FT CO 13 Flashcards
Engine Companies will provide CFR-D level care for all patients until the arrival of an EMS Unit. Company Officers of CFR-D Units shall ensure proper staffing for their unit. What is the correct procedure for staffing CFR-D Engine for the start of the tour?
Select one:
a. CFR-D Engine shall start the tour with minimum of two CFR-D Firefighters only.
b. CFR-D Engine shall start the tour with minimum of three CFR-D Firefighters only.
c. CFR-D Engine shall start the tour with minimum of two trained member’s firefighters or officer.
d. CFR-D Engine shall start the tour with minimum of one trained member’s firefighters or officer.
A
(CRF-D Chapter 2 1.7,1.8)
The correct answer is: CFR-D Engine shall start the tour with minimum of two CFR-D Firefighters only.
At the start of each tour, the officer shall make out the riding list that includes each member’s CFR-D assignment along with their firefighting assignment and riding position. As an officer assigned to a 4 firefighter engine you would know which point below to be incorrect about members CFR-D duties?
Select one:
a. The officer should carry a portable radio handlight and is responsible for completing the Pre-Hospital Care Report (PCR).
b. The airway firefighter is responsible for manually stabilizing the patient’s spine (if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the airway, and administering oxygen if needed. In a response to a cardiac arrest, he/she begins ventilation. This firefighter should carry the oxygen bag.
c. The checker firefighter is responsible for conducting the patient assessment and performing any hands-on care. In response to a cardiac arrest, this Firefighter checks the pulse and begins compressions and shall carry the Trauma Bag.
d. The defibrillator firefighter in a response to a cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates the defibrillator.
A
(CRF-D Chapter 2 2.1)
The correct answer is: The officer should carry a portable radio handlight and is responsible for completing the Pre-Hospital Care Report (PCR).
Upon arrival of the Company at a CFR-D call, the engine officer would know all the below choices to be correct except?
Select one:
a. When approaching the scene, the officer in charge shall perform the following. Observe the scene for safety of the crew, patient and bystanders. Identify the number of patients involved. Ensure BSI (Body Substance Isolation) procedures are used and personal protective gear is on. Determine the need for additional resources.
b. Verify address and any additional incident information.
c. The Company is required to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on the scene, since the EMS link will not display that information electronically for the fire dispatcher.
d. The officer in charge will notify the fire dispatcher by transmitting the 10-84 via MDT.
C
(CRF-D Chapter 2 3.6, 3.6.1, 3.7)
The correct answer is: The Company is required to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on the scene, since the EMS link will not display that information electronically for the fire dispatcher.
When a CFR-D Company arrives at a medical response, the officer shall transmit the appropriate signal based on the patient condition and/or the care provided by the CFR-D Company. What is the most correct choice below when it comes to patient care?
Select one:
a. A 10-45 was transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for a patient that was burnt by flame from a fireplace.
b. A PCR is required when a CFR-D Company is on-scene at any CFR-D assignment regardless if patient care is provided.
c. If the patient is unstable, perform the appropriate focused physical exam for the patient.
d. If the patient is potentially unstable, packaging efforts must begin immediately while treating life threats. Immobilize to a spineboard if indicated.
A
(CRF-D Chap 2 3.10, 3.12, 3.13 & Comm. Chap 8 10-37 code)
The correct answer is: A 10-45 was transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for a patient that was burnt by flame from a fireplace.
When requesting an ambulance, Companies must provide all the following information to the dispatcher except?
Select one:
a. CUPS Status and Chief complaint
b. Pulse and respiratory rate
c. Patients sex and subjective assessment
d. Age and If CPR initiated
C
(CRF-D Chapter 2 3.11)
The correct answer is: Patients sex and subjective assessment
Which one of the following patients would be considered unstable?
Select one:
a. Difficulty breathing
b. Uncontrolled bleeding
c. Severe pain in any area of the body
d. Inability to move any part of the body
A
(CRF-D Chapter 2 3.14)
The correct answer is: Difficulty breathing
If the incident involves attempted resuscitation of a non-breathing/cardiac arrest patient, all efforts shall be exhausted until released by EMS. Fire Department personnel will perform resuscitation in which situation indicated below?
