Bx Test 20

Question 1

Engine 99 is taking up from operating at a box where it is suspected that bed bugs were present at the location. Which of the following solutions is CORRECT regarding the discovery of bed bugs at the conclusion of operations?
A: If any bed bugs are discovered by members in the department apparatus, the officer shall place the unit out of service; notify the Battalion, Division, & Dispatcher.

B: If any bed bugs are discovered by members in furniture on the apparatus floor, promptly notify the Department of Sanitation to arrange for the disposal of the infested furniture.

C: If any bed bugs are discovered by members on department equipment, soft and hard surface equipment should be packed into double clear plastic bags and sealed for decontamination.

D: If any bed bugs are discovered on member’s bunker gear or work duty uniforms, follow department procedures for cleaning contaminated uniforms.

Answer 1

D
Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 3 ADDENDUM 5
D IS CORRECT 1.8.
A – Incorrect – GROSSLY CONTAMINATED with numerous bed bugs – 1.10
B – Furniture that is believed to be infested shall not be disposed of until properly identified as bed bugs by the OSHA Unit. 2.3
C – Soft equipment should be packed, hard surface equipment (monitors/AED’S) can be cleaned by wiping in accordance with Chapter 3. 1.7

Question 2

Engine 3 arrives 3rd due for a fire in a store on the first floor of an old law tenement building. The first line is advancing into the store fire. The officer of Engine 3 would be correct to stretch the second hoseline to which location?
A: Immediately to the second floor of the fire building.

B: Into the store as a backup line.

C: To the entrance hallway.

D: To the top floor of the fire building.

Answer 2

C
Explanation:
1st line: Stretched to the involved store (2 ½” for large volume fires) 2nd line: Stretched to the entrance hallway. WHEN ASSURED THAT THE SECOND LINE IS NOT NEEDED ON THE FIRST FLOOR, IT MAY BE ADVANCED TO THE FLOOR ABOVE.

Multiple Dwellings 4.3.1

Question 3

Double checking the bag before sending it to the battalion, you find a letterhead report addressed to The Chief of Operations regarding the KO Curtain which was placed out of service as a result of damage sustained during a change of tour inspection. Attached to the letterhead is a copy for forwarding to the chief of the fire academy. Which action taken is CORRECT prior to forwarding the paperwork?
A: You remove the letterhead to the chief of the fire academy because it isn’t required for this scenario.

B: You realize that the Safety Chief has to do an investigation prior to replacement.

C: You change the letterhead addressed to the Chief of Operations to a letterhead addressed to the Chief of Training.

D: You make a notification to R & D for a replacement. The Division only issues replacements for curtains damaged during fire operations.

Answer 3

A
Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS TOOLS 2
A IS CORRECT – Copy of letterhead to Chief of Fire Academy when USED AT A FIRE OPERATION. 6.2
B – 6.1 – Safety Chief is notified when Curtain has been deployed at an operation.
C – 6.6 – Letterhead goes to the Chief of Operations.
D – In all cases replacement is obtained from the division. See 6.4 & 6.6.

Question 4

Ladder companies shall carry ______________ of 1 3/4” hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary equipment to place a line in operation including, but not limited to hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.
A: not less than three lengths

B: not less than two lengths

C: two lengths

D: one length

Answer 4

A
Explanation:
Regulations Ch 13: 13.2.5

Question 5

Live fire testing and fireground deployments have shown that the deployment of WCD’s like the KO Curtain and Fire Window Blanket will have the following effects. Which one below is INCORRECT?
A: Deployment will cause an immediate reduction in heat and intensity of the fire.

B: Advancing a hoseline into the fire apartment after a WCD is deployed may increase steam and/or heat production.

C: Possible improvement of visibility in the fire area due to a decrease in smoke production.

D: Fire may periodically vent around the sides and top of the deployed WCD with the potential for auto-exposure to the floors above. The deployment window must be closed after deployment of the device.

