FT 2/22 Flashcards

1
Q

A Firefighter who is assigned to monitor EFAS at a 10-75 should be aware that if a member utilizes their Emergency Alert Button at a fire, which one of the following will occur?
Select one:
a. A hard copy will automatically print on the MDT paper showing the company the member is working in, his / her position and member’s regular assigned unit
b. The member’s identity line will be highlighted and remain red in both the RADIO STATUS area and MAYDAY area on the EFAS screen until the EFAS member manually resets the screen.
c. A Chief’s vehicle currently on the Starfire screen with EFAS capability that is within HT range of the member activating their EAB, will have its MDT automatically switch from Starfire to EFAS
d. Once cleared, the member’s identity line will change from red back to white in both the RADIO STATUS area and MAYDAY area on the EFAS screen

A

C
(Comm 9 5.1.1, 5.1.2, 5.1.3) Until the Emergency Alert is resolved and the HT is reset. Once cleared, the member’s highlighted identity line will change from red (active) back to white in the “RADIO STATUS” area. The member’s highlighted identity line will change from red (active) to yellow (cleared) and will remain in the “MAYDAYS” area., A hard copy automatically prints showing the company, position and time of Mayday.
The correct answer is: A Chief’s vehicle currently on the Starfire screen with EFAS capability that is within HT range of the member activating their EAB, will have its MDT automatically switch from Starfire to EFAS

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2
Q

If it becomes necessary to relieve a unit at a forward point of the search, the relieving company should enter the area to be searched with their ________ hand in contact with the rope (if possible). The company being relieved should exit the IDLH with their _______ hand in contact with the rope (if possible).
Select one:
a. Right/ Right
b. Right/ Left
c. Left/ Left
d. Left/ Right

A

A
(TB Rope 6, 8.2) This way companies entering and exiting the area will be on opposite sides of the rope
The correct answer is: Right/ Right

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3
Q

The Lobby Control Unit will operate on which Handie-Talkie Channel?
Select one:
a. The Command Channel
b. The Tactical Channel

A

B
(ICS Chap.2 Add 4 4.2)
The correct answer is: The Tactical Channel

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4
Q

Firefighters Sixth Grade with less than ninety days service may perform housewatch only between the hours of 0900-2400 provided they are monitored by the officer on duty or by an experienced member.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

A
((Regs 20.1.1)
The correct answer is: Agree

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5
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect health hazard for carbon monoxide (CO)?
    Select one:
    a. CO has a greater affinity for hemoglobin than O2. CO is about 210x more attracted to hemoglobin than O2.
    b. To reverse the buildup of COHb in the body, over 100 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.
    c. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration has established a maximum safe working level for CO at 35 parts per million (PPM) over an eight (8) hour period in the general work place.
    d. CO is absorbed into the body through the lungs where it is transferred to your blood.
A

B
(Haz-Mat 4, section 3) To reverse the buildup of COHb in the body, over 200 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.
The correct answer is: To reverse the buildup of COHb in the body, over 100 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.

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6
Q

The Chief of Operations requires that the supervisor of a unit must submit a “Multiple Member Injury Report” when _____ or more members are injured at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour.
Select one:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2

A

A
(SB 7 Add.2 1.3)
The correct answer is: 3

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7
Q

Choose an incorrect general ladder company tactic at cast iron and mill loft buildings?
Select one:
a. Units should delay opening the fire floor door if this would expose occupants or other units on the interior stairs until a charged hose-line is in position.
b. Indiscriminate overhauling on the underside of segmental arch floors can cause a localized collapse.
c. Consider avoiding Pediments when positioning apparatus ladders due to uneven contact points and the prohibitive distance from the ladder to the roof surface, use your discretion.
d. The first ladder company is responsible for ventilation, entry and search (VES) of the fire floor. The second ladder company is responsible for VES of the floors above.

A

C
(Lofts, section 7) Pediments must be avoided when positioning apparatus ladders due to uneven contact points and the prohibitive distance from the ladder to the roof surface.
The correct answer is: Consider avoiding Pediments when positioning apparatus ladders due to uneven contact points and the prohibitive distance from the ladder to the roof surface, use your discretion.

