FT 21 CO 7

Question 1

The FDNY, in keeping with its long history of providing public safety services for the betterment of the City, is continuing with the Community Assistance Program. Which one statement below outlining details of this program is correct?
Select one:
a. While out of quarters, if a member receives a request for assistance from a civilian, the officer shall notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian. The unit shall remain in service while awaiting the response of PD.
b. A letterhead report with endorsements shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations. The report must include the civilian’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge of the civilian’s care.
c. If there is reasonable cause to suspect that a child has suffered, or will suffer abuse of maltreatment as a result of the acts or omissions of a child’s parent or guardian; members are mandated to file a report. The fire officer will be responsible for filing the mandated report.
d. If there is reasonable cause to suspect that returning a child to his or her parents or guardian would present imminent danger to the life or health of the child, the officer on duty shall take the child into protective custody. Such custody shall be transferred to the EMS supervisor at the time of his/her arrival.

Answer 1

B
(AUC 3 1.4, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7)
The correct answer is: A letterhead report with endorsements shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations. The report must include the civilian’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge of the civilian’s care.

Question 2

All members are to be familiar with fire safety education programs conducted at the firehouse. Which one choice below is correct concerning firehouse visits?
Select one:
a. Upon receiving a request for a firehouse visit to quarters, the officer on duty will schedule the event on a day that the unit is scheduled for BISP.
b. Firehouse visits are not exempt from the 10-51 signal.
c. Units are out of service during firehouse visits.
d. If there is no Fire Safety Education Unit Coordinator present at a firehouse visit, the officer on duty must close out the event on the FSE Tracking System.

Answer 2

D
(AUC 4 2.5, 2.8, 2.10, 3.1.2)
The correct answer is: If there is no Fire Safety Education Unit Coordinator present at a firehouse visit, the officer on duty must close out the event on the FSE Tracking System.

Question 3

A Captain is preparing for the annual Open House event scheduled for her unit. She makes the following notes regarding the event, but was incorrect in which one mentioned below?
Select one:
a. Units will remain in service during Open House events.
b. Selected firehouses will be open to the public for a three-hour period as designated by the Bureau of Operations.
c. One officer or one firefighter will be assigned from the Division to remain in the firehouse and assist with the event.
d. At the conclusion of the event the Officer on Duty shall close out the event on the FSE Tracking System.

Answer 3

B
(AUC 4 3.2.2, 3.2.3, 3.2.4, 3.2.6)
The correct answer is: Selected firehouses will be open to the public for a three-hour period as designated by the Bureau of Operations.

Question 4

“Operation Sidewalk” is designed to promote better understanding between community residents and the Fire Department. Several points describing these events are outlined below. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The unit will remain in service by radio, and respond at the discretion of the dispatcher. The unit will respond to 10-75 signals and greater alarms.
b. The nearest available engine or ladder company is assigned to the activity for a period of two hours.
c. Not more than two “Operation Sidewalk” functions may be assigned to a unit during a tour.
d. “Operation Sidewalk” will not be canceled if a signal 10-51 is transmitted.

Answer 4

A
(AUC 4 3.3.2, 3.3.4, 3.3.6)
The correct answer is: The unit will remain in service by radio, and respond at the discretion of the dispatcher. The unit will respond to 10-75 signals and greater alarms.

Question 5

The Captain of Engine 100 responds to a reported fire in a high-rise building under construction. After conferring with a construction manager on-site, the Captain learns that the building has the required temporary standpipe system, and that the working deck is the 12th floor. The Captain should be aware that this temporary standpipe system must serve all floors up to which floor at this building?
Select one:
a. 11
b. 10
c. 9
d. 8

Answer 5

D
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 2 Pgs 1 & 4)
The correct answer is: 8

Question 6

The Captain of Ladder 99 is drilling with his members on the roof of an H-Type Multiple Dwelling. He discovers a conduit running across the roof that has orange luminescent markings on it. He would be correct to inform his members that this conduit contains which one of the following choices?
Select one:
a. Natural gas piping
b. High voltage wiring
c. Low voltage wiring
d. Fuel oil piping

Answer 6

C
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 2 Pg 5)
The correct answer is: Low voltage wiring

Question 7

After discovering flooded conditions in the cellar of a commercial building, Ladder 200 determines the water condition is the result of a broken sprinkler pipe. The Captain of Ladder 200 orders his members to shut down the system. Because there is no responsible building staff on scene, and the system is not monitored by an alarm, in order to alert the appropriate personnel from the building, the Captain would be correct to have the dispatcher notify who?
Select one:
a. Fire prevention
b. DOB
c. OEM
d. Fire Marshals

Answer 7

D
(AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 4 4.6)
The correct answer is: Fire Marshals

Question 8

Engine 300 is conducting building inspection at a Taxpayer consisting of three different stores with the addresses 121, 123, and 125 Main Street respectively. Frank Jones is the owner of the building and is accompanying the members during the inspection. Upon entering “John’s Pizza,” the middle occupancy located at 123 Main Street, members discover that the fire extinguishers in this store are expired. John Smith, the owner of the pizza place explains that he forgot to have them inspected. When filling out an FDNY Summons related to this violation, the members would be most correct to list the respondent as which one choice listed below?
Select one:
a. John’s Pizza
b. John Smith
c. Frank Jones
d. Owner of 123 Main Street

Answer 8

A
(AUC 5 Chapter 3 Addendum 1 Pg 2)
The correct answer is: John’s Pizza

Question 9

At which one of the following locations are members permitted to affix the green and gold copy of an FDNY summons?
Select one:
a. Outside the main entrance door of a multiple dwelling.
b. On the desk top of the superintendent in a multiple dwelling.
c. On a counter top in the lobby of a multiple dwelling.
d. Inside the mailbox of a private dwelling.