Select one:
a. Valid “Living Will”
b. Obvious death
c. Dependent lividity or Rigor mortis
d. Decomposition
A
(CRF-D Chapter 2 4.4)
The correct answer is: Valid “Living Will”
Engine 21 responds to an EMS run for a “Major Injury” on the 5th floor. As you are arriving on scene you see an FDNY ambulance on scene. Once in the lobby the EMS members tell you they got it and don’t need help from Engine 21. Which signal should you transmit?
Select one:
a. 10-91
b. 10-19, 10-37 Code 3
c. 10-19, 10-37 Code 4
d. 10-31
C
(CRF-D Comm. Chap 8 10-37 code)
The correct answer is: 10-19, 10-37 Code 4
While on an EMS run the family of the patient denies you access to the patient, the officer in charge shall immediately request?
Select one:
a. ALS Unit
b. Police Department
c. EMS Supervisor
d. Battalion Chief
B
(CRF-D Chapter 2 4.8)
The correct answer is: Police Department
While on an EMS run, Engine 214 had to force entry to apartment 6B on the 6th floor. Once inside they provide patient care to an elderly woman who fell and couldn’t get up. Once the EMS Unit arrives they release Engine 214 and prepare to transport the woman to the hospital. Who is responsibility for safeguarding the premises until the police or a responsible person arrives?
Select one:
a. EMS Conditions Officer
b. EMS Unit
c. The Patient
d. Engine 233 (Fire Unit)
D
(CRF-D Chapter 2 4.8)
The correct answer is: Engine 233 (Fire Unit)
Engine 283 responded to 4 different EMS runs on the day tour. From the runs below which is the only one that does not need a Pre-Hospital Care Report (PCR) Completed?
Select one:
a. Members found a 95-year-old man in his bed with rigor mortis. It was determined he was dead on arrival (DOA).
b. A 3-year-old got her head stuck in stairs railing, she was removed before your arrival, and transported once her parents got her to stop crying. They refused medical aid (RMA) and brought her to the hospital themselves.
c. The Police Department requested Engine 283 to check the vitals of an emotionally disturbed person (EDP) on the train platform before the arrival of a EMS Unit.
d. On arrival NYPD ESU had already initiated patient care, they advise you that your assistance is not required. You transmit a 10-91 and go 10-8 before the EMS Unit arrives.
D
(CRF-D Chapter 2 4.4, 4.9,4.10)
The correct answer is: On arrival NYPD ESU had already initiated patient care, they advise you that your assistance is not required. You transmit a 10-91 and go 10-8 before the EMS Unit arrives.
While on an EMS run Engine 275 encounters a patient exhibiting bizarre behavior on a fire escape and appearing to be an emotionally disturbed person (EDP). The patient declines to accept treatment by the members of Engine 275. The Engine officer should request all the below to respond except?
Select one:
a. Police Department
b. Battalion Chief
c. Deputy chief
d. EMS unit
C
(CRF-D Chapter 2 4.10, AUC 271)
The correct answer is: Deputy chief
When EMS arrived on the scene of a CFR-D response, they took over patient care and transported the patient. The Engine officer then determined that the Engine company O2 bag became contaminated with blood from the patient. In this situation, the engine officer should?
Select one:
a. Remain in service for Fire Duty only.
b. Place the engine out of service for Fire Duty and CFR-D response.
c. Place the engine out of service for CFR-D response only.
d. Remain in service for both Fire Duty and CFR-D response.
B
(CRF-D Chapter 2 3.16)
The correct answer is: Place the engine out of service for Fire Duty and CFR-D response.
As an officer of a CFR-D engine you would know you must transmit a 10-99 in which of the following situations?
Select one:
a. Company performing CFR-D.
b. Any patient that is unstable or potentially unstable
c. Any situation where the unit will remain on the scene for 30 minutes or more.
d. Any CFR-D response where, in response to a request for an ETA for EMS from the Company at the scene, EMS reports the unit is delayed.
C
(CRF-D Chapter 2 3.19)
The correct answer is: Any situation where the unit will remain on the scene for 30 minutes or more.
