Bx Test 25

Question 1

2nd due truck responsibilities are many at fires in Class 2 MD’s. Which choice below is in accord with department policy for a fire on the 15th floor of an 18-story building? (CORRECT)
A: The 2nd Ladder Company will operate in the apartment above the fire in all circumstances.

B: The 2nd Ladder Officer will ensure the curtain is brought to the roof.

C: If a life-saving rope rescue is required, the 2nd roof firefighter will proceed to the roof to initiate a rescue attempt.

D: The 2nd Ladder Company will ensure all evacuation stair doors (if any) are closed on the fire floor.

Answer 1

D
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 BUILDINGS
D IS CORRECT – 8.8.6
A – Unless needed to augment operations on the FIRE FLOOR, the 2nd ladder company will proceed to and operate in the apartment above the fire. 8.8.7
B – For a top floor fire, the 2nd arriving ladder officer will ensure the curtain is brought to the roof. 8.8.7
C – When the fire floor is within 2 floors of the roof. If a rescue is not required, proceed to the roof to assist the 1st roof firefighter 8.8.9

Question 2

You, the Lieutenant, working in E-100 during the 6x9 tour walk into the kitchen at approximately 2300 hours to grab a drink of water. As you enter the kitchen you smell alcohol and reasonably suspect the FFs have engaged in alcohol consumption. At this point, you carry out several actions. Choose the incorrect action.
A: Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving premises without permission of the administrative Battalion Chief

B: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty

C: Immediately have the affected unit placed OOS

D: Notify the administrative Battalion Chief or, if appropriate, the next superior officer

E: Notify BITS

F: Document the incident in the company journal

Answer 2

A
Explanation:
Investigating Officer
Know this procedure cold
AUC 202 5.5

Question 3

What would be the appropriate code to transmit for an incident in the subway system that involved burning rubbish on the tracks?
A: 10-22

B: 10-28 code 1

C: 10-28 code 2

D: 10-28 code 3

Answer 3

C
Explanation:
10-22: Outside rubbish fire
10-28: Subway or Railroad System - Fire, Emergency (non-medical) or Smoke Condition
Code 1: Structural fire
Code 2: Non-Structural fire (e.g. train fire, rubbish on the tracks, etc.)
Code 3: Emergency (non-medical)
Comm 8 p9

Question 4

Cellar fires in taxpayers can be debilitating and arduous operations. Which of the following line placements described below is incorrect at a fire in the cellar of a taxpayer?
A: If a hoseline is operating in a cellar or similar area below grade, an additional charged hoseline must be positioned at the top of the interior cellar stairs to extinguish any extending fire and to protect members operating on the first floor. This position should normally be covered by the 2nd hoseline.

B: Entrance to the cellar may be one or more of the following: an interior cellar stairway, an interior trap door, an exterior flush sidewalk door, an exterior stairway, or a horizontal entrance from an adjoining cellar.

C: Cellars of large area or heavy fire conditions may require two hoselines, one advancing and the other charged and ready to operate if necessary.

D: The last member on the hoseline in the cellar must maintain surveillance of the area to the rear for endangering fire or other conditions. A member positioned at the interior entrance to the cellar similarly should monitor conditions for the first floor.

Answer 4

C
Explanation:
Cellars of large area or heavy fire conditions may require two hoselines advancing in unison.
Taxpayers 7.2.21

Question 5

Which of the following is CORRECT according to our written procedures regarding the Blue Light in the transit system?
A: An Emergency Evacuation Device will be found at the first blue light location south of the southbound platform of underground and grade level subway stations.

B: The Power Removal Box will be found along the right of way under the blue light.

C: Subway System Blue lights are located every 800’ along the right of way. Near the Blue light there is a power removal box, a telephone and dry chemical extinguisher.

D: Air Train Blue Light Station Power Removal Boxes are found every 800’. Inside the box, there is a red power removal button, a schematic, and dry chemical extinguisher.

