FT 7/27 Flashcards

1
Q

Which point concerning the “Purple K extinguisher is incorrect?
Select one:
a. It covers an area of 40-50 square feet
b. Its stream should be directed at the base of the flames using a side to side motion
c. It has a discharge range of 19’-20’
d. It is effective on fires involving methanol, gasoline diesel fuel and compressed gases

A

A
(TB - Purple K 1, 2..2, 2.3.3) (30 square feet)
The correct answer is: It covers an area of 40-50 square feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
Purple K extinguishers shall checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined?
Select one:
a. Weekly 
b. Quarterly
c. Annually
d. Monthly
A

D
(TB - Purple K—2.4)
The correct answer is: Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

While operating a Purple K extinguisher at a flammable liquid spill fire, FF Methane‘s actions would be incorrect in which statement?
Select one:
a. Direct the stream using a rapid side to side sweeping motion with each sweep slightly wider than the near edge of the fire
b. Hold the nozzle at a 45 degree angle to the ground.
c. Direct the stream of dry chemical 18-24 inches ahead of the flame edge
d. Stop walking at approximately 10 to 12 feet from the front edge of the fire area

A

C
(TB - Purple K—4.1) (6 inches)
The correct answer is: Direct the stream of dry chemical 18-24 inches ahead of the flame edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You are a Company Officer working in Engine 229, a Purple K unit, that is special called to a fire for the use of their Purple K. In this situation, you would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The Purple K unit has two electric hose reels containing 100’ of 1” hose, with special nozzles for expelling the product
b. Be aware that the Purple K truck mounted system will last less than 2 minutes
c. Start the attack about 20-30 feet from the fire, with the wind at your back, and use a side to side sweeping motion.
d. When using more than one extinguisher, the angle of attack of these extinguishers should be no more than 45 degrees

A

D
(TB - PK Add 1) (90 degrees)
The correct answer is: When using more than one extinguisher, the angle of attack of these extinguishers should be no more than 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
The Life Saving Rope has a working load of?
Select one:
a. 750 pounds
b. 600 pounds 
c. 500 pounds
d. 1000 pounds
A

B
(TB Rope 1 - 1)
The correct answer is: 600 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The LSR be placed out of service forthwith whenever?
Select one:
a. It has come in contact with the fumes of an acid
b. It has become extremely wet
c. Any rust stain is found on it
d. It was subjected to the weight of one person

A

A
(TB Rope 1 4.2—4.8) (two persons, becomes Frozen, Persistent rust)
The correct answer is: It has come in contact with the fumes of an acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
When subjected to the weight of one person, the LSR shall be carefully examined for damage or abrasion before being placed back in service. An entry shall also be made in the Company Journal in \_\_\_\_\_ and also on the Life Saving Rope Record Card (RP-100) in \_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. Red, Blue or Black 
b. Red, Black
c. Blue or Black, Red
d. Red, Red
A

D
(TB Rope 1—4.3)
The correct answer is: Red, Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The LSR be placed out of service forthwith whenever?
Select one:
a. It is subjected to medium or highly heated surfaces
b. It is used for a single slide by a member
c. It has developed a kink
d. It shows signs of wear

A

D
(TB Rope 1 4.2 thru 4.8) (High heat only, Strand Hockle, If used for a Single member-it gets examined)
The correct answer is: It shows signs of wear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which point concerning LSR inspections is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Engines shall repack and inspect their LSR on Tuesdays on the 9 x 6 tour
b. Ladders, Squads and Rescues shall repack and inspect their LSR on Mondays on the 9 x 6 tour
c. The Officer on duty must complete an Out Of Service Life Safety Equipment Report and forward it through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety
d. If a Life Saving Rope is placed out of service, the Officer on duty shall notify the administrative Battalion by telephone and fax, and have the LSR immediately replaced

A

D
(TB Rope 1—4.15) (Admin Division)
The correct answer is: If a Life Saving Rope is placed out of service, the Officer on duty shall notify the administrative Battalion by telephone and fax, and have the LSR immediately replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Captain Nylon is placing Ladder 99’s Life Saving Rope out of service. In this situation, he would be incorrect to make an entry?
Select one:
a. On the RP-100 regarding the OOS Life Saving Rope
b. On the current RP-100 in red indicating a new Life Saving Rope is in service, if space allows
c. In the Office Record Journal regarding the OOS Life Saving Rope
d. In the Company Journal regarding the OOS Life Saving Rope