Engine 235 arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response where after a complete search of the area, no patient is found. In this situation, the officer would be correct to?
Select one:
a. First contact neighbors or building personnel, then verify the information with the dispatcher, lastly review the response printout.
b. First verify the information with the dispatcher, then review the response printout, lastly contact neighbors or building personnel.
c. First review the response printout, then verify the information with the dispatcher, lastly contact neighbors or building personnel.
d. First contact neighbors or building personnel, then review the response printout, lastly verify the information with the dispatcher.
C
(CRF-D Chapter 2 4.7)
The correct answer is: First review the response printout, then verify the information with the dispatcher, lastly contact neighbors or building personnel.
When may a FDNY fire apparatus be utilized to transport a patient?
Select one:
a. Only if EMS had no units available, the patient is critical and the hospital is within 2 blocks.
b. Only if EMS had no units available, the patient is less than 9 years old and is in critical condition.
c. Only if EMS had no units available, the patient is an infant and is in critical condition.
d. Under no circumstances shall fire apparatus be used to transport patients.
D
(CRF-D Chapter 2 4.17)
The correct answer is: Under no circumstances shall fire apparatus be used to transport patients.
Engine 280 arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response where they find a 13-year-old male that is having a severe allergic reaction to peanut butter. The patient is in respiratory arrest. Due to a language barrier the parents of the child refuse permission for engine 280 to provide medical treatment. In this situation, Engine 280 would be most correct to think they should?
Select one:
a. Inform the parents that since the child is a minor they have the legal right to refuse treatment for their child.
b. Explain the reason for the treatment, what intervention is necessary to correct the problem and the consequences if the illness is not treated. If the parents still refuse, withhold treatment till an EMS unit is on scene.
c. Withhold treatment, but immediately call the FDNY/EMS telemetry to have them speak with the parents.
d. Provide treatment even if the patents are refusing to give permission to treat the child.
D
(CRF-D Chapter 2 6.1.1 A&B)
The correct answer is: Provide treatment even if the patents are refusing to give permission to treat the child.
As required under New York State Social Services’ Law, if there is a reasonable cause to suspect that a child has suffered, or will suffer, abuse of maltreatment as a result of the acts of a child’s parent or guardian, members are mandated to file a report. To facilitate this report, Engine Companies (CFR-D Units) should immediately request the response of the Police Department, an FDNY EMS supervisor, and an ambulance through the dispatcher. Who is responsible for filing the mandated report?
Select one:
a. Engine Company (CFR-D Unit)
b. Ambulance crew
c. EMS supervisor
d. Police Department
B
(CRF-D Chapter 2 6.1.1 D)
The correct answer is: Ambulance crew
Members of Engine 298 were discussing the Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Order at roll call. The members were correct in all their statements except which one below.
Select one:
a. If there are any questions about the validity of the DNR Order, request the response of an EMS Officer and contact the On-Line Medical Control Physician.
b. If a valid DNR Order is presented after resuscitative efforts have been initiated members must continue CPR till on scene EMS contact On-Line Medical Control to terminate CPR.
c. Health Care Proxy, Living Will and Power of Attorney are not recognized in the pre-hospital environment.
d. An Out-of-Hospital DNR Order should be updated by the patient’s physician every ninety (90) days but remains valid even if it has not been updated.
B
(CRF-D Chapter 2 Add 1, 4.1.2, 4.2)
The correct answer is: If a valid DNR Order is presented after resuscitative efforts have been initiated members must continue CPR till on scene EMS contact On-Line Medical Control to terminate CPR.
At a cardiac arrest run you have your Airway Firefighter begin ventilating the patient. This firefighter brings the oxygen bag. The Checker Firefighter is performing patient assessment and any hands-on care. He checks for a pulse and begins compressions. He carries the Trauma Bag. The Defib/Documenter Firefighter starts completing the Pre-Hospital Care Report (PCR). She hooked up and operates the defibrillator on the down patient. While performing patient assessment the Checker Firefighter finds the below bracelet on the patient’s wrist. Would be correct to tell your unit to? Please choose the MOST CORRECT answer.