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8
Q

The verbal button on the PC/ATS should be used?
Select one:
a. Only when a verbal alarm is located within 3 blocks of the firehouse
b. Only when a verbal alarm is located within 1 block of the firehouse
c. When any verbal alarm is received
d. Only when a verbal alarm is located within 2 blocks of the firehouse

A

D
(Comm Man Ch. #2 - 2.2.4C)
The correct answer is: Only when a verbal alarm is located within 2 blocks of the firehouse

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9
Q

Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus. This condition can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the __________ the building?
Select one:
a. Rear end angled away from
b. Front end angled away from
c. Rear end angled towards
d. Front end angled towards

A

B
(L-6—Ch 2—Pg 2)
The correct answer is: Front end angled away from

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10
Q

When positioning for rescue, the preferred method of rescue is the?
Select one:
a. Straight on approach, where the bucket is first extended towards the building, out of the victim’s reach, then raised to the victim’s level for the rescue
b. Angular approach, where the bucket is first raised to the victim’s level, out of the victims reach, then extended in for the rescue

A

B
(L-6—Ch 2—Pg 7)
The correct answer is: Angular approach, where the bucket is first raised to the victim’s level, out of the victims reach, then extended in for the rescue

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11
Q

Units arrive at the scene of a hazardous material incident where they find a DOT placard with the number “4”. In this situation, they should recognize that this placard indicates the possibility of?
Select one:
a. Flammable Liquids
b. Flammable Solids
c. Oxidizers
d. Combustible Liquids

A

B
(HM 2 2.1)
The correct answer is: Flammable Solids

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12
Q

When deep penetration of the stream is necessary to hydraulically overhaul stock, which tip is preferable
Select one:
a. 1 ½”
b. 1 ¾”
c. 1 ¼”
d. 2”

A

A
(L-6—Ch 4—Pg 4)
The correct answer is: 1 ½”

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13
Q

An Engine arrives at the scene of a fire in a PD where the Officer decides to utilize In-Line Pumping from a hydrant with a 6” main found 100 feet before the fire building. In this situation, it would be correct to think that?
Select one:
a. A 10-70 must be transmitted
b. This hydrant should not be used for ILP, unless absolutely necessary
c. If the intake pressure drops below 20 psi, the pump operator must have his intake supply augmented
d. Time permitting; a 2 ½” gate should be attached to the hydrants 2 ½” outlet for possible augmentation, as this tactic is particularly effective in this situation.

A

D
(Evol 1A Notes 2, 5, 11) (During Water Alert, ILP shall not be used unless absolutely necessary. Drops below 15 psi)
The correct answer is: Time permitting; a 2 ½” gate should be attached to the hydrants 2 ½” outlet for possible augmentation, as this tactic is particularly effective in this situation.

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14
Q

Deleted

A

Deleted

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15
Q

The 2008 NYC Building Code requires _______ voice communication from the Fire Command Center to all stairways and dwellings for all new R-2 buildings greater than _____ feet in height?
Select one:
a. One Way, 150 feet
b. Two Way, 125 feet
c. Two Way, 125 feet
d. One Way, 125 feet

A

D
(MDs 6.21.2)
The correct answer is: One Way, 125 feet

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16
Q

Special leaves of absence (without pay) shall be applied for in writing at least ______ hours in advance of such leave, and include all pertinent information and reasons for request.
Select one:
a. 24
b. 12
c. 48
d. 36

A

A
(Regs 17.5.1)
The correct answer is: 24

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17
Q

After battling a multiple alarm fire on a hot summer day the officer would be correct to instruct her members to take all but which one of the following actions to avoid “Heat Stress”?
Select one:
a. Have members remove their helmets and coats, and open the front flap of their pants to remove pent up heat and humidity within the Bunker Gear.
b. No member should be alone during any phase of the recuperation process. Maintain the “buddy system” for the duration of R&R.
c. Members should drink cold water or sports drinks (20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter).
d. Members should seek cool, shady areas and casually move about to enhance rehydration.