A

B
(TB Rope 1—5) (use a new RP-100)
The correct answer is: On the current RP-100 in red indicating a new Life Saving Rope is in service, if space allows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When repacking the Life Saving Rope which procedure is stated incorrectly?
Select one:
a. After placing the anti-chafing devise on the LSR then pull 1 ½ arms-length of rope through the anti-chafing device and tie a bowline knot on this section of rope
b. The entire rope should first be coiled clockwise into an approximate 4 foot diameter
c. Once the entire rope is coiled in the case, remove 4 feet of rope from the carrying case and place the anti-chafing device on this section of the LSR
d. After the LSR is coiled, place the hook of the LSR in the left front corner of the carrying case, then place the LSR making counterclockwise circles one half the width of the bottom of the case

A

C
(TB Rope 1—DS 1—Pg 2) (remove 3 feet of rope)
The correct answer is: Once the entire rope is coiled in the case, remove 4 feet of rope from the carrying case and place the anti-chafing device on this section of the LSR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When repacking the LSR, it shall be repacked from the opposite end each time. In this regard it would be correct to state?
Select one:
a. One end of the rope shall be marked with red tape
b. One end of the rope shall be marked with black tape
c. Both ends of the rope shall be marked with red tape
d. Both ends of the rope shall be marked with black tape

A

A
(TB Rope 1—DS 1—3.12)
The correct answer is: One end of the rope shall be marked with red tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which point concerning the Life Saving Training Rope is correct?
Select one:
a. It has a work load of 1000 pounds
b. The carrying case is white with black lettering
c. After drill, the rope shall be removed from the carrying case and stored in a dark colored plastic bag in the company office
d. It is 150 feet long

A

C
(TB Rope 1—DS 3—1.5, 1.6, 3.1.1, 3.1.3) (100 feet long, 600 pounds, Yellow)
The correct answer is: After drill, the rope shall be removed from the carrying case and stored in a dark colored plastic bag in the company office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Regarding the usage of the Life Saving Training Rope it would be correct to state that the maximum number of times this rope may be used is?
Select one:
a. 200, 100 times per end 
b. 100, 50 times per end
c. 150, 75 times per end
d. 250, 125 times per end
A

A
(TB Rope 1—DS 3—4.5)
The correct answer is: 200, 100 times per end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
The Life Saving Training Rope may be used to a maximum height of \_\_\_\_\_ stories?
Select one:
a. 3 
b. 5
c. 4
d. 2
A

A
(TB Rope 1—DS 3—5.2)
The correct answer is: 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DELI Pizza 99 Cents Store Jeweler H-TYPE
110-02 110-04 110-06 110-08
Bell Lane Bell Lane Bell Lane Bell Lane

If the fire is in the 99 Cent Store, how would you identify the Deli and the “H type” MD?
Select one:
a. The Deli is Exposure 2-OA, and the “H type” identified is Exposure 4A.
b. The Deli is Exposure O-2A, and the “H type” identified is Exposure 4.
c. The Deli is Exposure 2B, and the “H type” is Exposure 4.
d. The Deli is Exposure 0-2A, and the “H type” is Exposure O4.

A

B
(Ch. 10 Add. 2 Sec. 7.2, 7.3)
The correct answer is: The Deli is Exposure O-2A, and the “H type” identified is Exposure 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DELI Pizza 99 Cents Store Jeweler H-TYPE
110-02 110-04 110-06 110-08
Bell Lane Bell Lane Bell Lane Bell Lane

If the fire building was the “H type” building, how would the Pizza occupancy be designated using FDNY exposure identification?
Select one:
a. Exposure 2.
b. Exposure 2-OB 
c. Exposure 2B
d. Exposure O-2B
A

B
(Ch. 10 Add. 2 Sec. 8)
The correct answer is: Exposure 2-OB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DELI Pizza 99 Cents Store Jeweler H-TYPE
110-02 110-04 110-06 110-08
Bell Lane Bell Lane Bell Lane Bell Lane

If the fire was in the Jeweler, an incorrect method of identifying the 99 cent store can be found in which choice?
Select one:
a. Exposure 2
b. Exposure 02, 110-06 Bell Lane
c. Exposure O2.
d. Exposure O2, the 99 Cent Store sector.