Answer 9

A
(AUC 5 Chapter 3 Addendum 1 Pgs 4 & 5)
The correct answer is: Outside the main entrance door of a multiple dwelling.

Question 10

When issuing a DOB Referral report for the referral of conditions that require follow up by the NYC Department of Buildings which one statement below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. If a company officer is unsure whether a DOB referral or DOB response is required, the administrative battalion chief shall be called to the scene for an evaluation.
b. A DOB Referral Report designated as High Priority shall be considered when the severity of conditions is extremely hazardous or immediate in nature and access issues are present.
c. A separate DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared for each address or premise, for each high priority referral condition for the same address, or when both a normal priority referral item and a high priority referral item exist at the same address or premise.
d. Multiple normal referral items can be selected and submitted on a single report.

Answer 10

B
(AUC 5 Chapter 3 Addendum 5 1.2.4 Note, 2.1, 2.1.1, 3.1.1)
The correct answer is: A DOB Referral Report designated as High Priority shall be considered when the severity of conditions is extremely hazardous or immediate in nature and access issues are present.

Question 11

Units are required to complete and forward an Investigation of Complaint report A-17 for all complaints. Which one additional point below is correct concerning complaint procedures?
Select one:
a. A complaint shall be investigated promptly but must be investigated during the tour it is received.
b. The officer shall fax an unendorsed copy of the A-17 (FINAL or INTERIM) to the Battalion immediately after conducting an investigation.
c. Only FINAL reports shall be emailed through the chain of command.
d. If an investigation cannot be completed after the 72-hour time limit, a FINAL report must be forwarded to the BISP unit.

Answer 11

C
(AUC 5 Chapter 3 Addendum 6 2.2, 2.3, 2.3 Note, 2.5)
The correct answer is: Only FINAL reports shall be emailed through the chain of command.

Question 12

Ladder 99 is responding to the Buckeye Pipeline for a confirmed leak. The Captain has the following thoughts while in route to the Box, but she was only correct in which one listed below?
Select one:
a. Valves should always be closed as per duties required by the instruction cards, no exceptions.
b. When units have the responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), the valves must be closed prior to performing the patrol function.
c. Solid hose streams held horizontally a few inches above the ground and moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline or aviation fuel aside to provide a path for rescue.
d. Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 800 feet to a leak.

Answer 12

C
(AUC 149 6.1, 6.2.2, 6.5.5B, 6.5.7)
The correct answer is: Solid hose streams held horizontally a few inches above the ground and moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline or aviation fuel aside to provide a path for rescue.

Question 13

Brush fire operations are extremely labor intensive and require a large commitment of resources early in the operations. A Captain made the following statements describing brush fire operations but was only correct in which one?
Select one:
a. Units responding to a brush fire are never to self-commit to operations.
b. Units shall never attack from or operate in front of the fire.
c. Streams should be directed at the flames burning above the brush.
d. Advance through burnt out areas to attack the fire. It is safe to operate from burnt-out blackened areas because there is no fuel left to burn.

Answer 13

D
(AUC 151 5.1.2, 5.4.5, 5.4.13, 5.4.18)
The correct answer is: Advance through burnt out areas to attack the fire. It is safe to operate from burnt-out blackened areas because there is no fuel left to burn.

Question 14

Manhole fires and emergencies are common responses, but the dangers posed at these operations should not be taken for granted. Which one operational guideline below is correct for manhole fires and emergencies?
Select one:
a. At a manhole fire or if a manhole fire is in the area, members should only pull covers off electrical manholes at the direction of an on-scene Chief Officer.
b. Units should not operate hose lines into a manhole unless requested by a Con Ed employee at the scene.
c. When operating a hose line into a manhole, do not direct the stream directly into the manhole. Instead let the water flow or pour into the manhole and use a main stream tip to prevent any shock hazard.
d. Members shall only attempt to move vehicles if they are located in the danger area.

Answer 14

B
(AUC 180 2.3, 2.4, Notes #2)
The correct answer is: Units should not operate hose lines into a manhole unless requested by a Con Ed employee at the scene.

Question 15

FireIce dry-chem extinguishing agent is a relatively new tool in the FDNY’s arsenal. A newly promoted Captain is working his first tour in a FireIce Engine Company when they are called to the scene of a manhole fire. The Captain recalls the following procedures related to FireIce but was only correct in which one choice?
Select one:
a. Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately one foot in front of the manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole.
b. The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 25 feet.
c. Pressures must be determined at the apparatus pump panel, as the FireIce equipment does not include an in-line pressure gauge. Using a nozzle pressure between 60-100 psi is optimal.
d. FireIce is effective on Class B fires. Therefore, it is intended for use at any type of transformer fire; that includes transformers located in below-grade vaults or rooms and transformers that are mounted on poles.

Answer 15

A
(AUC 180 7.3, 8.3, 8.4, 8.5)
The correct answer is: Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately one foot in front of the manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole.

Question 16

The FDNY has policies in place to standardize procedures at Foreign Embassies, Consulates, Missions, Ambassadorial residences and private residences where Diplomats have legal residence. Which one procedure mentioned is correct?
Select one:
a. If entry is denied, attempt to negotiate to have the Ladder Officer investigate conditions, while the other Ladder Company firefighters remain outside.
b. If a fire is suspected or verified stretch a hand line to the front of the building and/or bring rollups if necessary.
c. Embassy personnel must let relief companies enter to perform overhauling.
d. Engine companies must stretch 2 ½” hose lines at fires in any of these occupancies.

Answer 16

B
(AUC 196 4.5, 4.6, 4.7, 5.1)
The correct answer is: If a fire is suspected or verified stretch a hand line to the front of the building and/or bring rollups if necessary.