A

C
(SB 87 4) AVOID concentrated “sports” drinks and hot drinks.
The correct answer is: Members should drink cold water or sports drinks (20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter).

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18
Q

Transmit a ____________ for any visible fire or smoke emanating through the exterior skin of a High-Rise Office Building or when a serious fire has been verified.
Select one:
a. 10-75
b. 10-77
c. 2nd alarm
d. 10-76

A

C
(Hi-Rise Office 5.2.2B)
The correct answer is: 2nd alarm

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19
Q

The 5-10-20 rule should be observed at auto accidents. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. 5” from side airbags, 10” from passenger airbags, 20” from driver airbags
b. 5” from passenger airbags, 10” from driver airbags, 20” from side airbags
c. 5” from side airbags, 10” from driver airbags, 20” from passenger airbags
d. 5” from driver airbags, 10” from passenger airbags, 20” from side airbags

A

C
Disentanglement (2.6)
The correct answer is: 5” from side airbags, 10” from driver airbags, 20” from passenger airbags

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20
Q

When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the roadbed at an approximate _______ degree angle.
Select one:
a. 35
b. 70
c. 85
d. 60

A

B
(AUC 207 Add 11 2.3)
The correct answer is: 70

21
Q

Which statement below was stated correctly when discussing open web steel joists?
Select one:
a. Found in modern taxpayers, open web steel joists have excellent fire resistance ratings.
b. They are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.
c. They are used to span lengths up to 100 feet.

A

B
They have NO fire resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling and roof finishes. They are used to span lengths up to 60 feet. (Taxpayers 3.3.3)
The correct answer is: They are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

22
Q

Please choose an incorrect health hazard associated with asbestos?
Select one:
a. A friable state occurs when the material is disturbed during fire or overhaul operations, flakes off due to age, or from deterioration of the protective covering.
b. Asbestos in its natural state or “Asbestos Containing Material” (ACM), when intact, does present a health hazard.
c. The hazard is created when the material becomes friable, enters the atmosphere, and is inhaled or ingested.
Feedback

A

B
(Haz-Mat 3, section 2.1) Asbestos in its natural state or “Asbestos Containing Material” (ACM), when intact, does not present a health hazard.
The correct answer is: Asbestos in its natural state or “Asbestos Containing Material” (ACM), when intact, does present a health hazard.

23
Q

All fire teams applying water with hand held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe to a minimum approach a distance of _____ feet to catenary wires.
Select one:
a. 25
b. 10
c. 50
d. 4

A

B
(AUC 207 Add 9 3.2.4)
The correct answer is: 10

24
Q

During power saw operations, observe as nearly as possible a ______ foot radius “Circle of Danger” from the point where the blade is operating.
Select one:
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15

A

C
(TB Tools 9 4.7)
The correct answer is: 20

25
Q

When using a TL as a high point anchor, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. The metal stokes basket should be used at all high point anchor operations
b. The preferred location for the high point is under the bucket
c. All members must be removed from the apparatus and the siren placed to the on position, while the apparatus is placed to the off position
d. In an emergency, the landing pads of the bucket may be used as a high point anchor

A

D
(L-6—Ch 5—Pg 2)
The correct answer is: In an emergency, the landing pads of the bucket may be used as a high point anchor

26
Q

You are a newly promoted officer working your first tour in a ladder company that has a tiller apparatus. It is a cold winter day and snow is beginning to fall. After conducting the roll call, you should know that which one of the following is a proper precaution required by you to ensure a safe response?
Select one:
a. You should remind your chauffeur that U-turns are not permitted with Department apparatus.
b. When a response is received, you should visually check for the presence of the Tiller FF prior to giving the order to proceed.
c. It is especially important that you, as a covering officer, discuss the inclement weather with the chauffeur.
d. You should instruct the Chauffeur and Tiller FF to conduct an inspection of the apparatus and then report back to you with the results of their inspection.