Select one:
a. Indicates the patient has Medical Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (MOLST). Discontinue CPR.
b. Request an EMS supervisor to respond to determine what action to take.
c. A bracelet is considered a valid DNR Order. Have your unit Discontinue CPR.
d. Bracelets are not considered a valid DNR Order. Have your unit Continue CPR.
C
(CFR-D Chap #2 Add 1 sec. 3.3)
The correct answer is: A bracelet is considered a valid DNR Order. Have your unit Discontinue CPR.
Emergencies involving scaffolding will present FDNY units with unique challenges. Modern scaffolding used for building maintenance and construction, together with construction features of modern high-rise buildings will require specialized equipment and training. Which statement is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The first arriving units should contact an available building representative to gather the information. This information should be communicated to the IC and responding Squad and Rescue Company.
b. All apparatus shall be kept clear of the danger area and parked in a safe location. If possible, enter the building from an entrance out of the danger area.
c. The anchor points of the scaffolding must only be evaluated by a Squad and Rescue company. Usually, this will be on the roof of the building, but may be located on setbacks, in shafts, or suspended from building maintenance units)
d. In all instances, units should cordon off the area below the scaffold to vehicle and pedestrian traffic. The area shall be taped off. This marks the danger area for civilians and FD personnel.
C
(Emergency Procedures Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 3.1)
The correct answer is: The anchor points of the scaffolding must only be evaluated by a Squad and Rescue company. Usually, this will be on the roof of the building, but may be located on setbacks, in shafts, or suspended from building maintenance units)
On a windy day in October members of Ladder 2 were discussing emergency operations at an unoccupied swinging scaffold incident. Which choice is the most correct?
Select one:
a. If it is determined that the scaffold needs to be dismantled it must be done from the exterior of the building.
b. Locate windows nearest to the scaffold and have a member go on the scaffold to secure it.
c. Secure scaffold with utility ropes or other equipment to prevent movement.
d. Inspect interior of the building for damaged or loose building/scaffold material that may fall.
C
(Emergency Procedures Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 4.1, 4.2)
The correct answer is: Secure scaffold with utility ropes or other equipment to prevent movement.
Occupied stalled scaffold emergencies are frequently caused by overheated hoist motors, loose electrical connections, or tripped breakers. From the statements below please choose the incorrect choice.
Select one:
a. A team was sent to roof to inspect scaffold rigging systems and determine if they are secure.
b. Communicate with stranded workers if they are stranded on windowless area of building; consider lowering handie-talkie from above.
c. If the wire rope hoist line is jammed within unit. Have the workers continue to operate the hoist to free the hoist line.
d. If hoist is overheated, allow it to cool for at least 15 minutes. Then have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.
C
(Emergency Procedures Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 5.2, 5.3, 5.4)
The correct answer is: If the wire rope hoist line is jammed within unit. Have the workers continue to operate the hoist to free the hoist line.
Members of Ladder 30 were operating at an occupied hanging scaffold. The scaffold was found to be severely tilted to one side and there were 2 workers hanging on their safety lines. Which is an incorrect action below?
Select one:
a. They located the window nearest to the scaffold and determine it can be opened for victim access. The Ladder Officer communicated with the trapped workers and ascertains their physical and mental state.
b. From an open window, without going out onto scaffold, Ladder 30 Can firefighter attempted to attach the lifesaving rope snap hook onto the victim’s harness.
c. The Ladder Officer communicated to units below any potential collapse of parapet, exterior wall or rigging system.
d. The Roof firefighter was immediately lowered from the roof to the stranded workers below.
D
(Emergency Procedures Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 4.2,6.1)
The correct answer is: The Roof firefighter was immediately lowered from the roof to the stranded workers below.
Members operating at a suspended scaffolding emergency may have to remove or cut windows to get to a potential victim. Who should be tasked with window removal or cutting?
Select one:
a. High rise unit
b. 1st due Ladder Company
c. Rescue or Squad
d. Building Glassier
C
(Emergency Procedures Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 7.1)
The correct answer is: Rescue or Squad
DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape is used to isolate designated areas that members should not enter. This applies at all times, to all members, during all stages of operations. Which point below is most correct when it comes to DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape.