Question 17

Every member on light or full duty who is taking a prescribed medication that might be impairing the mental or physical ability to fulfill his or her work duties shall immediately notify his or her commanding officer. Which one additional point below is correct?
Select one:
a. The member must provide the commanding officer with nature of the medication and the condition for which it was prescribed.
b. The member’s supervisor shall seek a determination from BITS by ordering the member to BITS for a fitness for duty determination.
c. The member’s supervisor shall not document the referral in the unit journal.
d. The member is required to inform BHS of all relevant medical information.

Answer 17

D
(AUC 202 5.2)
The correct answer is: The member is required to inform BHS of all relevant medical information.

Question 18

A Captain working in the quarters of Engine 199 and Ladder 200 enters the kitchen and finds one on-duty member of the engine and one on-duty member of the ladder drinking what appears to be alcohol. There is several off duty members present at the time as well. The Captain takes the following actions but was only correct in which one?
Select one:
a. The Captain prohibits all on-duty members present at the time of the discovery from leaving quarters without the permission of the investigating officer. The off-duty members present at the time of the discovery are immediately told to leave quarters.
b. The Captain waits until the arrival of the investigating officer before placing the affected units out of service.
c. The two on-duty members involved are immediately relieved from emergency response duty.
d. The Captain notifies the administrative Battalion Chief and the IG.

Answer 18

C
(AUC 202 5.5)
The correct answer is: The two on-duty members involved are immediately relieved from emergency response duty.

Question 19

When operating at the scene of an incident within the subway system the first consideration at an operation involving electrified track will be a determination of whether the power is to remain on or turned off. Which one statement regarding power removal in the subway is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Anytime power is removed by use of a power removal box, the IC shall forward a letterhead report with full particulars through the chain of command to the Public Transportation Safety Unit.
b. When there is immediate danger and power must be shut-off to save life in imminent danger, the nearest power removal box shall be used and the Desk Superintendent shall be immediately notified via the emergency telephone that the power is to remain off.
c. Whenever power is removed, lights in the right of way, the station lights, signals, drainage pumping equipment, tunnel ventilation equipment, and train headlights will not be affected.
d. When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an officer and a firefighter operating as a team and only from platforms or catwalks.

Answer 19

A
(AUC 207 3.2.4, 3.2.5, 3.4)
The correct answer is: Anytime power is removed by use of a power removal box, the IC shall forward a letterhead report with full particulars through the chain of command to the Public Transportation Safety Unit.

Question 20

Captain Smith responds to a reported track fire inside one of the tunnels of the NYC Subway System. On arrival, transit personnel have a “light train” waiting for the members. There is no Chief on-scene and Captain Smith is the IC. Which one of the following points is correct?
Select one:
a. It is intended that these “light trains” be used to transport FD personnel to small fires readily extinguishable by one hose line, to investigate the source of minor smoke conditions and other similar type incidents.
b. The decision to use the “light train” is to be made only by Captain Smith (the IC), based on the size-up of the incident.
c. The primary means of communication will be the train operator’s radio.
d. Progress reports from the “light train” shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 10 minutes.

Answer 20

C
(AUC 207 Addendum 7 1.0, 2.1, 2.2.1, 2.5)
The correct answer is: The primary means of communication will be the train operator’s radio.

Question 21

All fire teams applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe a minimum approach distance of _____ feet to catenary wires.
Select one:
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 50

Answer 21

A
(AUC 207 Addendum 9 3.2.4)
The correct answer is: 10

Question 22

Which one of the following statements concerning the FDNY’s SCBA Policy is most correct?
Select one:
a. When it is necessary for an officer to leave the IDLH to service their SCBA; the withdrawal of all members under that officer’s direct supervision is always required.
b. Members operating in smoke or toxic atmospheres should never remove their SCBA regulator.
c. If it is not possible to remove a civilian from a contaminated atmosphere, members shall utilize the nearest available FAST Pak to provide an air supply to the trapped individual.
d. Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is prohibited.

Answer 22

D
(AUC 220 2.2, 2.6, 2.7, 2.8)
The correct answer is: Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is prohibited.

Question 23

The Rehabilitation Manager will respond on the following signals: 2nd and greater alarms, 10-60 and when special called by the Incident Commander. This position will be staffed by a Battalion Chief or a Captain. Which one additional point below describing rehabilitation and care procedures is correct?
Select one:
a. Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 10 minutes before being reassigned.
b. Units shall be sent in manageable groups, usually five units at a time, so as not to overcrowd the Rehabilitation group.
c. The Rehabilitation Group will consist of an EMS Officer, a BLS and ALS crew and a Rehabilitation and Care (RAC) Unit.
d. The RAC unit firefighters and EMS resources should aim to set up the Forward RAC Area within eyesight of the Command Post and within 50 feet of the fire building whenever possible.

Answer 23

C
(AUC 230 7.2, 7.4, Addendum 1 4.1)
The correct answer is: The Rehabilitation Group will consist of an EMS Officer, a BLS and ALS crew and a Rehabilitation and Care (RAC) Unit.

Question 24

Which one of the following provisions pertaining to the safeguarding of property with the Battalion padlocks is correct?
Select one:
a. These locks are only to be used for commercial occupancies after a very minor fire or emergency incident has occurred.
b. These locks are only to be used if egress was gained through forced entry accomplished with minimal damage, and there is other minor damage to the perimeter of the premises.
c. On return to quarters, after the lock is placed, the Battalion Chief will notify the dispatcher of the securing of the premises for entry on his/her secured premises list.
d. The key for the lock shall be kept in a secure place in the company office selected by the officer on duty.

Answer 24

A
(AUC 231 2.2, 2.3, 2.6, 4.2)
The correct answer is: These locks are only to be used for commercial occupancies after a very minor fire or emergency incident has occurred.

