exterior operations or possible rescue and a portable ladder should also be raised for a possible rescue

39
Q

When operating at Foreign Embassies, Consulates, Missions, or the residences of diplomats or consulates, members would be correct to believe that?
Select one:
a. Once the FDNY is granted entry, personnel in these facilities must let members complete their tasks, including overhaul when necessary
b. Embassy personnel cannot refuse to let relief companies in after they have granted access to the FDNY
c. The dispatcher must be notified that the incident is in one of these locations as soon as it is known, and immediately notified of any progress or denial of entry
d. The FDNY may order occupants to leave, and they must comply whenever the IC determines conditions are life-threatening

A

C
(AUC 196—4.7, 5.3)
The correct answer is: The dispatcher must be notified that the incident is in one of these locations as soon as it is known, and immediately notified of any progress or denial of entry

40
Q

The First Responder’s Bridge and Tunnel Manual “Field Guide” is correctly described in which point below?
Select one:
a. The Field Guide is designed for use by First Responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components, and assess if the structure is compromised
b. The Field Guide may be used to decide whether to activate any rescue or evacuation procedures
c. The Field Guide is designed to allow first arriving members to decide whether to commit resources
d. The Field Guide is designed for use by First Responders to perform initial damage assessment and provide information from the scene

A

D
(AUC 344—1.2, Pictures, 1.4, 1.5)
The correct answer is: The Field Guide is designed for use by First Responders to perform initial damage assessment and provide information from the scene

41
Q

An Engine, Ladder, and BC arrive at the scene of an explosion on the Brooklyn Bridge which appears to be a terrorist act. In this situation, they would be correct to think?
Select one:
a. An incident assessment report must be given to the dispatcher using the “Operations” section of the guide book
b. Members should use the orange Field Guide to identify affected structural members
c. Information gathered by the engine or ladder must be directly transmitted by company officers to the Command Chief
d. The dispatcher must be notified what happened, what is the life hazard, what actions are firefighter taking, is the bridge secured, and the magnitude and location of damage to bridge components

A

D
(AUC 344—1.4)
The correct answer is: The dispatcher must be notified what happened, what is the life hazard, what actions are firefighter taking, is the bridge secured, and the magnitude and location of damage to bridge components

42
Q

Company commanders should ensure that “Field Guides” are stored in a secure location on the apparatus with the?
Select one:
a. Under River Operational Guides
b. Emergency Response Guidebook for Haz-Mat Incidents
c. Subway Emergency Exit Booklet
d. Pre-Incident Guides in their response area

A

B
(AUC 344-1.4)
The correct answer is: Emergency Response Guidebook for Haz-Mat Incidents

43
Q

If a unit becomes aware that its “Field Guide” has become lost or stolen, this shall be reported forthwith by email and phone call to?
Select one:
a. PTSU
b. FDOC
c. BFI
d. BITS

A

A
(AUC 344—1.4)
The correct answer is: PTSU

44
Q

Regarding the preparation of the EBF-4 it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Any riding position with a spare radio shall have the spare radio number listed beside that riding position on the EBF-4
b. Company officers will login the EBF-4 application using their last name and payroll reference number
c. The EBF-4 may be completed immediately before the start of a tour only if the company is in quarters
d. When awaiting details, submit a preliminary EBF-4. When all details arrive and are assigned riding positions, a “FINAL” EBF-4 shall be submitted

A

C
(AUC 346—2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.7)
The correct answer is: The EBF-4 may be completed immediately before the start of a tour only if the company is in quarters

45
Q

At 0922 hours, Engine 99 has just gone 10-8 from a highway response for a 3-car accident. In this situation the officer would be most correct to first take what action?
Select one:
a. Use the In-Rig EBF-4 to complete the riding list with the 6 x 9 tour members as soon as possible
b. Return to quarters as soon as possible and then immediately after going AQ, prepare an EBF-4 for the 9 x 6 tour

A

A
(AUC 346—2.8)
The correct answer is: Use the In-Rig EBF-4 to complete the riding list with the 6 x 9 tour members as soon as possible