Answer 5

C
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
C IS INCORRECT – 4.2.1 – Possible reduction of visibility in the fire area due to an increase in smoke production.
A – 4.2.1
B – 4.2.1
D – 4.2.1

Question 6

Listed below are numerous portable ladders with their associated closed lengths. Which ladder is described incorrectly?
A: 35’ extension ladder is 20’ when closed.

B: 24’ extension ladder is 14’ when closed.

C: 10’ folding ladder is 8’ when closed.

D: 14’ “A” Frame ladder is 7’ when closed.

Answer 6

C
Explanation:
C. 10’ folding ladder is 11’ WHEN CLOSED.

ONLY LADDER THAT IS LONGER WHEN CLOSED
Portable Ladders 1.1

Question 7

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding operations in Class 2 Multiple Dwellings?
A: All handlines will be stretched from the standpipe system.

B: Due to open stairs and the possibility of rapid spread of smoke, all officers should be cognizant of members going above the fire floor as well as occupants evacuating via the attack stair.

C: Fires in these structures will be extinguished using 2 ½ hose stretched from the standpipe outlet on a floor below or when compatible with fire conditions, 1 ¾ stretched from the apparatus.

D: If a building contains open and enclosed stairs, consideration should be given to leaving the open stair for evacuation when possible.

Answer 7

B
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 MD’S
B IS CORRECT 8.7 PG 98
A – Typically, handlines will be stretched from the standpipe system. Due to the age and condition of the system and location of the outlests, 2 ½ may have to be stretched from the apparatus. 8.7.
C – 2 ½ hose stretched from the apparatus. 8.7
D – Consideration should be given to leaving the enclosed stair for evacuation when possible. 8.7

Question 8

When civilians are in need of rescue, proper placement of the aerial ladder at fire operations is critical to achieve a successful outcome. Which description below regarding aerial ladder placement is incorrect?
A: OV assists the chauffeur in setting up and placing the ladder and climbs the ladder as soon as it is in proper position.

B: When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable midway between locations.

C: For the experienced member, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

D: Place apparatus 25-35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.

Answer 8

C
Explanation:
For the LESS EXPERIENCED member, this accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

Aerial Ladders 3.1.1, 3.1.4; 3.1.7, 3.2.3

Question 9

Surviving a collapse can greatly depend on where the victims end up afterwards. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding likely victim locations following the collapse of a building?
A: Ladder 1 responded to a Lean-to Collapse of a 6-story MD. The greatest chance of survival for anyone would be on the lower floor in the vicinity of the failed wall.

B: Ladder 2 responded to a V-shaped Collapse of a 4-story Frame. The greatest chance of survival will be among those along the perimeter of the building.

C: Ladder 3 responded to a Pancake Collapse of a 4-story Brownstone. Survival at this type of collapse depends on the presence of strong objects nearby to keep the weight of the entire load from landing on the victim.

D: Ladder 4 responded to an unsupported Lean-to Collapse of a 5-story MD. The greatest chance of survival for anyone would be on the floor below if they were near the remaining wall.

Answer 9

A
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
A IS INCORRECT – 11.4 Smallest chance of survival is for anyone on the lower floor in the vicinity of the failed wall.
B – 11.4 V-shaped voids
C – 11.4 Pancake Collapse
D – 11.4 Lean-to Collapse

Question 10

When cutting a floor with the axe it should be cut at a ___ degree angle and on a bias.
A: 30

B: 45

C: 60

D: 90

Answer 10

C
Explanation:
Ladders 3: 7.4.2 B

Question 11

Just prior to Roll Call, the Officer of Engine 99 asked the junior firefighter where the MetroCard was located on the apparatus. A discussion ensued among the students about the accounting and procedures for lost or damaged cards. Which choice below is INCORRECT?
A: After each roll call, the officer shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the card is accounted for and on the apparatus.

B: If a MetroCard is lost or stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify PTSU via telephone advising of the particulars.