Question 25

It is imperative that Captains are familiar with FDNY’s Chauffeur Guidelines. Several of these guidelines are mentioned below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Unless otherwise approved by the Chief of Operations, members must have three (3) years experience in the Fire Department to be considered for chauffeur training school.
b. Normally, Engine Company Chauffeurs (ECC) transferred to ladder companies, and Ladder Company chauffeurs (LCC) transferred to Engine Companies shall have their prior unit chauffeur designation revoked one year following the transfer.
c. When, in the opinion of the Company Commander, a firefighter is proficient in driving and operating the apparatus, an entry shall be made in the office record journal; such “company trained” members may be used as a chauffeur to fill a short term and temporary vacancy.
d. The Company Commander or a firefighter may request that the firefighter’s chauffeur status be rescinded due to a number of situations; rescinding a firefighter’s chauffeur status is a final step and should be taken only after all of the resources of the Department such as retraining, medical treatment, counseling etc.

Answer 25

B
(AUC 254 1.3, 2.7, 2.9, 3.3, 3.4)
The correct answer is: Normally, Engine Company Chauffeurs (ECC) transferred to ladder companies, and Ladder Company chauffeurs (LCC) transferred to Engine Companies shall have their prior unit chauffeur designation revoked one year following the transfer.

Question 26

Engine 100 and Ladder 100 have just returned to their shared quarters from an all-hands fire. The chauffeur of Ladder 100 was granted medical leave following the operation. He was the only school trained chauffeur working the tour. There is a company trained chauffeur from Ladder 100 working a mutual in Engine 100. Captain Jones is on duty in Ladder 100 and should know that which one of the following points is correct?
Select one:
a. Ladder 100 must go out of service immediately.
b. Ladder 100 can remain in service with the company trained ladder chauffeur working in Engine 100 while waiting for a detailed school trained chauffeur.
c. If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, Ladder 100 must go out of service for the remainder of the tour.
d. Both B & C

Answer 26

B
(AUC 254 5.1)
The correct answer is: Ladder 100 can remain in service with the company trained ladder chauffeur working in Engine 100 while waiting for a detailed school trained chauffeur.

Question 27

Which one of the following situations requires immediate notification to BITS via telephone?
Select one:
a. Preference of charges against a member.
b. Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time.
c. Members have a serious confrontation with civilians.
d. An instance of incompetence so serious that the officer believes disciplinary charges are warranted.

Answer 27

C
(AUC 268 3.1, 4.1)
The correct answer is: Members have a serious confrontation with civilians.

Question 28

Which one of the following choices is an FDNY core competency?
Select one:
a. CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety and Mass Decontamination
b. Area Evacuation
c. Water Search and Rescue
d. Arson Investigation (major case)

Answer 28

A
(AUC 276 2.1)
The correct answer is: CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety and Mass Decontamination

Question 29

Which of the following incidents is a unified command event?
Select one:
a. Explosive Device
b. Water/Ice Rescue
c. Elevator Emergency
d. Explosion

Answer 29

D
(AUC 276 4.2)
The correct answer is: Explosion

Question 30

When NYPD is on-scene first, upon arrival of FDNY units, which one of the following incidents is a single command event with the FDNY as the primary agency?
Select one:
a. CBRN/Haz-Mat Incident
b. Auto extrication
c. Boat in distress
d. Confined space rescue

Answer 30

D
(AUC 276 5.1)
The correct answer is: Confined space rescue

Question 31

Holding areas in public schools attended by non-ambulatory students must meet certain standards. Which one of these standards described below is correct?
Select one:
a. The windows providing access must be openable with the use of a key.
b. Holding areas shall line up vertically on the façade of the top two floors of the building only.
c. Window sills on windows designated for removal shall be painted red, inside and outside, with a sign attached to the outside, top window pane reading “F.D. Access” (red lettering on a white background).
d. For ABR (Architectural Barrier Removal) schools, ensure that the exterior evacuation path of ambulatory students is near the area in the vicinity adjacent to holding areas in which a tower ladder is expected to be positioned.

Answer 31

C
(AUC 277 4.4, 4.5, 4.6, 6.2)
The correct answer is: Window sills on windows designated for removal shall be painted red, inside and outside, with a sign attached to the outside, top window pane reading “F.D. Access” (red lettering on a white background).

Question 32

Captain Stonewalt is working a night tour in Ladder 199 when one of his members is granted emergency leave. Ladder 199 is currently in-service as a reduced staffed unit. Which one provision outlined below is correct regarding this situation?
Select one:
a. When this occurs, the administrative Battalion shall determine which outside position (OV/ROOF) will be staffed.
b. A reduced staffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher “We are responding reduced staff.”
c. Upon arrival, if the necessity exists, the officer may reassign the position of the outside firefighter (OV to ROOF or ROOF to OV).
d. Members shall identify themselves based on the duties and tasks performed regardless of their riding position on the EBF-4.

Answer 32

C
(AUC 287 8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.3, 8.5)
The correct answer is: Upon arrival, if the necessity exists, the officer may reassign the position of the outside firefighter (OV to ROOF or ROOF to OV).

Question 33

When a unit is responding understaffed all of the following statements are correct except which one?
Select one:
a. Units with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall be placed out of service, and will not respond to any alarms.
b. While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum of two firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms.
c. When notified that a company is responding understaffed, the dispatcher shall special call another unit (Engine for Engine, Ladder for Ladder, etc.) to respond in addition to the understaffed unit. Under this response policy, the total first alarm response shall not exceed a total response of four engines and four ladder companies.
d. An understaffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher “We are responding understaffed” and state the number of firefighters responding.
Feedback

Answer 33

A
(AUC 287 8.3.2, 8.3.3, 8.3.4, 8.3.5)
The correct answer is: Units with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall be placed out of service, and will not respond to any alarms.