Answer 5

A
Explanation:
AUC 207 & ADDENDUM 12 – AIR TRAIN SYSTEM
A IS CORRECT - Addendum 11 - 3.1
B – The Power Removal Box may not be necessarily located under the Blue Light, but it will be in proximity to it or across the tracks from it. 8.1 Pg 12 top.
C – While not directly written under the Blue Light section, 8.5.1 reads Dry Chemical extinguishers at the power removal boxes found along the right of way approximately 600’ apart. 8.1 – Near the blue light there is a power removal box, a telephone and fire extinguisher. Also in under river rail 2.9.4
D – Dry Chemical extinguishers are found aboard Air Train Cars not at blue lights.

Question 6

It is 0600 hours, and you have just been relocated to another firehouse due to a multiple alarm in the great Borough of the Bronx. In order for you to provide relief for your night crew as the change of tour approaches, you shall notify the dispatcher when?
A: 0730 hours

B: 0800 hours

C: 0830 hours

D: 0845 hours

Answer 6

B
Explanation:
Officers on duty with units relocated to another quarters shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough in which relocated that relief will or may, be required.
Key in on the time and which dispatcher to notify if relocated to another borough
AUC 217 sec 4.1

Question 7

Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding Fire Department operations at an IED incident, post detonation?
A: Fire units should respond to the POI and Triage Transfer Point with the following equipment: Meters. Skeds, Tourniquets, Triage tags and CFR equipment.

B: FDNY members assigned to a Staging Area must conduct a thorough search of the area for secondary devices.

C: Leave emergency vehicles that were inside of the primary blast/crime scene area in place until the Incident Comnander determines they are safe to move and moving them will not destroy key evidence.

D: In all cases, members should don appropriate PPE, including their SCBA facepieces, and this equipment must be worn and used throughout the entire operation.

Answer 7

A
Explanation:
B) FDNY members assigned to a Staging Area must conduct a thorough SURVEY of the area to ensure that all threats and suspicious objects are identified and mitigated. Members of the FDNY are NOT trained to conduct a SEARCH for explosive devices. Members are to SURVEY (VISUAL OBSERVATION) the Staging Area but shall not conduct a search for devices.
C) Leave emergency vehicles that were inside of the primary blast/crime scene area in place until the NYPD BOMB SQUAD can determine they are safe to move and moving them will not destroy key evidence.
D) Members should don appropriate PPE. However, members should NOT don their SCBA facepieces unless there are indications of respiratory danger based on victim reaction (SLUDGEM) or meter readings. Wearing the facepiece could inhibit vision at this type of operation.
ERP Add 3 5.1.3

Question 8

Members should be familiar with the method of accessing subway emergency exits. Which comment below contains incorrect information about the features of subway emergency exits?
A: Both the standard and upright emergency exits can be accessed with the subway emergency tool, the Triangle Key.

B: The Triangle Key and Billy Bar can be used in conjunction to open the locking device of an emergency exit.

C: The Billy Bar is not essential to opening the emergency exit doors.

D: The emergency exit stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. The concrete stairs are often steeper.

Answer 8

D
Explanation:
D. The emergency exit stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. The METAL stairs are often steeper WITH OPEN TREADS.

NOTE C: ALTHOUGH NOT ESSENTIAL, THE BILLY BAR AIDS IN OPENING THE DOORS MORE QUICKLY AND EASILY.

Under River Rails 2.5.1, 2.5.2

Question 9

When responding to a reported fire in a Fireproof Multiple Dwelling, an overriding consideration concerning size-up must be wind conditions and its effects on the fire. Which choice below is INCORRECT regarding these concerns?
A: Building height, size, shape and location of adjoining or adjacent buildings add to the unpredictability of the effects of wind on fire conditions.

B: The direction and speed at the street level is a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level.

C: Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is not venting out of an open or failed window is a potentially dangerous, life threatening condition. This is the classic ventilation profile of a wind impacted fire.