C: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall file a police report

D: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall complete a lost property report

Answer 11

B
Explanation:
AUC 207 – ADDENDUM 3
B IS INCORRECT – Notification is made to the FDNY Resource Center advising of the particulars. 3.6.3
A – 3.6.1
C – 3.6.4
D – 3.6.4

Question 12

Metal C-Joist construction has become very common in recent years. Understanding the properties and drawbacks of this type of construction is key to safely operating at buildings constructed with this material. Which statement below is incorrect?
A: In order to stabilize the building, these joists must be braced with strapping and/or blocking to prevent them from twisting.

B: A newer type C-Joist, with design characteristics similar to lightweight parallel chord wood truss, has larger openings that allows for the easier running of utilities, and the potential for fire and heat spread is significantly greater.

C: This type of support system may be used to support the roof of a private dwelling.

D: A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor accompanied by a heavy smoke condition on the floor above may be an indication of a concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by C-Joists.

Answer 12

D
Explanation:
D. A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor accompanied by LITTLE OR NO SMOKE condition on the floor above may be an indication of a concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by C-Joists.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 3.4

Question 13

The first two aerial ladders are heavily engaged at a 2nd alarm fire in a multiple dwelling where multiple people are being removed from the fire escapes and windows. Which ladder placement at this operation was INCORRECT according to aerial ladders?
A: The 1st LCC placed the aerial to the roof of the multiple dwelling 6’ above the roof.

B: The 2nd LCC placed the aerial to a window and extended the ladder less than 6” over the sill.

C: The 2nd LCC placed the aerial to another window for entry placing the tip 6” from the objective.

D: The 1st LCC placed the aerial alongside the fire escape 6” away from the building & one to three feet above the balcony railing.

Answer 13

D
Explanation:
LADDERS 2 – AERIAL LADDERS
D IS INCORRECT – 3.3.1 - Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from face of building and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.
A – 7.13 – At least 5’ above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.
B – 3.1.6 – When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress at this window. Therefore, the ladder tip should be less than 6” over the window sill. Not to be confused with the 2” placement at the window so it will rest on the sill when weight is put on it. 3.1.5
C – Recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2” to 6”. In case of rescue, use the 2” positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it. 3.1.5

Question 14

Which of the following tools may be used to remove a windshield during a vehicle extrication: **1. Windshield saw **2. Sawzall **3. Beluga auto glass knife **4. Axe
A: 1,2,3 only

B: 1,2,3,4

C: 1,3 only

D: 1,2,3 only

Answer 14

B
Explanation:
UPDATED 11/12/19
BELUGA AUTO GLASS KNIFE IS A NEW TOOL
(TRAINING BULLETIN TOOLS 39) VERY TESTABLE

Disentanglement and Extrication Section 11

Question 15

The success of the Air Train has allowed for an expansion project at LaGuardia Airport which means more units will have interaction with this part of the system. Which is CORRECT about Air Train Cars?
A: Each Air Train is constructed of one to four cars operated by an engineer.

B: Every Air Train car has four sets of passenger doors and a set of front and rear doors on each car.

C: Every Air Train is equipped with smoke detectors, fire extinguishers, and intercoms onboard.

D: Every Air Train has headlights and taillights on the front and rear of the cars. Members will be unable to determine the front of the train just by looking at the lights.

Answer 15

C
Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 10 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM
C IS CORRECT – SECTION 3
A – There are no engineers or supervision onboard.
B – There are no front or rear doors on Air Train Cars.
D – Members can ascertain which is the front and rear. The headlights will be illuminated on the front and red taillights will be illuminated on the rear. Section 3

Question 16

Which of the following points describing the strategy for a major gas emergency at an outside leak is incorrect?
A: Stopping a leak from a high pressure main will generally require the utility company construction crew plug or clamp (squeeze) the pipe to interrupt natural gas flow.

B: Stopping the leak from a medium pressure main generally involves the utility company finding and operating the correct upstream valves to interrupt the flow of natural gas.

C: If a leak is caused by a backhoe, it’s possible to have a leak where the backhoe was operating, another leak at the building line or in the building, and still another one at a coupling or where the service pipe connects to the distribution main.