Question 34

Understanding your bunker gear and wearing it correctly is critical to preventing injuries while operating at fires and emergencies. Which one policy mentioned below is correct?
Select one:
a. Although not mandatory, the wearing of suspenders is recommended to ensure proper function of the bunker pants in protecting lower extremities.
b. Due to the possibility of members operating without full PPE and also due to the negative perception by the public, all members except chauffeurs shall don their PPE prior to responding.
c. In all cases, an operating member must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood.
d. When a member wearing bunker gear sustains a burn injury, the officer on duty must always tag the bunker gear, place it out of service, and contact the Safety Battalion for instructions.

Answer 34

B
(AUC 310 6.6, 6.8, 7.2.1, 12.1)
The correct answer is: Due to the possibility of members operating without full PPE and also due to the negative perception by the public, all members except chauffeurs shall don their PPE prior to responding.

Question 35

In order to comply with the OSHA Blood borne Pathogen Standard, Captains must be aware of the FDNY’s policy with regards to the storage and wearing of bunker gear in the firehouse. Which one guideline below is correct?
Select one:
a. PPE should only be worn in the housewatch and responding to, operating at and returning from alarms.
b. Firefighter protective ensembles shall only be kept in personal lockers, at the designated storage area on the clothing rack, at the designated location on or near the apparatus for rapid donning by on-duty members, or in a separate area designated for such storage.
c. A supply of “No Bunker Gear” signs have been distributed to all units. These signs shall be displayed at the entrances to all living areas in the firehouse.
d. The FDNY strictly prohibits members from transporting firefighter PPE without the use of provided gear bags.

Answer 35

D
(AUC 310 Addendum 3 1.2, 3.1, 3.2, Addendum 4 1.3)
The correct answer is: The FDNY strictly prohibits members from transporting firefighter PPE without the use of provided gear bags.

Question 36

Which one description of the firefighter cross training program is correct?
Select one:
a. After approximately two years in their assigned unit, each firefighter will be detailed to a different unit (Engine to Ladder, Ladder to Engine) for one year.
b. All Engine and Ladder companies will be included in the program.
c. Members in the firefighter cross training program will be assigned a new vacation letter for the duration of their detail.
d. The Bureau of Operations will designate the group assignments of members of the program according to the units training and staffing needs.

Answer 36

B
(AUC 316 1.1, 3.1)
The correct answer is: All Engine and Ladder companies will be included in the program.

Question 37

Captains play a vital role in the probationary firefighter’s development program. There are several features of this program explained below. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. Probationary firefighters are provided with quarterly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting.
b. At the end of each training module is a ten (10) question quiz that must be completed.
c. Probationary firefighters get five (5) attempts to pass each quiz.
d. If a passing mark is not attained after the final attempt, the program will be temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email.

Answer 37

D
(AUC 323 2.1)
The correct answer is: If a passing mark is not attained after the final attempt, the program will be temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email.

Question 38

Which one statement below is correct concerning the probationary firefighters training notebook?
Select one:
a. If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the company commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook.
b. The company commander shall review the notebook weekly and initial and date in red ink.
c. Members should keep their training notebook in their personal lockers when not in use.
d. Company commanders shall ensure training notebooks are forwarded for evaluation with the 17th month evaluation only.

Answer 38

A
(AUC 323 Addendum 1.4, 1.6, 2.1, 2.2)
The correct answer is: If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the company commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook.

Question 39

Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is the primary function of the Fire Department at airport emergencies. Which one additional point below is correct when operating at aircraft incidents?
Select one:
a. When the FDNY supplies water to the PA/ARFF Crash Trucks, ECCs should not exceed 100-psi at the intakes of ARFF crash trucks.
b. Water supply operations need to be coordinated by the engine company officer and the crash truck operator. A logical position for the engine company officer would be in close proximity to the ECC supplying water, when possible.
c. The PAPD escort should remain with units until a positive water supply can be confirmed.
d. If units encounter subsurface hydrants, these require special wrenches that are only carried on FDNY Satellite Units.

Answer 39

C
(AUC 325 4.1.2, 4.1.3)
The correct answer is: The PAPD escort should remain with units until a positive water supply can be confirmed.

Question 40

Captain Philips is working his first tour in a South Queens Ladder Company near JFK airport. Members are discussing some of the new FDNY air rescue firefighting guidelines. They make the following comments. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The right side of the aircraft can also be referred to as the rescue side of the aircraft due to the layout of the doors.
b. The first arriving Engine Officer should conduct an “Officer Lap” and take a quick scan of the scene with the thermal imaging camera (TIC); potential fire problems might be detected.
c. Tires and landing gear may not reach their hottest temperatures for 10 minutes after landing; the safest approach would be to use handlines to apply large amounts of water from a safe distance.
d. When the landing gear is on fire always approach from the front or rear of the wheel assembly, while exercising extreme caution.

Answer 40

D
(AUC 325 6.2.4, 6.3.1, 6.5.1, 6.5.3)
The correct answer is: When the landing gear is on fire always approach from the front or rear of the wheel assembly, while exercising extreme caution.

Question 41

Several additional provisions of the new AUC 325 are mentioned below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Officers and Chiefs should be mindful of the dangers created by engine exhaust/intakes; an unsuspecting rescuer within 40 feet of an operating engine could be drawn into the engine.
b. Always ladder the leading edge or the rear of aircraft wings instead of the front, moving parts are found at the front of the wings.
c. Engine companies will need to ensure escape/egress paths are protected by large caliber streams and/or handlines. Handlines may be needed to suppress fire inside the aircraft.
d. Our operations are typically from an upwind position, however an attack from a downwind position is acceptable when operations preclude an upwind attack and escape/egress paths need to be protected for the crew and passengers.

Answer 41

B
(AUC 325 6.5.4, 6.7.3, 6.7.6)
The correct answer is: Always ladder the leading edge or the rear of aircraft wings instead of the front, moving parts are found at the front of the wings.