D: It does not take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building. When the wind subsides or shifts, pressure will equalize allowing the fire and smoke to vent out the window

Answer 9

B
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – WIND IMPACTED FIRES - ADDENDUM 3
B IS INCORRECT – 3.2.1 – Directions and speed at the street level is not a reliable indicator.
A – 3.2.1
C – 3.2.2
D – 3.2.1

Question 10

With a full second alarm assignment 10-84 and operating, as you exit the building, which FDNY member would you expect to report to so he/she can assign you to the Rehabilitation Group
A: Resource Unit Leader

B: Safety Battalion

C: Medical Branch Director

D: IC

Answer 10

A
Explanation:
At 2nd or greater alarms or when special called for by the IC, the Resource Unit Leader (RUL) shall assign units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group, as appropriate
At incidents where the RUL is not assigned (10-75 or All-Hands) the IC retains the responsibility to ensure proper rehabilitation is conducted
AUC 230 sec 7.4 and 7.6

Question 11

For the purposes of eCIDS, a nonfireproof structure renovated or repaired using metal “C” joists should be classified as?
A: CL3LW

B: CL2

C: CL2LW

D: CL3

Answer 11

A
Explanation:
A Fire-Protected structure constructed using metal “C” joist or steel bar joist would be classified as a CL2LW.
A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL3LW.
A Wood Frame structure constructed using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL4LW.< br> Comm 4 4.4.2 D3

Question 12

Listed below are several priorities for first alarm engine companies to consider at the scene of a building collapse. Of the four listed, which is the highest priority?
A: Protect exposures.

B: Extinguish active fire in surrounding debris.

C: Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.

D: At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2 ½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation.

Answer 12

B
Explanation:
In order of highest to least priority, first alarm engine companies are to:

1. Extinguish active fire in the affected building AND SURROUNDING DEBRIS.
2. Protect exposures.
3. Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.
4. At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 21⁄2” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation. In addition, a 31⁄2” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first arriving tower ladder.
5. At a suspected terrorist event, 21⁄2” hoselines should be located between two apparatus, or other substantial shielding, to protect personnel from secondary blasts set to injure emergency responders.

Collapse 7.1

Question 13

Reports of special importance shall be preceded by an immediate telephone communication to the Deputy and Battalion Chief on Duty. Which of the following would NOT require an immediate notification?
A: Ladder 1 responds to a car accident where two civilians were killed.

B: Ladder 2 is involved in a minor accident causing damage to the mirror and bumper of a car.

C: Ladder 3 loses a thermal imaging camera during operations at a fire in a vacant.

D: Ladder 4 is involved in an altercation with civilians at a stuck elevator.

Answer 13

C
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 30
C IS INCORRECT – Lost property reports do not require immediate telephone notifications. 30.1.6
A – Loss of life at a fire or other operation
B – Accidents
D – Unusual Occurrences

Question 14

Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given how many of hours of driver training, not including emergency responses?
A: 3 hours

B: 5 hours

C: 10 hours

D: 15 hours

Answer 14

B
Explanation:
Must have 3 years experience in the FD to be considered for Chauffeur Training School. In unusual circumstances, exceptions to this policy will be granted with the approval of the Chief of Operations AUC 254 sec 1.3 and 2.4

Question 15

In which case below would you expect the dispatcher to assign 3 Engines, 1 Ladder and 1 BC for a single source structural response?
A: Normal Response

B: Fallback Step 1

C: Fallback Step 2

D: Fallback Step 3

Answer 15

D
Explanation:
Note: On a verified second source on Fallback Step 3, 3 Engines, 2 Ladders and 1 BC will be dispatched.
Comm 6 6.4.3 C

Question 16

According to CFR protocols the four “CUPS” criteria are: *1. Critical *2. Unstable *3. Potentially Unstable and *4. Stable. The company officer shall ask the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance, and advise the dispatcher to relay the seriousness of the patient’s condition to the responding EMS units when it is determined that the patient’s condition is which of the following?
A: 1 only

B: 1,2

C: 1,2,3

D: 1,2,3,4

Answer 16

B
Explanation:
Also if the patient is CRITICAL OR UNSTABLE, packaging efforts must begin immediately while treating life threats.