A

A
(Ch. 10 Add. 2 Sec. 7.2, 7.3, 10.1)
The correct answer is: Exposure 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
The Main Display of the HT normally displays the Unit and Assignment/Riding Position. This will be displaced by all but which choice?
Select one:
a. The radio is receiving IDs.
b. A verbal “Mayday” is transmitted. 
c. There is a low battery.
d. There is an Emergency Alert.
A

B
(Ch. 11 Sec. 2.2.2)
The correct answer is: A verbal “Mayday” is transmitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
When using the Motorola APX8000XE handie-talkie, depressing the Home button for \_\_\_\_\_ will return the radio to Tactical Zone A, HT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. 1 second, Tactical 3
b. 2 seconds, Tactical 1 
c. ½ second, Command 2
d. 5 seconds, Command 2
A

B
(Ch. 11 Sec. 2.2.3)
The correct answer is: 2 seconds, Tactical 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When the HT is turned on, which channel will the radio be set to?
Select one:
a. Always Zone A, Channel 2
b. The last channel that it was set to when it was powered off.
c. The channel that the Channel Selector Knob is on.
d. Always Zone A, Channel 1

A

B
(Ch. 11 Sec. 2.2.5)
The correct answer is: The last channel that it was set to when it was powered off.

22
Q

While reviewing the new Motorola APX8000XE Handie-Talkie, Lt. James made several statements concerning the colors on the Transmit/receive LED. Which one was incorrect?
Select one:
a. Solid Red – HT is transmitting
b. Blinking Amber – HT is receiving a secured transmission
c. Blinking Red (while transmitting) – HT transmitting at low battery condition
d. Blinking Red (while not transmitting) – HT is receiving a transmission

A

D
(Ch. 11 Sec. 2.2.5 E) (HT is in Emergency Mode; Note: Solid Amber – HT is receiving a transmission)
The correct answer is: Blinking Red (while not transmitting) – HT is receiving a transmission

23
Q
In order to activate the High Visibility LED light on the HT and use it as a flashlight, how long must the light be depressed?
Select one:
a. 1 second
b. ½ second
c. 2 seconds 
d. 5 seconds
A

C
(Ch. 11 Sec. 2.5 F; Fig 9) (To turn the light off, depress the light for 2 seconds)
The correct answer is: 2 seconds

24
Q
After depressing the HT Push to talk Button, how long should a member pause before speaking?
Select one:
a. ½ second 
b. 3 seconds
c. 2 seconds
d. 1 second
A

A
(Ch. 11 Sec. 2.5 C)
The correct answer is: ½ second

25
Q
The HT is equipped with a Time-Out Timer. This feature will cut off the transmitter after \_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
Select one:
a. 15 seconds
b. 45 seconds
c. 30 seconds 
d. 60 seconds
A

C
(Ch. 11 Sec. 3.3) (At the Remote Speaker Mic, the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds.)
The correct answer is: 30 seconds

26
Q
To activate the Emergency Alert, the Emergency Alert Button must be depressed for approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_?
Select one:
a. ½ second
b. 1 second 
c. 2 seconds
d. ¼ second
A

B
(Ch. 11 Sec. 3.5)
The correct answer is: 1 second

27
Q

How may an Emergency Alert on the HT be reset?
Select one:
a. By depressing the EAB for 2 seconds or by turning the HT off and then back on.
b. Only by turning the HT off and then back on.
c. By depressing the EAB for 2 seconds or by using the EFAS in the Battalion vehicle.
d. Only by depressing the EAB for 1 second.

A

A
(Ch. 11 Sec. 3.1.1) (An Impolite Alert is when the radio sends a transmission even when the channel is busy, however it will NOT preempt any ongoing transmissions)
The correct answer is: By depressing the EAB for 2 seconds or by turning the HT off and then back on.

28
Q

When a member activates an Emergency Alert on their HT, all but which one of the following occurs?
Select one:
a. The Top Display illuminates in orange and alternates between “EMERGENCY” AND “UNIT ID”
b. The High Visibility LED light blinks out 3 Dots, 3 Dashes, and 3 Dots.
c. The wattage of the HT increases to 5 watts.
d. The Main screen displays “Mayday” in a red stripe.
e. The Transmit/Receive light on the Remote Speaker Mic blinks red.

A

D
(Ch. 11 Sec. 3.5.1 Fig. 11) (The main screen displays “EMERGENCY” in an ORANGE stripe)
The correct answer is: The Main screen displays “Mayday” in a red stripe.

29
Q

When the EAB is depressed, Audible Alerts are emitted. Which choice is incorrect concerning these alerts?
Select one:
a. Approximately 8 seconds after the Impolite Alert, a Polite Alert is sent out, unless other members are transmitting.
b. Two Polite Alerts will be transmitted when the channel is clear.
c. An audible Beacon will be transmitted from the radio that activated the Emergency Alert.
d. An Impolite Alert is sent out that will immediately preempt all ongoing transmissions.