Question 42

When responding to and operating at fires involving transmission and distribution substations, Captains must be aware of the dangers associated with these facilities and the corresponding FDNY operating procedures. Which one procedure described below is correct?
Select one:
a. Set up large caliber streams to protect exposed buildings. Handlines shall never be used.
b. A 3 1/2” supply line shall be stretched and immediately charged to the sprinkler siamese if present.
c. At battery room fires dry chemical extinguishers and water should not be used as an extinguishing agent.
d. When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 18-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line and do not place portable ladders, aerial ladders or tower ladder booms or buckets against or over the wall or fence.

Answer 42

D
(AUC 338 Addendum 2 5.1, 5.2, 5.5, 6.0)
The correct answer is: When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 18-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line and do not place portable ladders, aerial ladders or tower ladder booms or buckets against or over the wall or fence.

Question 43

Company Commanders shall ensure the First Responder’s Bridge/Tunnel Manual-Field Guides are accounted for and stored in a secure location on the apparatus with the Emergency Response Guidebook for Hazardous Material Incidents. What color is the Emergency Response Guidebook?
Select one:
a. Green
b. Red
c. Orange
d. Black

Answer 43

C
(AUC 344 1.4)
The correct answer is: Orange

Question 44

The EBF-4 shall be completed and printed for each 9x6 and 6x9 tour. Which one additional statement below is correct?
Select one:
a. Unlike the Intranet EBF-4, the In-Rig EBF-4 can only be filled out for the current tour.
b. To ensure the In-Rig EBF-4 application continues to work properly, and to ensure that all Officers are familiar with it, the In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every Saturday on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet.
c. Once the final EBF-4 is submitted, do not update it any further during the tour.
d. The Intranet EBF-4 should only be completed prior to the start of the tour if the company is in quarters.

Answer 44

A
(AUC 346 2.1, 2.3.1 Note, 6.1, 6.6)
The correct answer is: Unlike the Intranet EBF-4, the In-Rig EBF-4 can only be filled out for the current tour.

Question 45

The EBF-4 identifies probationary firefighters by which prefix below?
Select one:
a. PF
b. PR
c. PFF
d. P

Answer 45

B
(AUC 346 2.10)
The correct answer is: PR

Question 46

What is the correct priority order for the use of positive pressure ventilation fans?
Select one:
a. Pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack; pressurizing the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control; ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control.
b. Pressurizing the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control; pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack; ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control.
c. Pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack; ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control; pressurizing the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control.
d. Pressurizing the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control; ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control; pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack.

Answer 46

A
(AUC 349 6.5)
The correct answer is: Pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack; pressurizing the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control; ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control.

Question 47

When operations involve a photovoltaic electrical system, where shall members shut off electrical power to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries, or backup generator?
Select one:
a. The rooftop disconnects
b. The main electrical panel
c. The inverter
d. The PV disconnect (isolation) switches

Answer 47

C
(AUC 351 6.1)
The correct answer is: The inverter

Question 48

When a danger area has been identified, the IC shall have the DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape put in place to mark the danger zone. Units are reminded that the danger zone should not be entered except to save life or when authorized by who?
Select one:
a. IC only
b. IC or Sector Chief only
c. Any Company Officer or Chief Officer
d. Safety Chief only

Answer 48

B
(AUC 360 2.3)
The correct answer is: IC or Sector Chief only

Question 49

Exterior Insulation Finish System (EIFS) is an exterior wall covering system that uses layered insulation and waterproofing finish. Which one characteristic below describing this system is incorrect?
Select one:
a. This type of system can be found in combustible and non-combustible occupancies including offices, taxpayers, factories, hotels, multiple dwellings, and private houses.
b. The rate of heat release for thermoplastics can be three to five times higher than that of ordinary combustibles, such as wood or paper.
c. The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the outermost, finish-coat layer (usually a cement based polymer).
d. As fire continues to expose the insulating expose the insulating material, it will often soften and liquefy, resulting in a flowing, flammable liquid fire.

Answer 49

C
(AUC 362 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.8)
The correct answer is: The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the outermost, finish-coat layer (usually a cement based polymer).

Question 50

Ladder 400 arrives first due at a fire out the windows of a multiple dwelling. The CIDS indicates the building has an exterior insulation finish system (EIFS). Which one procedure below is correct?
Select one:
a. Initial handlines should be positioned for an exterior attack on the fire only.
b. Engines are required to stretch a 2 ½ inch hoseline at all EIFS buildings.
c. The first arriving engine should consider the deck gun for a rapid attack and knockdown. It has a vertical reach of 135 feet from the tip of the nozzle.
d. Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, an additional engine and ladder shall be special called. The special called ladder shall be a tower ladder if one is not assigned on the first alarm.

Answer 50

D
(AUC 362 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.8, 3.1)
The correct answer is: Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, an additional engine and ladder shall be special called. The special called ladder shall be a tower ladder if one is not assigned on the first alarm.

Question 51

Which one of the following points is correct when using the cockloft nozzle to apply water to an exterior fire involving EIFS that is above the reach of ground based streams?
Select one:
a. Both tips of the cockloft nozzle should be capped with a 1 ½” shut off.
b. The cockloft nozzle operated upward on the exterior of the building can provide a vertical reach of up to two floors.
c. The nozzle should be extended approximately 5 feet from the window sill.
d. The nozzle shall be operated at a slight angle away from the building.

Answer 51

B
(AUC 362 3.2)
The correct answer is: The cockloft nozzle operated upward on the exterior of the building can provide a vertical reach of up to two floors.

Question 52

The FDNY’s suspicious activity reporting policy governs how all members of the FDNY reports suspicious activity, while respecting an individual’s rights and privacy. Which one additional point is incorrect regarding this policy?
Select one:
a. Members must be clear and specific when writing a Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) Form. SAR Forms shall be carried on the apparatus.
b. When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, do not touch anything, retrace their steps, back out of the area and attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving.
c. If a member suspects an individual is engaging in terrorist activity; they should not confront that individual.
d. If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY SOPs to ensure member safety and life-saving measures to the public; they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible.