D: If the natural gas ignites do not extinguish the fire.

Answer 16

A
Explanation:
A. Stopping a leak from a LOW PRESSURE main will generally require the utility company construction crew plug or clamp (squeeze) the pipe to interrupt natural gas flow.

(NOTE: THE “B” CHOICE APPLIES TO HIGH PRESSURE MAINS AS WELL)

Natural Gas Section 8

Question 17

What code signifies units operated at an outside rubbish fire?
A: 10-75

B: 10-21

C: 10-22

D: 10-31

Answer 17

C
Explanation:
10-75 - Notification of a Fire or Emergency
10-21 - Brush Fire
10-31 - Assist Civilian
Comm 8 p8

Question 18

You’re the ladder company officer working the day tour in a busy tower ladder. The newly assigned proby asks you to describe some of the key aspects of tower ladder positioning. You make the following statements, but you were incorrect in which one?
A: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to the objective is 25 feet.

B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building.

C: Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus. This condition can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled away from the building line.

D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.

Answer 18

A
Explanation:
A. The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to the objective is 32 feet.

Tower Ladders Chapter 2 Page 2 & 3

Question 19

Upon receipt of a spare HT radio, the officer should ensure the proper ID has been placed in the HT by transmitting from the spare HT to another unit HT. Which choice shows the channels that MUST be checked for proper ID?
A: HT-1, HT-2, and HT-9

B: HT-1, HT-2, and HT-3

C: HT-1, HT-2, HT-9 and HT-10

D: All HT channels

Answer 19

A
Explanation:
The following channels MUST be checked for proper ID: HT-1/Tac 1, HT-2/CMD-1, and HT-9/Tac SEC.
Comm 11 Add 4 2.1.5

Question 20

Proper trimming of doors and windows in tenements during overhaul is important to ensure the fire is completely extinguished prior to leaving the scene. Which comment below is incorrect regarding this tactic?
A: The complete removal of the window is seldom required.

B: Removal of the trim around windows and doors is not sufficient to allow an adequate examination and application of water.

C: The trim around windows and doors is put on last during the construction stage and should be the first pieces removed if examination is required at these points.

D: Depending on the tool being used, the most efficient and safest way to remove the trim is to start at the top or bottom corner or joint and work along prying the molding out from the wall.

Answer 20

B
Explanation:
B. Removal of the trim around windows and doors is GENERALLY SUFFICIENT to allow an adequate examination and application of water.

Ladders 3: 7.4.3

Question 21

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding company journal entries?
A: Entries by members, other than the member on housewatch, are to begin with rank and surname, thereby eliminating signature. However this shall not apply to roll call entries.

B: When a member, other than the member on housewatch, makes an entry in a unit to which not assigned, the member shall write the unit number after their name. Members making entries in a company journal shared by two (2) or more companies shall write the number of their unit after their respective names.

C: At the beginning of each calendar day, immediately following 2400 hours and before taking over of housewatch duties, the day and date shall be written across the page on the line directly below the last entry of the previous calendar day. Also, on the same line in the “Time Column,” 0001 shall be written.

D: Entries of members reporting for duty shall be limited to no more than three such members per line.

Answer 21

D
Explanation:
Entries of members reporting for duty shall be limited to ONE such member per line.
CJ 2.3, 2.4, 2.7, 2.9

Question 22

A composite truss is another type of lightweight construction that units may encounter in the field. Which characteristic of composite trusses is described correctly?
A: This type of truss system is similar in design to laminated wood I-Beams.

B: This type of truss is comprised of steel only.

C: A composite truss is commercially known as a space joist.

D: Under fire conditions, the composite truss reacts differently than other lightweight trusses, and will maintain its strength for longer periods of time.

Answer 22

C
Explanation:
A. This type of truss system is similar in design to PARALLEL CHORD WOOD TRUSS.