A

D
(Ch. 11 Sec. 3.5.1.1)
The correct answer is: An Impolite Alert is sent out that will immediately preempt all ongoing transmissions.

30
Q

If an Emergency Alert is activated on another member’s HT, a receiving member would be incorrect to expect which choice on their HT?
Select one:
a. The ID of the radio transmitting the Emergency Alert will be displayed on the Main Display.
b. When the member who transmitted the Emergency Alert depresses their Push to Talk button, members receiving the transmission will observe an Orange Band with “Emergency Call” on the Main Display.
c. The Main and Top Display will be held for 10 seconds.
d. EA received in Orange/Amber will be displayed on the Main Display.

A

C
(Ch. 11 Sec. 3.5.2, Fig. 12, 3.5.2.1) (8 seconds)
The correct answer is: The Main and Top Display will be held for 10 seconds.

31
Q
When the double dot Menu button below Rcnt (Recent) is depressed on the HT, the last \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ calls will be displayed. Calls that display an \_\_\_\_\_\_ were Emergency Alert activated transmissions.
Select one:
a. 15, Orange Triangle 
b. 10, Red Square
c. 15, Red Triangle
d. 10, Orange Square
A

A
(Ch. 11 Sec. 3.5.3, Fig. 13)
The correct answer is: 15, Orange Triangle

32
Q
Items (keys, key fobs, etc.) can be attached to which choice?
Select one:
a. The HT case
b. The Remote Speaker Mic
c. The HT strap. 
d. The HT antenna
A

C
(Ch. 11 Sec. 5.6)
The correct answer is: The HT strap.

33
Q
The Officer on Duty must immediately make the following notifications upon discovery of a missing HT with the exception of which choice?
Select one:
a. Fire Marshals and NYPD 
b. Radio Shop via email.
c. Administrative Battalion and Division
d. FDOC via email and telephone.
A

A
(Ch. 11 Sec. 6.1)
The correct answer is: Fire Marshals and NYPD

34
Q
Which HT Channels are always encrypted?
Select one:
a. HT-9 and HT-10 
b. HT-9 only
c. HT-10 only
d. CITYWIDE FIRE 1
A

A
(Ch. 11 Add. 3 Sec. 2.1)
The correct answer is: HT-9 and HT-10

35
Q
When a unit receives a spare HT from the Radio Depot, which HT channels must be checked for proper ID?
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 9, and 14
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2, and 9 only 
d. 1 and 14 only
A

C
(Ch. 11 Add. 4)
The correct answer is: 1, 2, and 9 only

36
Q

Which characteristic of a bowstring truss roof described below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Updated calculations have revealed that bowstring truss roofs may only support 40% of the load they were originally designed to hold.
b. Snow drifts that cause an eccentric, unbalanced, concentrated load can create an overload on the trusses
c. The top chords of many bowstring trusses have inadequate tensile strength to support code-prescribed loads.
d. These structures have a characteristic hump-like profile. The longer the span, the higher the bow.

A

C
(Taxpayer 3.3.3) (The BOTTOM CHORDS have inadequate tensile strength)
The correct answer is: The top chords of many bowstring trusses have inadequate tensile strength to support code-prescribed loads.

37
Q
Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only \_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes.
Select one:
a. 10 or 15
b. 5 or 10 
c. 15 or 20
d. 20 or 25
A

B
(Taxpayers 3.3.3)
The correct answer is: 5 or 10

38
Q
When steel beams are heated from \_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees Fahrenheit, their yield strength drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail.
Select one:
a. 1000 to 1500 
b. 1300 to 1800
c. 500 to 1000
d. 1800 to 2500
A

A
(Taxpayers 3.6.3)
The correct answer is: 1000 to 1500

39
Q
Cast iron columns are unpredictable and fail, on the average, in about how many minutes in fire endurance tests?
Select one:
a. 40
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
A

D
(Taxpayers 3.7.1)
The correct answer is: 30

40
Q

Some of the warning signs that will signal a potential structural collapse during firefighting operations at a taxpayer are mentioned below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within 20 minutes into the operation at the fire.
b. Sagging or bulging walls. One cubic foot of brickwork weighs about 100 pounds.
c. Heavy body of fire which had been burning out of control for 10 minutes or more, particularly in a large open floor area.
d. Spongy or soft feeling as you walk on the roof.

A

C
(Taxpayers 4.2.5) (Heavy body of fire which had been burning out of control for 20 MINUTES OR MORE)
The correct answer is: Heavy body of fire which had been burning out of control for 10 minutes or more, particularly in a large open floor area.