46
Q

Which point concerning the EBF-4 is stated correctly?
Select one:
a. Any time a Unit or Battalion is displayed on a report in red, that unit can be clicked on to obtain more details
b. Company Commanders shall remove the “PR” designation on the EBF-4 only when a probationary firefighter is granted tenure on a Department Order
c. If a probationary firefighter is not identified by a “PR”, the Company Commander should notify Proby School at the Fire Academy to have this corrected
d. Probationary firefighters are identified on the EBF-4 by the Suffix “PR”

A

B
(AUC 346—2.10, 2.11, 3.2 Note)
The correct answer is: Company Commanders shall remove the “PR” designation on the EBF-4 only when a probationary firefighter is granted tenure on a Department Order

47
Q

The In-Rig EBF-4 can be filled out for?
Select one:
a. Either the current tour or the next tour
b. The current tour only
c. The upcoming tour only
d. The current tour or any upcoming tour

A

B
(AUC 346—6.1)
The correct answer is: The current tour only

48
Q

The In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every _______ on the 9 x 6 tour to submit a riding list instead of the EBF-4 application?
Select one:
a. Tuesday
b. Saturday
c. Sunday
d. Monday

A

C
(AUC 346—6.6)
The correct answer is: Sunday

49
Q

Captain Alters is having a construction project done at his single engine firehouse. The Captain would be correct to believe that?
Select one:
a. All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations
b. The Commanding Officer of the Engine will make the final determination with regard to the project
c. Members are never permitted to direct a contractor to stop working
d. The point of contact for all communications from the field for the project will be the Project Manager

A

D
(AUC 358)
The correct answer is: The point of contact for all communications from the field for the project will be the Project Manager

50
Q

You are Captain Sanders working in Ladder 124 arriving at the scene of a 2nd alarm in a Row Frame building which originated in 111 Decatur Street and has extended to 113 and 115 Decatur Street. The IC tells you to check for extension in the other Exposure 4 side buildings. While operating, you locate fire extending in the rear of 117 Decatur Street, from a shaft in between 115 and 117 Decatur Street. In this situation, using the picture below, you would be correct to advise the IC that you have extension to?
Original
Fire Building Exposure Exposure Exposure Exposure
111 113 115 117 119

Select one:
a. Exposure 4B, in the 3-4 corner
b. Exposure 4C, in the 2-3 corner
c. Exposure 4C, in the 3-4 corner
d. Exposure 4B, in the 2-3 corner

A

D
(Comm 10—Add 2)
The correct answer is: Exposure 4B, in the 2-3 corner

51
Q

You are Captain Smith operating at a 3-alarm fire in a Home Depot pictured below. On the exposure 4 side is an attached 4-store taxpayer which has a significant smoke condition in all 4 stores. The IC has asked you to check for extension in “Joe’s Basement Bargain” store. In this situation, you should refer to that store as Exposure?
Home Bernie’s Joe’s Donnie’s Nancy’s
Depot Free Basement Urgent Care Dress
Hot Dogs Bargains Center Shop

Select one:
a. 4-0B
b. 4B
c. 4-0A
d. 4A

A

C
(Comm 10—Add 2)
The correct answer is: 4-0A

52
Q

The new Motorola APX8000XE radio has both a 2-watt and 5-watt output. The HT is capable of communicating on all of the following frequencies except?
Select one:
a. UHF
b. VHF
c. 400 MHZ
d. 800 MHZ

A

C
(Comm 11—1.2.5, 2.2.2)
The correct answer is: 400 MHZ

53
Q

On the Main Display and Top Display, the HT will normally show the Alpha-Numeric Identification (LAD 99-ROOF) assigned to that specific unit and riding position. However, this identification will be displaced when the radio? 1. Is receiving ID’s, 2. Is receiving an emergency alert, 3. Has a low battery
Select one:
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 3
d. 1, 2, 3

A

D
(Comm 11-2.2.2H, 2.2.4)
The correct answer is: 1, 2, 3

54
Q

Pressing the ______ button for ______ seconds returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT-1?
Select one:
a. Normal , 1 second
b. Normal , 2 seconds
c. Home, 2 seconds
d. Home, 1 second

A

C
(Comm 11-2.2.3D)
The correct answer is: Home, 2 seconds

55
Q

A member operating at a 4th alarm notes that his transmit / receive LED is blinking red while he is not transmitting. He should realize this indicates that the HT?
Select one:
a. Is in the Encrypted Mode
b. Is malfunctioning
c. Is in the Emergency Mode
d. Has a low battery