CFR Chapter 2: 3.9.3; 3.12

Question 17

There is a heavy fire condition in a row of attached stores in a 2-story taxpayer. The required ladder companies will arrive at the scene. Which ladder placement was INCORRECT according to ladder company bulletins?
A: Added emphasis was placed on positioning the aerial ladder for roof access.

B: The initial tower ladder positioning goal was the ability to operate at street level and protect exposures.

C: During overhaul operations, the middle bucket railing was positioned just below the work area.

D: Portable ladders were raised to completely ladder the 2nd floor of the fire building

Answer 17

C
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CROSS REFERENCE – TXPR – TL
C IS INCORRECT – The top basket railing is positioned just below the work area TL CH 3 3.7
A – TXPR 9.2.1
B – TL CH 2 2.1.5
D – TXPR 9.1.2

Question 18

There are many different types of basic emergencies the FDNY responds to, and mitigates each and every day. From the following emergencies, choose the one that members operated at incorrectly.
A: At an overheated ballast, members shut power, removed bulb. removed cover panel, and disconnected wires, and isolated the black and Red power wires and covered exposed ends with caps or tape

B: With live electrical wires down in the street, members stretched a precautionary handline with a fog nozzle, and kept a safety distance of at least 25 feet

C: When using the street valve to shut down a defective hydrant, members noticed a decrease in flow at approximately 12 full turns counterclockwise

D: At a flooded basement in a vacant building, members opened the street trap on the sewer side in an attempt to drain the water

Answer 18

A
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Emergencies 3
A- BLACK and WHITE wires………p-9
B- p- 8
C- p-5
D- p- 4

Question 19

Which of the following duties of the FAST Unit officer is listed incorrectly?
A: The officer of the FAST Unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP, unless otherwise directed by the Incident Commander.

B: Upon arrival, the FAST officer shall verify that the IC is aware of the unit’s presence and designation as FAST. If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall remind the IC of their FAST designation.

C: When communicating to other units and between FAST Unit members, the FAST officer and member’s radio designation shall include the word “FAST” after the unit designation. Ex: “L-100-FAST to L-100-FAST OV.”

D: The FAST officer should bring an up-to-date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include any CIDS information that is available.

Answer 19

C
Explanation:
When communicating to OTHER UNITS, the FAST officer and member’s radio designation shall include the word “FAST” after the unit designation. Ex: “L100-FAST to Command”
Note: Communication BETWEEN FAST Unit members does NOT require the use of the word FAST after the unit designation. Ex: “Ladder 100 CAN to Ladder 100”
MMID Ch 2 4.1-4.5

Question 20

Which tactic performed by the first arriving ladder company at a peaked roof private dwelling fire is stated incorrectly?
A: The ladder company officer conducting a search and examination on the fire floor in a private dwelling should be the only one to initiate the request for additional ventilation on that floor or the floor above.

B: The entrance door shall be controlled until the fire area can be further isolated or a charged hoseline is advancing through the door to extinguish the fire.

C: The Roof/OV team’s tool assignment for portable ladder operations is a portable ladder, 6’ halligan hook and/or halligan for each member.

D: Primary consideration for entry for a fire in the cellar is the entrance door providing quickest access to the fire area.

Answer 20

A
Explanation:
A. The ladder company officer conducting a search and examination on the fire floor in a private dwelling should be the only one to initiate the request for additional ventilation on that floor ONLY.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 5.1, 5.2

Question 21

Which of the following choices below is CORRECT regarding civilian personnel entering quarters?
A: EEO staff will present their ID and sign the company journal. The unit will be placed out of service while the staff conducts their compliance inspection.

B: BITS may enter quarters and after presenting their official ID have unrestricted access to all areas of quarters. The member on housewatch shall notify the officer on duty that their presence is required at housewatch.