A

B
(SB 6—2.1.3.E) ( Officer conducts inspection with chauffeur and tiller, Dangerous areas / intersections are especially important, U-turns are permitted)
The correct answer is: When a response is received, you should visually check for the presence of the Tiller FF prior to giving the order to proceed.

27
Q

Units respond to a 2nd alarm for a major leak from the Buckeye Pipeline in Queens. Regarding the operations at this incident, it would be correct to state that flag persons with handie-talkies and flashlights must be positioned at least?
Select one:
a. 1,200 feet on each side of the incident and no Department apparatus shall be brought closer than 600 feet to a leak
b. 1,000 feet on each side of the incident and no Department apparatus shall be brought closer than 500 feet to a leak
c. 1,000 feet on each side of the incident and no Department apparatus shall be brought closer than 1,000 feet to a leak
d. 1,200 feet on each side of the incident and no Department apparatus shall be brought closer than 1,000 feet to a leak

A

B
(AUC 149—6.5.7, 6.6.3)
The correct answer is: 1,000 feet on each side of the incident and no Department apparatus shall be brought closer than 500 feet to a leak

28
Q

A Ladder Officer operating at a Place of Worship fire finds extension in the attic space. In this case she should realize which point is correct?
Select one:
a. In most cases, it can be extinguished with a handline
b. The ceiling may collapse before the roof trusses collapse, and may cause an explosion-like eruption

A

B
(Place of Worship—6.4, most cases—cannot be extinguished by handlines due to the limited access to the space and lack of ventilation.)
The correct answer is: The ceiling may collapse before the roof trusses collapse, and may cause an explosion-like eruption

29
Q

Please choose an incorrect procedure at an LPG leak with a fire?
Select one:
a. Carbon dioxide extinguishers can also be used on small LP gas fires.
b. Never extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped.
c. Ordinarily no attempt should be made to move a tank involved in a fire.
d. Portable dry chemical extinguishers are effective on small LP gas fires.

A

B
(Haz-Mat 1, section 1.4) Do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped, except under extremely unusual conditions.
The correct answer is: Never extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped.

30
Q

A Decon Station must be established prior to any entry of CPC equipped personnel into the Hot or Warm Zones. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Decontamination Station?
Select one:
a. The primary function of this station is to provide immediate and adequate decontamination to Entry team members.
b. Runoff water from the decontamination operations shall be addressed, in consultation with DEP.
c. The Decon Station shall continually monitor HT communications and also ensure that a designated engine company augments the water supply.
d. It can also be used to decontaminate civilians until the arrival of FDNY shower units.

A

B
In consultation with Haz-Mat Company #1 (Haz-Mat 5 8.1)
The correct answer is: Runoff water from the decontamination operations shall be addressed, in consultation with DEP.

31
Q

Carbon Monoxide is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 Degrees F., and a Lower Explosive Level (LEL) of _____% and an Upper Explosive Level (UEL) of _____ %.
Select one:
a. 10 / 20
b. 12.5 / 74
c. 5 / 15
d. 15 / 70

A

B
(Haz-Mat 4 2.4)
The correct answer is: 12.5 / 74

32
Q

The new diamond blade used on the portable power saw is a single blade that will replace both the aluminum oxide abrasive disc used for metal cutting and the silicon carbide abrasive disc used for cutting concrete, all of the following characteristics are correct regarding this blade with the exception of?
Select one:
a. The blade is made from solid steel with no welds which will reduce injuries from shattered blades and segments.
b. This blade will generate 90% less sparks than the abrasive discs.
c. The blade will have a electroplate swirl design to help prevent binding.
d. One diamond blade should outlast 15 quality abrasive discs.
e. This blade is a diamond brazed saw blade with a diamond percentage of 85% on the cutting edge.

A

D
(TB Tools 9 App 1 3.3.3) Outlast 150 abrasive discs
The correct answer is: One diamond blade should outlast 15 quality abrasive discs.