A

C
(Comm 11—2.2.5)
The correct answer is: Is in the Emergency Mode

56
Q

Regarding the High Visibility LED on the Remote Speaker Mic, it would be incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Pressing and holding the light button down for two seconds deactivates the flashlight
b. Pressing and holding the light button down for one second activates the flashlight
c. The High Visibility LED blinks out an SOS signal of 3 dots, 3 dashes, and 3 dots when the Emergency Alert Button is depressed
d. The High Visibility LED illuminates 18.5 lumens at 120 degrees

A

B
(Comm 11-2.5 F)
The correct answer is: Pressing and holding the light button down for one second activates the flashlight

57
Q

Which point is correct regarding the operation of the Motorola APX8000XE radio?
Select one:
a. The radio emits a continuous tone at approximately 60 seconds at the Remote Speaker MIC if the PUSH to TALK button is stuck or depressed continuously, indicating the transmitter has been shut off
b. The Emergency Alert may be reset by depressing the EAB for 1 second, or by turning the HT off and then back on
c. When the PTT button is depressed, the member should pause ¼ second to allow the HT ID to be transmitted
d. The radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 30 seconds at the Remote Speaker MIC if the PUSH to TALK button is stuck or depressed continuously
e. The Emergency Alert Button should be depressed until the Emergency Alert activates, which is approximately 1 second

A

E
(Comm 11-2.5C, 3.3, 3.5)
The correct answer is: The Emergency Alert Button should be depressed until the Emergency Alert activates, which is approximately 1 second

58
Q

When a member initially depresses their EAB, how many of the following features will immediately occur on that radio?
1. A High Visibility LED light will blink out an SOS signal
2. The Transmit / Receive light on top of the remote speaker mic will blink orange
3. HT wattage will increase to 5 watts
4. On the Main Screen, the words “Emergency Call” will appear in an orange stripe. The top display will illuminate in orange / amber and alternate between “Emergency Call” and Unit ID
5. The radio will transmit one polite alert followed by two impolite alerts
6. An audible beacon will be transmitted from that radio
Select one:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 7

A

C
(Comm 11—Pg 13-14)
The correct answer is: 3

59
Q

When a member initially depresses their EAB on the new radio, which of the following features will occur on other receiving radio’s?
1. The Main Display will show “EA received” in orange / amber with the alpha-numeric unit and riding position and hold this display for 10 seconds,
2. If a member who transmitted the Emergency Alert subsequently depresses their PTT button, receiving radios will see an Orange band with “Emergency call” with the unit and position on the main display

Select one:
a. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
b. 1, 2
c. 2 only
d. 1 only

A

C
(Comm 11—Pg 13-14)
The correct answer is: 2 only

60
Q

Members of the FAST unit are monitoring their handie talkies at a second alarm for emergency transmissions. They would be correct to think that when using the “Recent Calls” List on the HT?
Select one:
a. Any call that display a red triangle were EA activated
b. The recent call display is dynamic and will continue to populate
c. The ID’s of the last 20 received transmissions can be viewed
d. Each recent transmission viewed will have a time stamp

A

D
(Comm 11—3.5.3)
The correct answer is: Each recent transmission viewed will have a time stamp

61
Q

If a HT is missing, is lost, or is stolen, the officer on duty must take which two actions below? 1. Telephone the Administrative Battalion, Administrative Division and Radio Shops, 2. Email FDOC and the Radio Shops, 3. Telephone the Administrative Battalion, Administrative Division and FDOC, 4. Email FDOC and the Borough Command
Select one:
a. 3, 4
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 2

A

C
(Comm 11-6)
The correct answer is: 2, 3

62
Q

You are a Captain working in Engine 65 responding to an alarm for a reported explosion where the IC has ordered all incoming units to switch to the Encrypted Tactical Channel. In this situation, you should know that this would be found as what channel?
Select one:
a. HT-9, which is not always active because it is not a strapped channel, and can only be monitored on an apparatus EFAS
b. HT-9, which is always active because it is a strapped channel, and can only be monitored on the portable EFAS
c. HT-10, which is always active because it is a strapped channel, and can only be monitored on the portable EFAS
d. HT-10, which is not always active because it is not a strapped channel, and can only be monitored on the apparatus EFAS