C: EEO staff may enter quarters conducting an unscheduled and unannounced compliance inspection. The member on housewatch will notify the officer that their presence is required at the housewatch.

D: Testing Unit staff will enter quarters unannounced. The member on housewatch will notify the officer on duty that their presence is required at housewatch.

Answer 21

C
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 20 – HOUSEWATCH DUTY
C IS CORRECT – 20.3.10
A - The EEO staff will conduct the EEO compliance inspection while the Unit remains in-service. 20.3.10
B - No Fire Department employee shall make any notification to any superior officers or any other announcement regarding the entry or presence of DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel on official business unless specifically directed to do so by DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel. 20.3.10
D – SEE B – No notification for testing staff…

Question 22

Of the following forcible entry techniques, choose the one members performed correctly.
A: When forcing open a window, members placed the fork end of the Halligan under the window at the corner of the window sill and applied downward pressure on the Halligan

B: When forcing a door with a multi-lock that is engaged, members cut a triangle in the lower quadrant of the door on the hinge side

C: When using either a cutting torch or a saw with an aluminum oxide blade to cut through an American lock series 2000, members cut through the lock about 2/3rds of the distance down from the staple (shackle) cutting it in two pieces

D: When forcing entry by pulling the cylinder on a police lock (rim lock), members inserted a 5/32” square key tool into the stem of the cylinder and turned it either left or right

Answer 22

D
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Forcible Entry 1
A- Under the window at the CENTER of the window sill…sec 8.1
B- Lower quadrant of the door on the DOORKNOB side. This will enable you to unlock conventional locks as well. Make the cut large enough to get your arm through and back out, but small enough so that you don’t cut the bar……sec 9.1.note
C- About 2/3rds of the distance UP FROM THE KEYWAY cutting it in two pieces……sec 6.1
D- sec 4.2

Question 23

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding Fire Department operations at fires and emergencies involving Methanol?
A: Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam; alcohol type foam must be used. For small fires, Type B dry chemical extinguishers are adequate although Purple K is the most effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents.

B: Application of large amounts of water will dilute Methanol, rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of Methanol must be reduced below 54% to be effective.

C: When applying water to dilute Methanol, run-off should be contained by diking or other means to prevent entry into sewers and to assist in the dilution.

D: A Methanol fire may be invisible during day light hours. Proceed with caution when establishing the boundary of the fire.

Answer 23

B
Explanation:
Application of large amounts of water will dilute Methanol, rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of Methanol must be reduced BELOW 20% to be effective.
The flash point of Methanol is 54 degrees F
HM 1 4.4.2

Question 24

At flat roof private dwelling fires the life-saving rope should be taken to the roof when there will be a delay in laddering the rear of the building due to attached exposures and/or the height of the building requires the LSR. Who is responsible to bring the LSR to the roof in this situation?
A: 1st and 2nd roof firefighters.

B: 1st roof firefighter only

C: 2nd roof firefighter only

D: 1st LCC

Answer 24

B
Explanation:
Note: 2nd roof firefighter brings the SAW.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 7.1.A, 7.2A

Question 25

Which choice below contains the CORRECT time frame in which to file an EEO Complaint with the EEO Officer?
A: 90 Days

B: 180 days

C: 1 year

D: 2 years

Answer 25

C
Explanation:
PA/ID 1/77 – EEO
C IS CORRECT – A complaint must be filed with the FD’s EEO Officer within one year from the date of the alleged discrimination or harassment occurred. 5.5

Question 26

When operating at a vehicle accident on a highway, members must ensure certain procedures are met, especially when a hazardous separation is observed. Choose the incorrect procedure when operating on a highway and a hazardous separation is observed.
A: The roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Operations

B: Where it is necessary to stop the flow of traffic, the dispatcher shall be notified to relay the information to the Police Department

C: At times the practice of gaining access to an express highway incident from a service road, across a grassy slope, avoids placing the apparatus on the highway proper

D: Where access to an elevated or depressed roadway is obtained by use of apparatus, the Aerial or TL shall not be extended beyond shoulder where they could be exposed to moving traffic. Aerial and/or TL should be cantilevered perpendicular to the elevated roadway

Answer 26

D
Explanation:
Aerial and/or TL should be cantilevered PARALLEL to the elevated roadway
Training Bulletin Fires 8 sec 9…..new as of 10/2019

Question 27

Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy regarding safety at Taxpayer fires?
A: Advance in cellar fires cautiously; a search rope may be needed by Engine and Ladder company personnel. Large areas under many occupancies are subdivided and this creates a maze of storage rooms and corridors.