33
Q

Which members should bring a saw to the roof for a fire in the cockloft of a taxpayer?
Select one:
a. The 1st Roof and 2nd Roof FFs
b. The 1st OV only
c. The 1st OV and 2nd Roof FFs
d. The 2nd Roof FF only

A

A
(Taxpayers 8.3.3)
The correct answer is: The 1st Roof and 2nd Roof FFs

34
Q

Please choose an incorrect Light Train procedure from the list below?
Select one:
a. The decision to use a “Light Train” is to be made only by the Chief in Charge (CIC), based on the size-up of the incident.
b. The primary means of communications shall be via the Train Operators radio.
c. The possibility of delay in communications must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports from the “Light Train” shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 5 minutes.
d. The Chief in Charge (CIC) must assure a communications link with the FD Unit on the “Light Train” before authorizing its use. If a communications link cannot be established, the “Light Train” is not to be used.

A

C
(AUC 207 add 7, sec 2) The possibility of delay in communications must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports from the “Light Train” shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 15 minutes.
The correct answer is: The possibility of delay in communications must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports from the “Light Train” shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 5 minutes.

35
Q

Members of a CPC Unit Back-Up Team shall stand fast, in the standby position at a location determined by their CPC Unit Officer. The CPC Standby Position requires members to have both legs in the suit, outer boots and surgical gloves on, SCBA donned, cylinder open, facepiece on, but regulator disengaged from the facepiece, right arm in the suit and an identity tag in place.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

A
(Haz-Mat 5 7.1, 7.2)
The correct answer is: Agree

36
Q

A Ladder Company Officer would be correct to instruct members that the units AFFF extinguisher must be emptied, refilled and recharged if it is not used within ______ of being charged?
Select one:
a. One Year
b. 3 months
c. 9 months
d. 6 months

A

A
(TB Foam Add 2, Section 5)
The correct answer is: One Year

37
Q

Portable generators should be operated for _______ minutes weekly. During this time, operate all lights for _____ minutes to test for proper working order of lights and generator under load.
Select one:
a. 20 / 10
b. 30 / 15
c. 15 / 5
d. 20 / 5

A

C
(TB Tools 4 3.8.2)
The correct answer is: 15 / 5

38
Q

A Roof firefighter operating on the roof of an OLT is using a door he removed from the bulkhead and a halligan to gain access to the roof of the bulkhead. After driving the hook of the halligan into the roof, he should then position the door against the bulkhead at an angle of ________ degrees with the roof.
Select one:
a. 15 - 25
b. 25 - 40
c. 20 - 30
d. 30 - 45

A

D
(Ladders 3 5.3.3 B)
The correct answer is: 30 - 45

39
Q

When making a rescue of an unconscious, incapacitated, or obese victim, position the _______ level with the window sill or top rail of the fire escape.
Select one:
a. Top rail of the bucket
b. Lowest part of the bucket
c. Middle of the bucket

A

A
(L-6—Ch 3—Pg 3)
The correct answer is: Top rail of the bucket

40
Q

Ladder 4 after removing 3 adults who were stuck in an elevator on the 17th floor would transmit which signal?
Select one:
a. 10-29 Code 2
b. 10-29 Code 3
c. 10-29 (No code)
d. 10-29 Code 1

A

D
(Communications Chap. 8) (Code 1 – Occupied, Code 2 – Unoccupied)
The correct answer is: 10-29 Code 1

41
Q

Regarding subdividing firewalls, it would be correct to state?
Select one:
a. Fire partitions in the throat always extend from the front to the rear wall
b. Subdividing walls are usually continued above the roof line
c. Apartments in the throat may span a firewall and have two interior stairs as exits with no fire escape
d. A fire escape in the throat that spans the firewall indicates one apartment in the throat

A

C
(MDs 5.11.3-5.11.6) (- one apartment in the throat, - usually extends from the front to the rear wall, - usually not continued above the roof line)
The correct answer is: Apartments in the throat may span a firewall and have two interior stairs as exits with no fire escape