B. This type of truss is comprised of TWO TYPES OF MATERIALS: WOOD AND STEEL.
D. Under fire conditions, the composite truss WILL REACT THE SAME AS OTHER LIGHTWEIGHT (WOOD OR METAL) TRUSSES, THEY WILL LOSE STRENGTH AND FAIL RAPIDLY.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 3.5

Question 23

There are many things to consider when selecting a site to perform decontamination during a radiological emergency. Which consideration is described incorrectly?
A: Proximity to the incident

B: Wind direction

C: Terrain

D: Water run-off (if setting up wet decon, which is the preferred decontamination method for radiological events)

Answer 23

D
Explanation:
Water run-off (if setting up wet decon; although, DRY decon is the PREFERRED decontamination method for radiological events)
ERP Add 4 6.2.1

Question 24

The most correct procedure when reporting suspicious activity can be found in which choice?
A: If a member witnesses an act which is by itself criminal such as, theft indicative of terrorist activity/diversion or sabotage/tampering/vandalism, they should immediately notify Fire Marshal

B: If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life saving measures to the public: they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible

C: If a member is unsure of conditions, they should remain on scene and request BFI to the scene

D: When the officer discovers any indicators of terrorist activity, immediately upon return to quarters, the officer shall fax all required information to FDOC

Answer 24

B
Explanation:
A- Notify NYPD…8.1
B- Correct
C- Request Battalion Chief….8.4
D- Indicators are found in sec 5.2 and shall be reported immediately upon return to quarters by going to the reporting system found on DiamondPlate (sec 8.6)
AUC 363 sec 8

Question 25

What is the correct action for the 2nd arriving Roof FF to take when operating at a store fire in a 1-story taxpayer?
A: Climb the first portable ladder to the roof. Take the halligan and halligan hook to the roof and assist in ventilation.

B: Raise a 2nd portable ladder to the roof. Take the saw to the roof and assist in ventilation.

C: Team up with the second arriving OV FF for rear VEIS.

D: Report to the roof using an aerial ladder, equipped with a LSR and halligan hook.

Answer 25

B
Explanation:
Taxpayer 8.3.3 B2a

Question 26

Exterior Insulation Finish System (EFIS) is an exterior wall covering system that uses layered insulation and a waterproofing finish. EFIS consists of several layers. Which layer is the primary concern during firefighting operations?
A: Innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation

B: The middle layer; reinforcing fiberglass mesh

C: The outermost layer; finish coat (cement-based polyermer)

D: All three layers are a primary concern during firefighting operations

Answer 26

A
Explanation:
The component of primary concern during FF operations is the innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (FPI). The FPI layer should be considered combustible since it is essentially a thermoplastics, styrofoam material (typically 1/4” to 8” thick). The heat release for thermoplastics can be 3 to 5 times higher than of ordinary combustibles, such as paper or wood. If the system is compromised and FPI ignited, expect high heat conditions, rapid flame spread, and dense black smoke
AUC 362 sec 1.2 and 1.3

Question 27

Ladder 100 is assigned to respond to a Box where the unit reads “T100T” on the response ticket. What does this signify?
A: Ladder 100 is an Aerial Ladder assigned as a Transport Backup Unit

B: Ladder 100 is a Tower Ladder assigned as a Transport Backup Unit

C: Ladder 100 is an Aerial Ladder assigned as a component of a Division Task Force

D: Ladder 100 is a Tower Ladder assigned as a Transit Liaison Unit

Answer 27

B
Explanation:
Prefix “L” - Ladder
Prefix “T” - Tower Ladder
Suffix “K” indicates a a component of a Division Task Force
Comm 2 p36-37

Question 28

Choose the incorrect statement in regards to operating at a building with PV arrays (solar panels).
A: Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array

B: Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A fog nozzle, utilized from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling up stream towards members operating hoselines

C: Firefighters discovering PV arrays at fires and emergencies should immediately notify their Company Officer and the IC for subsequent relay to all operating members

D: For burning or smoldering materials under or around PV modules, firefighters may remove modules once power to the modules have been disconnected