B: Advance carefully with hoselines as large, open areas allow the fire to move around the sides of, over, and behind the fire forces. Officers and members are to be constantly aware of conditions at the sides and rear until the fire is under control.

C: Flooring in these occupancies is thin and cellar fires may burn through the first floor. Openings found that may cause injury should be covered and their presence communicated to all members operating.

D: Plate glass in store windows and doors must be broken with force and trim not needed due to members not entering.

Answer 27

D
Explanation:
Plate glass in store windows and doors must be broken carefully and thoroughly trimmed to prevent serious injury. Eye shields MUST be DOWN when breaking or trimming glass.
Txpyr 10.2.3-10.2.5, 10.3.6

Question 28

Emergencies involving scaffolding will present FDNY units with unique challenges. Modern scaffolding used for building maintenance and construction, coupled with construction features of modern high-rise buildings will require specialized equipment and training. Which statement below is incorrect regarding these operations?
A: In all instances, units should cordon off the area below the scaffold to vehicular and pedestrian traffic.

B: The anchor points of the scaffolding must be evaluated by the first arriving units as soon as possible.

C: The anchor points will always be located on the roof of the building.

D: If it is necessary to dismantle the scaffold to leave the area in a safe condition this must be done from the interior of the building.

Answer 28

C
Explanation:
C. The anchor points will USUALLY be located on the roof of the building BUT MAY BE LOCATED ON SETBACKS, IN SHAFTS, OR SUSPENDED FROM BUILDING MAINTENANCE UNITS.

NEW BULLETIN AS OF 1/8/2020 Emergency Procedures Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 3.1, 3.2, 3.4

Question 29

What would the Department of Transportation classify a flammable solid as (i.e. what you would find on a placard on a truck or rail car if it were transporting flammable solids)?
A: 2

B: 3

C: 4

D: 8

Answer 29

C
Explanation:
Acronym: Every Good Fire-Lt.’s Standard Operating Procedures Requires Coordinated Members
1. Explosives.
2. Gases (Compressed)
3. Flammable Liquids.
4. Solids (Flammable)
5. Oxidizers.
6. Poisons.
7. Radioactive Material.
8. Corrosives.
9. Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods.
HM 2 2.1

Question 30

Prior to opening the door to the fire area for advancement of the hoseline, the _______ officer must assure that no firefighters will be exposed in the hallway or on the stairs above as the fire attack is initiated. This can be done _____________
A: ladder, via handie-talkie or in person.

B: engine, via handie-talkie or in person.

C: ladder, in person only.

D: engine, in person only

Answer 30

B
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 8.3

Question 31

Ladder company positioning is very important at taxpayer fires. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: Generally, the primary position of the 1st arriving tower ladder is in front of the fire building/occupancy.

B: If the taxpayer faces on two streets and the front of the building is covered by a tower ladder, then place the additional tower ladder directly next to the first.

C: Tower ladders should be positioned so that the fire can be cut off and driven back to the point of origin.

D: When the apparatus is a rearmount aerial ladder, place it away from the immediate fire building/occupancy in order to leave the area accessible for a tower ladder.

Answer 31

B
Explanation:
If the taxpayer faces on two streets and the front of the building is covered by tower ladder(s), then place the additional tower ladder(s) to cover the other street front.
Txpyr 8.3.3 4a

Question 32

Intrinsically safe fans are a new tool that the FDNY has at its disposal for combating natural gas leaks in subsurface structures. Which description below is correct regarding these fans?
A: Intrinsically safe fans may be used for positive pressure ventilation at fires.

B: The motor is the only component that is intrinsically safe.

C: There is a grounding cable pre-connected to the body of the fan.

D: The intrinsically safe fans can be used to provide fresh air to a bottom of a confined space to remove heavier than air gases that are collecting at the bottom of a confined space.

Answer 32

B
Explanation:
A. Intrinsically safe fans SHALL NOT BE used for positive pressure ventilation at fires.

C. There is a grounding cable THAT MUST BE CONNECTED to the body of the fan.

D. The intrinsically safe fans can be used to provide fresh air to a bottom of a confined space, OR IF HEAVIER THAN AIR GASES ARE COLLECTING AT THE BOTTOM OF A CONFINED SPACE, THEY CAN BE REVERSED TO REMOVE THESE GASES.

NEW BULLETIN AS OF 11/21/19
Natural Gas Addendum 3: 1.3

Question 33

According to the newly revised Ventilation bulletin, which of the following choices is correct?
A: All vertical ventilation tactics throughout the operation must be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area to be vented.

B: The Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point, paying particular attention to the air being drawn out of the fire area.

C: The Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area shall communicate with the Roof Firefighter before vertical ventilation is to be taken; no vertical ventilation is to be attempted without prior permission from the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area.

D: Initial vertical ventilation tactics can be conducted upon the assigned member reaching the roof. The Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area will advise the Roof Firefighter when vertical ventilation is to be withheld or delayed.

Answer 33

D
Explanation:
A) INITIAL vertical ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area to be vented.
B) The Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point, paying particular attention to the air being PULLED IN.
C) The Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area SHALL communicate with the Roof Firefighter when vertical ventilation is NOT to be taken, or DELAYED (i.e. unable to gain control of the fire apartment door and/or uncontrolled fire in the public hall or stairwell.)
Note: Initial vertical ventilation is the venting of bulkheads, scuttles or skylights over stairwells and hallways. When skylights are vented, members must recognize that this action is non-reversible.
Vent 10.1, 10.2

Question 34

Following an operation, two members of your unit report that they were exposed to unknown fumes in the cellar of the fire building which made them feel lightheaded. As the company officer, you should take which action?
A: Complete a Non-Biological Exposure Report only for each member.

B: Complete a Non-Biological Exposure Report and Injury Report.

C: Complete an Injury Report only for each member.

D: Realize that notification to the Medical Officer on duty via FDOC is not required.

Answer 34

B
Explanation:
An Injury Report was required in addition to the Non-Biological Exposure Report because the members experienced SYMPTOMS (lightheaded).
The exposure that caused the injury or illness and the fact that a biological or non-biological exposure report has been prepared shall be noted in the narrative of the injury report. A notation shall also be made in the narrative of the exposure report that an injury report has been prepared. To be clear, in the absence of symptoms, an injury report shall not be filled out, only the exposure report.
SB 1 3.2.2 Note

Question 35

Which if the following general safety precautions regarding the use of portable ladders is incorrect?
A: Extension ladders in general are not made to be taken apart and used as single section ladders.

B: Extension ladders shall never be used upside down, that is, with the round ends down.

C: Ladders should never be placed against window panes, window sashes, or loose boxes, barrels, or other surfaces that may break or collapse.

D: Do not climb higher than the second rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders.

Answer 35

D
Explanation:
D. Do not climb higher than the THIRD RUNG from the top on either straight or extension ladders.

Portable Ladders 12.1

Question 36

Which feature of high-rise office buildings is correctly indicated below?
A: High Rise Office Buildings built after 1968 were constructed with a lack of compartmentation.

B: High Rise Office Buildings built before 1945 used construction techniques that resulted in buildings usually between 10 and 20 pounds per cubic foot.

C: High Rise Office Buildings built after 1968 had exterior walls substantially tied to all floors.

D: High Rise Office Buildings built between 1945 and 1968 had ceiling plenums that were extensive and lacked fire stopping.

Answer 36

A
Explanation:
B) High Rise Office Buildings built BETWEEN 1945 and 1968 used construction techniques that resulted in buildings usually between 10 and 20 pounds per cubic foot.
C) High Rise Office Buildings built BEFORE 1945 had exterior walls substantially tied to all floors.
D) High Rise Office Buildings built AFTER 1968 had ceiling plenums that were extensive and lacked fire stopping.
HROB 2

Question 37

Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding entries in the company journal?
A: Entries omitted shall not be forced. They shall be made at the time of discovery of the omission by the member responsible for the entry, and include full particulars that would have been made in the omitted entry.

B: When articles are received or delivered, the housewatch entry shall begin with the the type of article received or delivered.

C: Members beginning housewatch duties at the time of a roll call shall not make an entry of that fact until particulars of the roll call have been duly entered by the officer in command.

D: Military Time shall be used when making entries except that the terms 9x6 and 6x9 shall be used to designate tours of duty.

Answer 37

B
Explanation:
When articles are received or delivered the housewatch entry shall BEGIN with the word “RECEIVED” or “DELIVERED.”
CJ 2.2, 2.5, 2.8, 2.13

Question 38

According to Tower Ladder Operations, what is the best source of supply for a Tower Ladder?
A: High Pressure Pumper

B: Drafting

C: Fireboat

D: Satellite Water Unit

Answer 38

D
Explanation:
Tower Ladder Ch 4: 4.1

Question 39

When a unit has a defective or non-operating apparatus radio, the officer on duty shall ensure each of the following actions are taken except?
A: Notify the Battalion and Division. In addition, the officer shall call the dispatcher requesting radio mechanic response for repairs to the apparatus radio.

B: The Division shall supply the affected unit with a portable citywide radio capable of direct communications with all borough dispatchers. Once received, the company officer shall perform an operational check by requesting a 10-11 radio test count from their respective borough dispatcher.

C: During a response, the affected unit will use the citywide radio in lieu of the non-operating apparatus radio for all communications to the borough dispatcher until the apparatus radio is repaired. The citywide radio is to be carried/worn by the company officer and kept in his/her possession at all times; including during the response and subsequent investigation after going 10-84.

D: If a response is received while awaiting the arrival of the citywide radio, the officer shall notify the dispatcher that the unit is responding without an operating apparatus radio. The dispatcher will then ensure that an additional unit (nearest available Engine or Ladder) with an operating apparatus radio is dispatched to the same alarm.

Answer 39

C
Explanation:
During a response, the affected unit will use the citywide radio in lieu of the non-operating apparatus radio for all communications to the borough dispatcher until the apparatus radio is repaired. The citywide radio is NOT to be carried/worn by the company officer; it shall remain in the front cab of the apparatus and serve as a communication link from the unit to the borough dispatcher.
Although we have new radios capable of communicating with the dispatcher, this section is still in effect for test day.
Comm 8 8.14.3-8.14.6

Question 40

On a CFR response, if a patient’s whereabouts are not known, the responding company will make every effort to ascertain the location of said individual. If the patient is not immediately located the company officer must take certain steps. Which one is incorrect?
A: The first step is to perform a complete search of the area in question.

B: If no patient is found, the next step the officer should take is verifying the information with the dispatcher.

C: After re-verification of the dispatch information, the responding company shall attempt to contact neighbors, building superintendent and/or security personnel.

D: If no patient is found after efforts have been exhausted, the officer shall enter a 10-92 via MDT and return to service.

Answer 40

B
Explanation:
STEPS:

1. COMPLETE SEARCH OF AREA IN QUESTION
2. REVIEW RESPONSE PRINTOUT
3. VERIFY INFO WITH DISPATCHER
4. CONTACT NEIGHBORS, BUILDING SUPER, SECURITY ETC.
5. 10-92
6. TAKE MARK IN JOURNAL UPON RETURN TO QUARTERS

CFR Chapter 2: 4.7