A

B
(Comm 11—Add 3—2.1)
The correct answer is: HT-9, which is always active because it is a strapped channel, and can only be monitored on the portable EFAS

63
Q

Members should be aware when responding to operations where the FDNY dispatch communications may endanger members or the public, the FDNY IC may order that the Primary Encrypted Dispatch Channel be used on a portable radio. Members would then need to locate Zone C / Fire Dispatch on the portable HT and place it on?
Select one:
a. Citywide Fire 2, which is strapped and always active
b. Citywide Fire 4, which is strapped and always active
c. Citywide Fire 3, which is not strapped and requires activation
d. Citywide Fire 1, which is not strapped and requires activation

A

C
(Comm 11-Add 3—3, 3.4.2)
The correct answer is: Citywide Fire 3, which is not strapped and requires activation

64
Q

Captain Apex receives a spare radio from the Division Messenger. She should upon receipt of this radio, ensure proper ID has been placed in the HT by transmitting from the spare HT to another unit HT and checking which three channels?
Select one:
a. HT-1, HT-3, HT-14
b. HT-1, HT-2, HT-3
c. HT-1, HT-3, HT-9
d. HT-1, HT-2, HT-9

A

D
(Comm 11—Add 4)
The correct answer is: HT-1, HT-2, HT-9

65
Q

It is 1830 hours now when FF Judge, who is now off-duty, enters your office to discuss a personal issue. He tells you that the members intentionally made food to discriminate against his religious beliefs at lunch today and would like to file an EEO complaint. He informs you this does not affect his work status and he will be back to work tomorrow night. In this situation, you would be most correct to take which action?
Select one:
a. Inform FF Judge of his filing options, but insure he is aware that because this is an official complaint, he is not permitted to file a complaint through an EEO counselor
b. Complete an EEO Incident Report, forward it a sealed envelope marked “Confidential” without intermediate endorsements. A copy of this report should be made, but not kept in quarters.
c. If he chooses to make this complaint through an EEO counselor, he must utilize the EEO Counselor designated for their assigned area
d. Notify EEO by email of the alleged incident

A

D
(PAID 1-77—6, 9)
The correct answer is: Notify EEO by email of the alleged incident

66
Q

At 2020 hours you receive a phone call from FF Torre who advises you that he has been selected for the Grand Jury for a trial that starts tomorrow, on November 12th. He says it’s a murder trial and he expects to be out of the firehouse the next couple of weeks working Monday thru Friday 9-5. He also reminds you that he is scheduled to start vacation in November 22nd thru December 27th and wants to know how that works. In this situation, you would be correct to inform FF Torre.
Select one:
a. He is required to work 6 x 9 tours on every Saturday and on every holiday
b. He will be placed on Jury Duty Leave at 0900 hours tomorrow
c. His vacation leave will not be interrupted because the end of the year is approaching
d. He is required to work 9 x 6 tours on every Saturday, Sunday and holiday if his group is scheduled in

A

D
The correct answer is: He is required to work 9 x 6 tours on every Saturday, Sunday and holiday if his group is scheduled in

67
Q

Engine 65 now responds to a car accident at 2100 hours and arrives on the scene shortly after Ladder 2. They find Ladder 2 has two members performing CPR on one victim that they pulled out of the car. After Engine 65 takes over, EMS arrives, takes over patient care and then transports the patient to the hospital. The Officer of Ladder 2, Lieutenant Clinton asks you which of his members would be entitled to CFR-D pay differential.
1. FF Nixon - who is CFR-D certified and used the Hurst Tool to get the car door open
2. FF Reagan - who is CFR-D certified and dragged the victim out of the car
3. FF Bush - who is CFR-D certified and performed CPR
4. FF Kennedy - who is not CFR-D certified and performed CPR
5. FF Johnson - who is CFR-D certified, but performed patient assessment
You would be correct to inform Lt Clinton to prepare a PCR and pay which members for the night tour 15 hours of CFR-D differential?

Select one:
a. Bush, Kennedy, Johnson
b. Nixon, Reagan, Bush, Johnson
c. Bush, Johnson
d. Nixon, Reagan, Bush, Kennedy, Johnson

A

C
(PAID 3-98)
The correct answer is: Bush, Johnson

Question Bank (102 decks)

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