Select one:
a. At a Hazardous materials incident DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone.
b. The tape is black with red lettering.
c. DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape is carried in all Battalion and Division vehicles.
d. The only exception to enter the danger zone is to save life.
C
(AUC 360 1.1, 2.3, ERP 4.2.5)
The correct answer is: DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape is carried in all Battalion and Division vehicles.
Design and construction projects in Fire Department facilities require proper communication and coordination with facilities and construction personnel. FDNY members should not direct a contractor to stop working. The only exception is in the event of an imminent health or safety issue. Any such incident must be followed by an immediate notification to who?
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Assistant Commissioner of Facilities
c. Contractors
d. Architects
B
(AUC 358 2.5)
The correct answer is: Assistant Commissioner of Facilities
When Fire Department facilities are being worked on. Members shall not enter designated construction zones unless requested to do so by all of the following except?
Select one:
a. Contractors
b. Project Engineers
c. FDNY Project Manager
d. Architects
C
(AUC 358 2.6)
The correct answer is: FDNY Project Manager
During MUD Engine 222 were discussing department operations involving PV systems. The members made a few comments. In which statement below was an incorrect point stated?
Select one:
a. Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array or try to breach PV arrays with tools.
b. Firefighters should shut-off electrical power to the combiner box to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries, or back-up generator.
c. The greatest hazard to firefighters is Direct Current shock.
d. Firefighters must avoid walking on modules since this can expose them to electric shock.
B
(AUC 351 2.1, 6.1)
The correct answer is: Firefighters should shut-off electrical power to the combiner box to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries, or back-up generator.
Ladder 48 arrives second due for a fire on the top floor of a 6 story H-Type non-fireproof building. As Ladder 48’s inside team headed to their position they heard the first due Roof Firefighter give a report “There are PV arrays over the fire area, and we have heavy fire in the cockloft”. The IC transmits a 2nd alarm. Which actions taken were most correct?
Select one:
a. Members of Ladder 48 know the Incident Commander should delay overhaul until there is confirmation that the PV system has been physically removed.
b. Ladder company efforts inside the building should be directed toward opening walls and floors to define the boundaries of the fire.
c. After the fire was extinguished Ladder 48 officer called for ventilation fans to facilitate the removal of smoke and heat from the top floor.
d. The prime focus of ladder company operation should be the removal of skylights and scuttles as well as vertical ventilation.
C
(AUC 351 6.3)
Ladder company efforts inside the building should be directed toward opening ceilings to define the boundaries of the fire.
Ventilation fans can facilitate smoke and heat removal from the top floor once the fire has been extinguished.
The Incident Commander (IC) should delay overhaul until there is confirmation that that the PV system has been shutdown.
The correct answer is: After the fire was extinguished Ladder 48 officer called for ventilation fans to facilitate the removal of smoke and heat from the top floor.
After a 2nd alarm cockloft fire in the Bronx members were reviewing Engine operations at fires involving PV arrays. From the statements below which statement is the most correct?
Select one:
a. Straights steams or foam should be used from a distance since they have great extinguishing capabilities.
b. After careful size-up a company officer can decide to use water on energized PV system components.
c. Hose streams using copious amount of water should be applied directly onto energized PV system component.
d. Once approved it is recommended to utilize a fog nozzle, from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern to extinguish the PV arrays.
D
(AUC 351 6.4)
The correct answer is: Once approved it is recommended to utilize a fog nozzle, from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern to extinguish the PV arrays.
Company officers know that firefighter’s safety at fires in PV arrays is of upmost importance. From the choices below which is most correct?
Select one:
a. PV systems do produce electricity at night.
b. Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.
c. On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the South and West facing sides.
d. Lightning flashes occurring at night cannot energize the PV System.
C
(AUC 351 7)
The correct answer is: On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the South and West facing sides.
What is the first priority order for the use of Positive Pressure Fans (PPF)?
Select one:
a. Pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack, by controlling the smoke condition at the attack stair doorway and throughout the attack stairway.
b. Ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control.
c. Pressurizing the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control.
d. Ventilate the fire apartment.
A
(AUC 349 6.5)
The correct answer is: Pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack, by controlling the smoke condition at the attack stair doorway and throughout the attack stairway.