41
Q
A room or fire area requires only \_\_\_\_\_ percent of its space to contain the explosive mixture for the entire area to possibly explode.
Select one:
a. 25 
b. 15
c. 35
d. 45
A

A
(Taxpayers 4.4.1 F)
The correct answer is: 25

42
Q

When there are warning signs of a potential backdraft at a taxpayer, which procedure below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The proper procedure is to open the roof or area directly over the fire.
b. After roof venting has been accomplished, entry may be forced at the lower level and lines advanced to extinguish the fire.
c. An alternative to roof venting, and just as effective, is the use of a hose stream.
d. If horizontal ventilation is performed at lower levels prior to roof venting, the chances of a backdraft explosion are greatly increased.

A

C
(Taxpayers 4.4.1 K, I, M, N) (ALTHOUGH NOT AS EFFECTIVE is the use of a hose stream)
The correct answer is: An alternative to roof venting, and just as effective, is the use of a hose stream.

43
Q

Which point about an inverted roof at a taxpayer is incorrect?
Select one:
a. If fire enters the cockloft at the high point of the building, our fire problem is less severe than if it entered into the cockloft at the low point,
b. In most cases, the high portion of the cockloft is at the rear of the building.
c. Since most fires originate in the rear of the first floor where utilities, storage, and services are located, this is the area from which the fire usually extends to the cockloft.
d. The inverted roof may be pitched from the front to the rear, front and rear to the center, or from the front, rear, and sides to the center.

A

B
(Taxpayer 5.3.3) (At the front of the building)
The correct answer is: In most cases, the high portion of the cockloft is at the rear of the building.

44
Q

When discussing roof ventilation at a taxpayer, which tactic is stated incorrectly?
Select one:
a. A roof sector supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This could be a chief or company officer as designated by the IC.
b. The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof.
c. A roof sector supervisor must supervise roof operations when one or more power saws is working on the roof.
d. If trenching is to be implemented, leave the returns in place where the skylights are to be used as an effective trenching boundary.

A

C
(Taxpayers 5.4.8, 5.4.12, 5.4.14) (Roof sector supervisor must supervise roof operations when MORE THAN ONE power saws is working on the roof.)
The correct answer is: A roof sector supervisor must supervise roof operations when one or more power saws is working on the roof.

45
Q
Generally, wood joists run the short side of a building or occupancy, particularly in the older taxpayers where the occupancies within a taxpayer have frontages not exceeding \_\_\_\_\_ feet.
Select one:
a. 30
b. 35
c. 25 
d. 20
A

D
(Taxpayers 5.5.10)
The correct answer is: 20

46
Q

When units are operating at a taxpayer fire with a bowstring truss roof, which operating procedure mentioned below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Units are reminded of the collapse potential of these type roof systems, with particular attention being paid to the side walls.
b. Prior to implementing interior operations, the IC must perform a risk assessment.
c. At vacant buildings with bowstring truss roof construction, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.
d. Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss design.

A

A
(Taxpayer 5.5.25) (particular attention being paid to the FRONT AND REAR WALLS)
The correct answer is: Units are reminded of the collapse potential of these type roof systems, with particular attention being paid to the side walls.

47
Q

In newer type taxpayers the roof supports are of lightweight open web steel joists. When encountering this type of roof, which point below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Vertical ventilation should be limited to removal of skylights and scuttle covers if present.
b. They are spaced greater distances apart than the standard wood joists.
c. Lightweight members have little inherent fire resistance.
d. The roof of a fire building with this type of roof support may only be cut with permission of the IC.

A

D
(Taxpayers 5.5.26) (The roof of a fire building with this type of roof support MUST NOT BE CUT)
The correct answer is: The roof of a fire building with this type of roof support may only be cut with permission of the IC.

48
Q
At a taxpayer fire, a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_ portable ladders shall be placed on the front of the building.
Select one:
a. 3
b. 2 
c. 4
d. 1
A

B
(Taxpayers 5.7.8)
The correct answer is: 2

49
Q
At a cellar fire in a taxpayer which engine company ensures the sprinkler is supplied?
Select one:
a. 3rd 
b. 1st
c. 2nd
d. 4th
A

A
(Taxpayers 7.2.3)
The correct answer is: 3rd

50
Q
At a taxpayer the basket of the tower ladder can be positioned \_\_\_\_\_ feet above the street level and the tower ladder stream can be directed into the store or stores.
Select one:
a. 1 to 2 
b. 4 to 5
c. 3 to 4
d. 2 to 3
A

A
(Taxpayers 8.1.20)
The correct answer is: 1 to 2