Answer 28

D
Explanation:
The removal of modules by firefighters is NOT an option. Incipient fires can be extinguished using Class C (dry chemical) portable fire extinguishers……sec 6.6
A- sec 6.1
B- sec 6.6
C- sec 6.3
AUC 351

Question 29

Spray caps shall not be placed on hydrants that have mains larger than _____, are red or yellow, are on two-way streets, near intersections, on bus routes, or on access routes to main traffic arteries.
A: 10 inches

B: 20 inches

C: 12 inches

D: 16 inches

Answer 29

B
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 2 sec 3.3

Question 30

Which of the following represents the CORRECT actions taken at a HRFPMD fire that involved a closed apartment door, a failed window and a wind impacted fire?
A: The Engine Company stretched and charged the hose line in the stairwell prior to advancing to the fire apartment.

B: The Ladder Company Officer contacted the roof firefighter for a description of the fire apartment, location of the main body of fire, and most direct route to the fire area.

C: Once the decision was made to enter the fire apartment, the ladder officer and one member of the FE team lead the entry into the apartment.

D: Once the hose line advanced towards the interior fire area as directed by the Engine Officer, the fire apartment door was chocked open.

Answer 30

D
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
D IS CORRECT 5.2H
A – The hose line can be advanced to that location (fire apartment) and charged. 5.2C
B – The Engine Officer shall contact the roof firefighter or other member operating in the apartment above. 5.2G
C – Once the decision has been made to enter the apartment, the Engine officer must enter the apartment first followed by the Ladder Company. 5.2F

Question 31

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident form (MV-104)?
A: When required, the original MV-104 must be completed and sent to NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 96 hours.

B: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in death or personal injury.

C: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damage of over $1,000 to the property of any one person.

D: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damages where a dollar amount cannot be estimated.

Answer 31

A
Explanation:
When required, the original MV-104 must be completed and sent to NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days
Note: This form is the express responsibility of the vehicle “operator” involved in the collision.
SB 3 14.1

Question 32

The tip of the High-Rise Nozzle should be checked when?
A: Tourly

B: Daily

C: Weekly

D: Monthly

Answer 32

C
Explanation:
Weekly…..during MUD and before use
Supplied by a 2 ½” hoseline, the high rise nozzle will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing. Units must use the standpipe pressure gauge and consider the number of lengths in the supply line. As a general rule when supplying the high rise nozzle with 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should be 70 psi with water flowing and 80 psi when using 4 lengths
Training Bulletins Tools 7 Data sheet 17 sec 4.2 and 4.3

Question 33

Safety is of the utmost importance at any fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: The arrival of the 2nd Engine must be announced over the handie talkie.

B: Designated members of the Safety Team are to engage in their primary duties while assuming the duties of the Safety Team.

C: Once firefighters enter the IDLH, both members of the Safety Team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.

D: In unusual situations, the Incident Commander may vary the make-up of the Safety Team.

Answer 33

C
Explanation:
Once firefighters enter the IDLH, ONE member of the Safety Team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.
MMID Ch 1 2.2-2.4

Question 34

From the following choices, which is NOT considered an elevator emergency?
A: Children stuck in an elevator

B: Passenger of stuck elevator in panic

C: Passenger of stuck elevator injured

D: Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator

Answer 34

A
Explanation:
INCIDENT: A stuck elevator with trapped passengers not in immediate danger and no evidence of injury
EMERGENCY: A situation where one or more of the following exists: A-Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator; B-Passenger of stuck elevator injured; C-Passenger of stuck elevator in panic
Training Bulletins Emergency 1 sec 2.4.1 and 2.4.2

Question 35

You receive a ticket for a single Engine response for wires down at the intersection of Laconia ave and Waring ave in the Allerton section of the Bronx. Upon arrival, you discover live electrical wires down in the street. At this incident, which action did you take incorrectly?
A: Immediate notification to the dispatcher/utility for priority utility company response

B: Stretched a line with fog nozzle and keeping at least 25 feet away from any downed wire while operating this handline

C: If live electrical wires were draped over any occupied vehicle, you would order their immediate removal

D: Did not place any weighted objects on downed wires

Answer 35

C
Explanation:
Cautioned civilians trapped in vehicles with an electrical line over it to remain in their vehicle until the wires are de-energized by the utility company
Training Bulletins Emergency 3 p-8

Question 36

An officer drilling with a probationary firefighter on proper use of the UTAC channels made an incorrect comment in which choice?
A: The IC (who may be a company officer)or a designated member will adjust their radio channel to UTAC 42D at all Mutual Aid responses. The designated member will make contact with the cooperating agency to ascertain information about the incident.