Answer 52

B
(AUC 363 4.6, 7.5, 8.2, 8.3)
The correct answer is: When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, do not touch anything, retrace their steps, back out of the area and attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving.

Question 53

When encountering suspicious activity requiring a Suspicious Activity Report, a Captain should know that which one following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Information regarding your suspicions should never be transmitted over the department radio.
b. The reporting officer should send the original SAR Form through intra-departmental mail to BFI.
c. A copy of the SAR form shall be filed in the company office.
d. Companies shall not make any journal entries regarding the incident in order to preserve the integrity of the investigation.

Answer 53

B
(AUC 363 8.7, 8.9, 9.1)
The correct answer is: The reporting officer should send the original SAR Form through intra-departmental mail to BFI.

Question 54

Several provisions of the FDNY’s injury and exposure reporting procedures are mentioned below. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The medical officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and biological exposures within 24 hours.
b. If any injury or biological exposure is not reported to the medical officer within 7 days a CIRS 1 “Request to open Computer Injury Reporting System Report” is required to be forwarded to the Chief of Safety.
c. Officers can create non-biological exposure reports on their own; medical officer notification is never required.
d. The officer must enter all available information into the CIRS report, including the injured/exposed member’s signature and narrative within 7 days.

Answer 54

A
(SB 7 2.1, 2.1.1, 2.2.1, 2.3)
The correct answer is: The medical officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and biological exposures within 24 hours.

Question 55

Members are questioning a newly promoted Captain about the FDNY’s policy related to injuries and exposures. The Captain makes several statements. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. In the event of a job wide exposure, BHS will generate a Global Exposure Report. Members may not file an additional exposure report, or take company journal entries related to these incidents.
b. If a member subsequently suffers symptoms from a minor injury requiring medical leave an additional injury report is required following the original report.
c. Medical officer notification is required whether or not a member has symptoms from a non-biological exposure.
d. Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g., flu, food poisoning) do not need to be recorded in CIRS; however, the medical officer must be notified.

Answer 55

D
The correct answer is: Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g., flu, food poisoning) do not need to be recorded in CIRS; however, the medical officer must be notified.

Question 56

After an exposure, in order for an officer to include all members in Group Reporting in CIRS, all of the following conditions are required except which one?
Select one:
a. All members had the same biological exposure.
b. None of the members exhibit symptoms.
c. All members had the same exposure.
d. All members must be assigned to the same unit.

Answer 56

A
(SB 7 5.4)
The correct answer is: All members had the same biological exposure.

Question 57

Which one of the following provisions is correct concerning multiple member injury reports?
Select one:
a. These reports must be completed when two or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour.
b. If the officer responsible to prepare the report is on leave that extends more than 30 days any officer working in the affected unit shall complete the report.
c. Once this report is completed, the Company Commander shall review the report and add meaningful comments and suggestions that will help provide for the future safety of his/her members.
d. The report is forwarded through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety.

Answer 57

C
(SB 7 Addendum 2 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3)
The correct answer is: Once this report is completed, the Company Commander shall review the report and add meaningful comments and suggestions that will help provide for the future safety of his/her members.

Question 58

Which one guideline for the reporting of motor vehicle collisions/incidents involving FDNY apparatus in stated correctly?
Select one:
a. An Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) shall be forwarded to Safety Command for all Fire Department collisions only. Incidents do not require this report.
b. An apparatus struck by a pedestrian is considered an apparatus collision.
c. A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus is a collision for the apparatus that was struck.
d. The company officer involved in a collision shall consider classifying it a major collision if the collision results in either significant damage to the Department or civilian vehicle, or to private property, or results in a life threatening injury or death to a civilian or member

Answer 58

B
(SB 56 3.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.4)
The correct answer is: An apparatus struck by a pedestrian is considered an apparatus collision.

Question 59

When a company officer is involved in a collision, his or her preliminary report to shall include all of the following pieces of information except which one?
Select one:
a. Whether the unit is responding or returning from an alarm/assignment or was on other administrative duties.
b. Whether or not it is a major collision.
c. Give the assigned command/bureau of the unit involved.
d. Advise the number and type of injuries to members or civilians, if any.

Answer 59

B
(SB 56 5.1)
The correct answer is: Whether or not it is a major collision.

Question 60

While operating at a major collision involving a tractor trailer, the Captain of Ladder 399 determined that it was necessary to move the involved vehicles and directed his unit to take the following actions. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The vehicle marks were renewed as necessary until the arrival of NYPD.
b. For all involved vehicles, the location of the rear tires only were marked with “T” shape indicating the outside edge of the tire and the center-line of the axle.
c. The six corners of the tractor trailer were marked.
d. Whether or not motorists are temporarily inconvenienced should be the determining factor when deciding to whether or not to move the vehicles involved in the collision.

Answer 60

C
(SB 56 9.1B, 9.2)
The correct answer is: The six corners of the tractor trailer were marked.

Question 61

A Captain is discussing the FDNY’s procedures and guidelines regarding preventable collisions with a firefighter who is fresh out of chauffeur school. She makes the following points. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. If a fire department apparatus in response mode strikes a vehicle when passing a double parked car it shall be considered a preventable collision.
b. An officer involved in a first preventable collision of any type will be interviewed and counseled by a chief officer from the officer’s assigned battalion in lieu of a supervisory conference.
c. An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 12 month period will result in a supervisory conference with a chief officer from the officer’s assigned battalion.
d. An officer involved in a third preventable collision in a 2 year period will result in a supervisory conference between the unit commander and a chief officer from the unit commander’s assigned battalion.

Answer 61

C
(SB 56 Addendum 4 2.1, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3)
The correct answer is: An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 12 month period will result in a supervisory conference with a chief officer from the officer’s assigned battalion.