42
Q

Engine 153 and Ladder 77 have just extinguished a car fire. The car has been stripped of all doors and wheels and has out of state license plates. The officers would be correct to transmit which one of the following codes?
Select one:
a. 10-23
b. 10-22
c. 10-41 code 2
d. 10-24

A

D
(Communications Chap. 8) (10-24 for any car with plates or value greater than salvage)
The correct answer is: 10-24

43
Q

Members should pre-plan bucket movement in the event of an imminent or actual collapse. When operating at upper floors, this movement will generally be?
Select one:
a. Sideways
b. Upwards
c. Retracting
d. Downwards

A

B
(L-6—Ch 5—Pg 1)
The correct answer is: Upwards

44
Q

Captain Seltzer is working a night tour in Engine 99 when he walks into the kitchen of Engine 99 and Ladder 100 at 1905 hours and finds 3 red cups on the kitchen table with alcohol in all 3 cups. He then walks outside in the rear yard and sees 12 firefighters and one Lieutenant having some barbeque wings for “nosh”. Nine of the firefighters are on-duty for the 6 x 9 tour, and three firefighters are hanging over from the day tour. In this situation, the Captain would be correct to immediately?
Select one:
a. Personally notify the Administrative Battalion, Administrative Division and BITS
b. Conduct a Roll Call of all on-duty and off-duty members and advise them of their right to representation before being questioned by the Investigating Officer
c. Prohibit any on or off-duty member from leaving the premises without his permission
d. Immediately relieve all on-duty members from emergency response duty and have both units placed out of service

A

D
(AUC 202 — Page 5)
The correct answer is: Immediately relieve all on-duty members from emergency response duty and have both units placed out of service

45
Q

During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall observe, “As near as possible and practical, a ________ foot radius Circle of Danger.”
Select one:
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15

A

C
(TB Tools 9 4.7)
The correct answer is: 20

46
Q

At collapse operations, the Search Assessment Marking System consists of a __________ marking system that when completed, will form the letter “X” with designated markings in each quadrant.
Select one:
a. 3’ x 3’
b. 1’ x 1’
c. 2’ x 2’
d. 18 inch x 18 inch

A

C
(Collapse Addendum 2 2.1)
The correct answer is: 2’ x 2’

47
Q

Choose an incorrect standpipe procedure from the list below?
Select one:
a. If the first due engine is supplying the standpipe and sprinkler systems, the second and third due engine companies must stretch additional lines to augment both systems.
b. If a pressure reducing/restricting device (PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it should be removed. If the PRD cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, than it is permissible to use an outlet with a PRD.
c. If a building is equipped with both a standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first supply line must be attached to the sprinkler siamese.
d. If a standpipe system is to be supplied via a floor outlet, proper fittings must be employed to attach the 3-1/2” hose to the 2-1/2” outlet threads.

A

C
(Engines chap 9, sec 9.3) If a building is equipped with both a standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first supply line must be attached to the standpipe siamese.
The correct answer is: If a building is equipped with both a standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first supply line must be attached to the sprinkler siamese.

48
Q

Which companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street at a collapse operation?
Select one:
a. 2nd and 3rd ladder companies
b. Two of the second alarm ladder companies
c. 2nd and 3rd engine companies
d. Two of the second alarm engine companies

A

D
(Collapse 5.3)
The correct answer is: Two of the second alarm engine companies

49
Q

Please choose the incorrect 10-38 sub code from the list below?
Select one:
a. Code 1 = Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Investigation (low battery, defective detector, unwarranted alarm, etc.)
b. Code 4 = Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency (Specify) e.g.: No detector present in affected area, detector present in affected area, but did not activate.
c. Code 2 = Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident (CO Meter Reading of 1-9ppm).
d. Code 3 = Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Emergency (CO Meter Reading of greater than 9ppm).

A

B
(Comm Man Ch. 8 10-38 code) No Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency (Specify) e.g.: No detector present in affected area, detector present in affected area, but did not activate.
The correct answer is: Code 4 = Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency (Specify) e.g.: No detector present in affected area, detector present in affected area, but did not activate.