B: Conversations on UTAC channels should be in plain speak. Refrain from using FDNY “10” codes or other language that is not familiar to outside agencies.

C: If unable to establish contact with other jurisdictions using UTAC channels, request the NYPD Dispatcher to contact the cooperating agency and have them monitor the proper UTAC channel.

D: UTAC channels shall not be used by FDNY units to communicate with each other in daily routine activities.

Answer 36

C
Explanation:
If unable to establish contact with other jurisdictions using UTAC channels, request the FIRE DISPATCHER to contact the cooperating agency and have them monitor the proper UTAC channel.
Note: The IC should have UTAC channels monitored via EFAS for all incidents where deemed necessary to ensure the safety of members.
“A” Note: After initial contact is made and information is exchanged, the IC must designate a member to monitor and relay additional information.
Comm 14 Add 4 3.2-3.5

Question 37

When supplied with a nozzle pressure of 40 psi, the 2 1⁄2” hoseline will provide a flowrate of ___ and a nozzle reaction of _____. This is the force felt by the nozzle firefighter.
A: 180 GPM, 68 lbs

B: 180 GPM, 78 lbs

C: 235 GPM, 68 lbs

D: 235 GPM, 78 lbs

Answer 37

D
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 4.5

Question 38

While operating at a CO Emergency with meter readings of 200 PPM, you take the following actions, one of which is incorrect. Indicate the incorrect action?
A: Inform occupants that we have detected a “potentially lethal” level of CO.

B: Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.

C: If a malfunctioning appliance is found producing CO, it should be shut down.

D: Inform occupants of the actions taken, and that the utility company has been requested to respond.

Answer 38

B
Explanation:
BEGIN evacuation of the affected area and ventilate. Only “recommend” evacuation if greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 PPM.
“A” Note: Also, if greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 PPM, inform occupants that they have a “potentially dangerous” level of CO.
HM 4 4.5.1-4.5.3, 4.5.6

Question 39

If the flowrate of a 2 1/2” hoseline proves inadequate, the engine officer can request an additional _______ be supplied to the 2 1⁄2” hoseline. This will provide a flowrate of 265 GPM. The nozzle reaction will be 98 lbs., which is nearly 50% greater than the nozzle reaction of the 1 3⁄4” hoseline.
A: 5 psi incrementally up to 4 times

B: 5 psi

C: 10 psi incrementally up to 4 times

D: 10 psi

Answer 39

D
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 4.5 10.2

Question 40

According to the newly issued, “Firefighting Procedures: Ventilation” bulletin, the “Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve” differs from the Modern Fire Behavior Curve in a number of ways. In which choice below is the information incorrect regarding the Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve?
A: The fire will behave in the same way up until the Early Decay stage.

B: If there is no additional oxygen admitted to the heated atmosphere, the fire will rapidly progress to the Fully Developed stage.

C: An Elongated Decay stage where the fire is kept ventilation-limited is the stage where firefighters can effectively operate and extinguish the fire by denying the fire additional oxygen, thereby limiting fire growth and smoke production.

D: The Elongated Decay stage is maintained by firefighters by coordinating ventilation with the application of water on the fire. By controlling, communicating and coordinating the fire attack, ventilation will occur, increasing the fire growth momentarily, which will be followed by suppression and extinguishment.

Answer 40

B
Explanation:
If there is no additional oxygen admitted to the heated atmosphere, the fire will STAY in an Elongated Decay stage.
Vent 2.4.7