Question 62

Ladder 99 is responding to a reported fire in a building under construction. On arrival, the Captain observes wood forms being used for support of a concrete building under construction. He has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The fire load is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs previously stripped from a cured floor which is usually found stored on the floor below the most recently poured floor.
b. The construction progresses by pouring one concrete floor every day.
c. If units observe studs placed approximately four feet apart as they proceed upward in the building reshoring is indicated.
d. The structural stability of the actual floor below the recently poured floor could be considered sound.

Answer 62

D
(SB 66)
The correct answer is: The structural stability of the actual floor below the recently poured floor could be considered sound.

Question 63

While responding to a reported fire in a multiple dwelling, the Captain of Ladder 100 noticed the CIDS for the building mentions the presence of “gypsum roof decking.” When units encounter this type of construction, which one operating precaution outlined below is stated correctly?
Select one:
a. Other than venting the skylight and scuttle covers, members shall not be committed to roof operations when this type of roof construction is found.
b. Interior firefighting operations shall be conducted from areas of safety due to the weight of such decking material (gypsum plank-135 lbs. each, gypsum concrete 17.5 lbs. per sq. ft.).
c. The main drawback of gypsum roof decking, from a firefighting operational standpoint, is the associated truss construction.
d. The presence of a gypsum roof deck will be indicated by a dark powdery residue during saw operations.

Answer 63

B
(SB 85 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
The correct answer is: Interior firefighting operations shall be conducted from areas of safety due to the weight of such decking material (gypsum plank-135 lbs. each, gypsum concrete 17.5 lbs. per sq. ft.).

Question 64

When arriving first at the scene of a fire in a building with window bars which one comment below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The unit transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in building with window bars should include a brief description of the type of building involved and state the presence of window bars.
b. An additional engine and ladder shall be special called.
c. The special called ladder company must be a tower ladder.
d. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a rescue company.

Answer 64

C
(SB 84 4.1, 4.2)
The correct answer is: The special called ladder company must be a tower ladder.

Question 65

When operating at a fire in a building with window bars which one procedure mentioned below is correct?
Select one:
a. The second line must be immediately stretched to the floor above the fire.
b. If possible, room at the front of the building should be made available to position the aerial ladder.
c. The engine company operating the first line must provide an exterior hose line to protect civilians or members trapped inside a building behind window bars or members removing window bars.
d. The FAST unit can provide additional egress routes by removing window bars on at least one window on the fire floor and the floor above, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder, or tower ladder placed to the window.

Answer 65

D
(SB 84 4.4, 4.5, 4.6, 4.8, MMID Ch 4 4.1)
The correct answer is: The FAST unit can provide additional egress routes by removing window bars on at least one window on the fire floor and the floor above, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder, or tower ladder placed to the window.

Question 66

High visibility safety vests have been issued to all units, one for each riding position. Which one additional point below is correct concerning these vests?
Select one:
a. Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways at all times, during the night only.
b. Exemptions from wearing the high visibility safety vests are for members directly involved and in the immediate vicinity of firefighting only.
c. Vest shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus or in an area that is blocked by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic.
d. To repair or replace a damaged vest, forward the vest with an RT-2 to the Tool Room.

Answer 66

C
(SB 2.1, 2.1.2, 4.1, 7.1)
The correct answer is: Vest shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus or in an area that is blocked by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic.

Question 67

First responders must be able to recognize when an active shooter situation exists and adjust tactics accordingly. When it is determined that a fire and/or smoke condition is present, in which an active shooter is occurring or possible firearms could be used against firefighters, members shall operate as follows; which one tactic listed below is described correctly?
Select one:
a. Transmit this information over the Department radio; the member transmitting shall not request a “mixer-off”.
b. At any time, if shooting starts and endangers FDNY units, members shall immediately hide behind some piece of cover. Cover is the same as concealment.
c. Question law enforcement if weapons are known or possibly present. If yes, consider the area a Warm Zone and do not operate.
d. Alert on-scene units of an active shooter. For heightened situational awareness and greater range, consider using the emergency alert tone with a mayday message to notify units this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency.

Answer 67

A
(SB 89 3.1)
The correct answer is: Transmit this information over the Department radio; the member transmitting shall not request a “mixer-off”.

Question 68

Which of the following member is authorized to submit information via the “Pass it On Program”?
Select one:
a. Any member
b. IC in rank of Lieutenant or above
c. IC in rank of Captain or above only
d. IC in rank of BC or above only

Answer 68

B
(SB 90 1.0)
The correct answer is: IC in rank of Lieutenant or above

Question 69

Which condition mentioned below is correct when describing a heavy clutter condition?
Select one:
a. Sever impact due to partial blockage of entrances and interior pathway.
b. Primary and secondary searches will be slightly delayed.
c. Likelihood of gas/electric services disconnected and alternate fuel sources used for heat and cooking used.
d. Smoke/CO detectors will likely be present and operating properly.

Answer 69

C
(SB 92 Chart Pg 3)
The correct answer is: Likelihood of gas/electric services disconnected and alternate fuel sources used for heat and cooking used.

Question 70

It has become commonplace to encounter apartments, homes and even exterior areas of occupancies loaded with material well beyond what would normally be expected to be stores there. Which one operational consideration below is correct when units encounter clutter conditions?
Select one:
a. An entry should be made when completing a NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations.
b. The term “Collyer’s Mansion” shall only be used when describing a heavy clutter condition.
c. When discovered, members should communicate the degree of clutter (minor, medium or heavy) and its impact on operations.
d. When entanglement or entrapment due to avalanche is a real possibility this is indicative of a medium clutter condition.

Answer 70

A
(SB 2.2, 3.1, Chart Pg 3)
The correct answer is: An entry should be made when completing a NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations.