FT 2022 Bonus 1

Question 1

Regarding Natural Gas properties, it is correct to state that?
Select one:
a. Depending on the mixture, its explosive range is 5% to 25%
b. It is significantly heavier than air
c. When natural gas ignites, it undergoes a rapid increase in volume
d. When unconfined or outdoors, natural gas will burn rapidly with an explosive pressure

Answer 1

C
(Nat Gas–Section 3) (explosive range is 5% to 15%, It is Heavier than air, burn rapidly without an explosive pressure)
The correct answer is: When natural gas ignites, it undergoes a rapid increase in volume

Question 2

A Con Edison gas main valve will have an ID number?
Select one:
a. Stamped on the north side of the collar
b. Stamped on the south side of the collar
c. On a tag, inside of the valve cover
d. On a tag, outside of the valve cover

Answer 2

C
(Nat Gas—Pg 8)
The correct answer is: On a tag, inside of the valve cover

Question 3

An “NC” stamped on a tag near a service meter indicates there is no?
Select one:
a. Excess flow valve
b. Main valve
c. Interior gas riser valve
d. Curb valve or service valve

Answer 3

D
(Nat Gas–Pg 9)
The correct answer is: Curb valve or service valve

Question 4

Regarding Peck Vents, it is correct to state they?
Select one:
a. Are installed on systems supplied by low, medium or high pressure
b. Vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails
c. May have a blue cap
d. Normally have an odor of natural gas

Answer 4

B
(Nat Gas—Pg 11) only Medium or high pressure, May have a Red Cap, Normally have no odor of gas
The correct answer is: Vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails

Question 5

Which one of the following is indicative of a Major Gas Emergency?
Select one:
a. 5% of the LEL detected outside a building
b. 10% of the LEL detected in an unvented sewer
c. 15% of the LEL found in an unvented manhole
d. Gas leaking and present inside of a wall or void

Answer 5

D
(Nat Gas—Pg 15) (10% detected outside a building, 20% detected in an unvented sewer, 20% found in an unvented manhole)
The correct answer is: Gas leaking and present inside of a wall or void

Question 6

Regarding the use of gas detectors and meters, it is incorrect to state that?
Select one:
a. Natural gas detectors and meters require warm up times in fresh air
b. The Natural Gas Detector is the superior tool for locating leaks in appliances (stoves)
c. The Natural Gas Meter is the superior tool for identifying where it is no longer safe to operate
d. Officers should report to the IC readings found at a location low and at the entrance to a room with the suspected leak

Answer 6

D
(Nat Gas 6.4) (High and in the middle of the room)
The correct answer is: Officers should report to the IC readings found at a location low and at the entrance to a room with the suspected leak

Question 7

The first priority at a natural gas emergency is to?
Select one:
a. Locate the gas leak.
b. Mitigate the gas leak.
c. Ensure the incident is not a major gas emergency
d. Ventilate the affected area

Answer 7

C
(Natural Gas—6.5)
The correct answer is: Ensure the incident is not a major gas emergency

Question 8

When investigating a gas emergency, it would be correct to state that?
Select one:
a. Most investigations warrant the use of all available gas detectors / meters on scene
b. The 1st ladder inside team should proceed directly to the basement / cellar any time any levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Detector
c. The Ladder Outside Team should proceed to the fire escape of the affected apartment
d. Engines arriving prior to Ladder Companies should activate their natural gas meter prior to entering the building

Answer 8

D
(Nat Gas—Pg 20) All investigations warrant, are Displayed on the METER, proceed to the Gas utility meter room
The correct answer is: Engines arriving prior to Ladder Companies should activate their natural gas meter prior to entering the building

Question 9

A leak or break in gas piping may be stopped or greatly diminished by taping, or stuffing putty, rags into the break when the gas piping contains natural gas that is?
Select one:
a. Low pressure 
b. Low or medium pressure
c. Medium or high pressure
d. Low, medium or high pressure

Answer 9

A
(Nat Gas—6.7.3)
The correct answer is: Low pressure

Question 10

Regarding the closing of gas valves, it is incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. Most natural gas appliance shutoffs are of the ¼ turn variety
b. When the key operating nut is parallel to the piping, it indicates it is in the closed position
c. One-Quarter turn interior gas riser valves are sometimes found in a cellar / basement near the ceiling area
d. In a basement / cellar, a building service valve may be found just inside of the building where natural gas enters the building and will usually be a ¼ turn valve

Answer 10

B
(Nat Gas Pg 22-23) —(OPEN position)
The correct answer is: When the key operating nut is parallel to the piping, it indicates it is in the closed position

Question 11

The last resort for the FDNY at a Natural Gas emergency is to close the?
Select one:
a. Master Meter
b. Head of Service Valve
c. Curb Valve 
d. Main Valve

Answer 11

C
The last resort for the FDNY at a Natural Gas emergency is to close the?
Select one:
a. Master Meter
b. Head of Service Valve
c. Curb Valve 
d. Main Valve

Question 12

Plastic valves that contain Natural Gas are color coded?
Select one:
a. Yellow
b. White 
c. Salmon
d. Grey

Answer 12

B
(Nat Gas Pg 24)
The correct answer is: White

Question 13

If an incident is determined to be a major gas emergency, the first arriving Officer should transmit what signals?
Select one:
a. 10-75 and a 10-80
b. 10-75 and a 10-80 Code 1 
c. 10-75 and a 10-86
d. Second alarm and a 10-80 Code 1

Answer 13

B
(Nat Gas Pg 28)
The correct answer is: 10-75 and a 10-80 Code 1

Question 14

For an inside gas leak where the indoor gas leak has been found, you may continue to operate if by venting gas levels can be kept at less than?
Select one:
a. 10% of the LEL
b. 20% of the LEL
c. 50% of the LEL
d. 80% of the LEL

Answer 14

D
(Nat Gas–Pg 32)
The correct answer is: 80% of the LEL

Question 15

When operating at an inside gas leak, treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if at any time, gas levels reach?
Select one:
a. 10% of the LEL or higher
b. 20% of the LEL or higher
c. 50% of the LEL or higher
d. 80% of the LEL or higher

Answer 15

D
(Nat Gas–Pg 32)
The correct answer is: 80% of the LEL or higher

Question 16

Members are operating inside of a Private Dwelling where they have a natural gas leak that has NOT been found. While operating, they determine they cannot locate the leak and there are indications that the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source. In this case, they should treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if when venting, levels cannot be limited to less than?
Select one:
a. 10% of the LEL 
b. 20% of the LEL
c. 50% of the LEL
d. 80% of the LEL

Answer 16

A
(Nat Gas–Pg 32)
The correct answer is: 10% of the LEL

Question 17

At a major gas emergency, it would be correct to consider which tactic below?
Select one:
a. Only ladder apparatus may be located within the potential blast zone
b. You may enter a potential blast zone to move an apparatus
c. The potential blast zone shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes
d. Removing ignition sources and venting are optional tactics in the potential blast zone

Answer 17

C
(Nat Gas Pg 33) No apparatus in the blast zone., You may not enter a blast zone to move an apparatus, Removing ignition sources and venting are not options in a blast zone
The correct answer is: The potential blast zone shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes

Question 18

(Nat Gas Pg 33) No apparatus in the blast zone., You may not enter a blast zone to move an apparatus, Removing ignition sources and venting are not options in a blast zone
The correct answer is: The potential blast zone shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes

Answer 18

A
(Nat Gas–Pg 34) (FDNY flashlight)
The correct answer is: FDNY — Thermal Imaging Camera

Question 19

When performing rapid evacuation in an explosive environment, members would be correct to?
Select one:
a. Knock on doors to alert occupants to self-evacuate
b. Force entry for only suspected life hazards
c. If forcing entry—use conventional forcible entry when forcing a door
d. Advise occupants to use elevators instead of stairs

Answer 19

A
(Nat Gas Pg 34-35) “Known” life hazards, If forcing entry - use the hydra ram or the adz end of the halligan to gap and force the door, Advise occupants to Use the stairs
The correct answer is: Knock on doors to alert occupants to self-evacuate

Question 20

Regarding water supply and line placement at major gas emergencies it would be correct to state that?
Select one:
a. Fog streams should be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure.
b. Straight streams should be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure.
c. For defensive positions, stretch and use 1 3/4” hose
d. For defensive positions, consider setting up large caliber streams?

Answer 20

D
(Nat Gas Pg 35) Do NOT dissipate natural gas venting outside of a structure., Stretch and use 2 ½” hose
The correct answer is: For defensive positions, consider setting up large caliber streams?

Question 21

The opportunity to cut power has expired when any readings display levels of \_\_\_\_\_ per cent LEL or greater?
Select one:
a. 10
b. 50
c. 60
d. 80

Answer 21

D
(Nat Gas Pg 36)
The correct answer is: 80

Question 22

Sewer manhole covers may be removed by FDNY personnel at a Natural Gas emergency with the approval of?
Select one:
a. A Company Officer
b. A Gas Utility Supervisor and an on-scene Battalion Chief
c. An on-scene DEP Supervisor
d. An on-scene FDNY Chief Officer

Answer 22

D
(Nat Gas—Pg 37)
The correct answer is: An on-scene FDNY Chief Officer

Question 23

Which of the following Engine Companies would be out of service as a CFR-D Unit at 0900?
Select one:
a. Only two firefighters are found CFR-D certified at roll call
b. Only one firefighter and the officer are found CFR-D certified at roll call
c. Only the Officer and ECC are found CFR-D certified at roll call
d. Only one member is found CFR-D certified at roll call

Answer 23

D
(CFR 2—1.7, 1.8)
The correct answer is: Only one member is found CFR-D certified at roll call

Question 24

At 1105 hours, Captain Hannity determines that only the nozzle FF in E99 is CFR-D certified as they have just come back from a job. At this time, only the officer (non-certified), the ECC (non-certified) and the Nozzle FF (certified CFR-D) are on duty. As they are back in service, but awaiting details from other units. In this situation, Captain Hannity should know that?
Select one:
a. The Engine is completely out of service for all CFR-D calls
b. The Engine may still be dispatched for medical calls received directly from the public to assist civilians.

Answer 24

B
(CFR 2—1.8.1A)
The correct answer is: The Engine may still be dispatched for medical calls received directly from the public to assist civilians.

Question 25

Which CFR-D member in a 4 FF Engine (where all members are certified), operated correctly at a Cardiac arrest response?
Select one:
a. “A” FF—Began compressions
b. “C” FF— hooked up and operated the defibrillator
c. “D” FF—Began ventilation
d. ECC—remained with the apparatus

Answer 25

D
(CFR 2—2.1) “A” FF - does ventilation “C” FF - Does compression “D” FF - Does defibrillation
The correct answer is: ECC—remained with the apparatus

Question 26

Segment one responses include all of the following call types except?
Select one:
a. Cardiac arrest
b. Respiratory arrest
c. Choking
d. Difficulty breathing

Answer 26

D
(CFR-2 3.1.1)
The correct answer is: Difficulty breathing

Question 27

The Officer in charge of a CFR-D response shall ask the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance, request relay of the seriousness of the patient’s condition to responding EMS units, and begin packaging efforts immediately whenever a patient is?
Select one:
a. Critical only
b. Critical or unstable
c. Critical, unstable or potentially unstable
d. In all situations

Answer 27

B
(CFR 2—3.9.3, 3.12)
The correct answer is: Critical or unstable

Question 28

Every time an Engine is 10-84 at a CFR-D response, a PCR is required to be completed.
Select one:
a. Agree
b. Disagree

Answer 28

B
(CFR 2—3.10) (Only if patient care is provided)
The correct answer is: Disagree

Question 29

If requested by an on-scene utility company worker, and approved by a Chief Officer, and if the electric manhole cover has been determined to be free of stray voltage by the on-scene utility company, FDNY personnel may use manhole hooks from Battalion vehicles to remove which type of electric manhole covers?
Select one:
a. Only round covers 
b. Only square covers
c. Only rectangular covers
d. Only round or square covers

Answer 29

A
(Nat Gas Pg 37)
The correct answer is: Only round covers

Question 30

An Engine company operating at an odor of fumes has one medical patient they discovered. When requesting an ambulance on the Department radio, they must provide the FDNY dispatcher with all of the following information except?
Select one:
a. Chief complaint and CUPS status
b. Gender and age 
c. CPR initiated
d. Pulse and respiratory rate
Feedback

Answer 30

B
(CFR 2—3.11) (Gender is not required)
The correct answer is: Gender and age

Question 31

In which situation below should an engine officer place his unit out of service for CFRD only, and in service for fire duty after a CFR-D response?
Select one:
a. Decontamination of a member is required
b. Decontamination of PPE is required
c. Decontamination of CFR-D equipment is required
d. The unit’s only defibrillator was left with a patient and will be replaced later

Answer 31

D
(CFR 2—3.16.1, 3.16.2)
The correct answer is: The unit’s only defibrillator was left with a patient and will be replaced later

Question 32

A 10-99 must be transmitted in which situation below?
Select one:
a. Unit is working on a patient having difficulty breathing
b. The unit officer determines due to a patient’s condition, the unit will likely be on scene for at least 15 minutes
c. The CFR-D Unit requests an ETA and EMS reports “20 minutes”
d. The Unit requests an ETA and EMS reports “No unit available”

Answer 32

D
(CFR 2—3.19) Performing CPR / Defib, for at least 30 minutes, EMS reports “No unit available”
The correct answer is: The Unit requests an ETA and EMS reports “No unit available”

Question 33

FDNY members should begin resuscitation efforts in which one of the following situations?
Select one:
a. If the patient has signs of dependent lividity
b. A Valid DNR Order is presented
c. Rigor mortis
d. A Valid Health Care Proxy is presented

Answer 33

D
(CFR-2—4.4)
The correct answer is: A Valid Health Care Proxy is presented

Question 34

Captain Biden is working in Engine 100 on a CFR-D response and finds that the patient’s whereabouts are not known. After a complete search, he checks the response ticket for additional info, then verifies the information with the dispatcher. After finding those two tactics provide no new info, he contacts neighbors and security personnel, but all efforts lead to no patient. In this situation, she would be most correct to enter which signal on the MDT?
Select one:
a. 10-31
b. 10-37 Code 4
c. 10-91
d. 10-92

Answer 34

D
(CFR 2—4.7.3)
The correct answer is: 10-92

Question 35

Lt Psaki arrives at a CFR-D response where forcible entry is the only option to reach a potential patient who has an apparently minor condition because people in the apartment are denying access to the patient. She then requests NYPD for security purposes and an EMS supervisor. After the EMS supervisor arrives, and the NYPD has arrived, who is now responsible for determining the appropriate action to be taken regarding denial of access to the patient?
Select one:
a. New York City Emergency Management
b. The Police Department 
c. The EMS Supervisor
d. The FDNY Officer

Answer 35

B

The correct answer is: The Police Department

Question 36

A PCR must be completed in all of the following situation(s) except?
Select one:
a. A patient refuses medical aid on a CFR-D response and leaves the scene
b. An EDP declines to accept treatment on a CFR-D response
c. A CFR-D unit arrives at scene of medical emergency where NYPD ESU has already initiated patient care and ESU states no assistance is required
d. A Valid DNR Order is presented on a CFR-D response

Answer 36

C
(CFR 2—4.4, 4.9, 4.10)
The correct answer is: A CFR-D unit arrives at scene of medical emergency where NYPD ESU has already initiated patient care and ESU states no assistance is required

Question 37

When may a fire apparatus be used to transport patients?
Select one:
a. Under no circumstances should this occur
b. Only in extreme circumstances
c. Only when authorized by an EMS Supervisor
d. Only when authorized by a Fire Chief

Answer 37

A
(CFR—2—4.17)
The correct answer is: Under no circumstances should this occur

Question 38

hich legal guideline is correctly stated regarding treatment to minors?
Select one:
a. If a minor is suffering from a life-threatening illness or injury, immediate medical intervention must be provided, unless a parent or guardian is available and refuses to give consent.
b. For non-urgent illness or injury involving minors, if the parent or guardian refuses to allow treatment, carefully explain the treatment needed, call the dispatcher and have them notify EMS and call FDNY / EMS telemetry.

Answer 38

B
(CFR—2—6.1.1) (regardless of whether the parent / guardian gives consent)
The correct answer is: For non-urgent illness or injury involving minors, if the parent or guardian refuses to allow treatment, carefully explain the treatment needed, call the dispatcher and have them notify EMS and call FDNY / EMS telemetry.

Question 39

If there is reason to suspect on a CFR-D response that a child has suffered or will suffer abuse or maltreatment as a result of the acts or omissions of a child’s parent or guardian, who is mandated to file a report?
Select one:
a. The Police Department
b. An FDNY EMS Supervisor
c. The Ambulance Crew 
d. The CFR-D Engine Officer

Answer 39

C

The correct answer is: The Ambulance Crew

Question 40

Whenever units of the Bureau of Operations and EMS are operating at an incident, the ranking Fire Officer on the scene is the Incident Commander and responsible for?.
Select one:
a. All decisions at the scene
b. All decisions at the scene with the exception of safety
c. No decisions at these scenes
d. All decisions at the scene with the exception of patient care matters

Answer 40

D

The correct answer is: All decisions at the scene with the exception of patient care matters