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FT 10/5 Flashcards

1
Q

Which point concerning the High Rise Nozzle is incorrectly stated?
Select one:
a. The HRN 2 ½” shut-off is permanently attached
b. It is the responsibility of the 4th due engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post
c. The 1 1/8” tip, which is removable, should be checked weekly at MUD
d. The HRN will only be placed into operation at the direction of the IC

A

B
(TB Tools 7—DS 17—2.3, 4.1, 4.2) (5th Due)
The correct answer is: It is the responsibility of the 4th due engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post

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2
Q

When supplied by 2 ½” hose, the High Rise Nozzle will produce flows of _______ gpm at _____ psi nozzle pressure with water flowing?
Select one:
a. 180-200, 40
b. 200-225, 50
c. 225-250, 50
d. 200-225, 40

A

B
(TB Tools 7—DS 17—4.3)
The correct answer is: 200-225, 50

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3
Q

When using the High Rise Nozzle at a fire operation, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. The supply line must be attached to the HRN before the nozzle is slid out on the window sill for use
b. The officer supervising the HRN operation should initiate and maintain HT contact with the spotter
c. A shut-off shall be placed in the line one length from the standpipe outlet
d. A spotter equipped with a HT and a pair of binoculars should provide direction and progress reports to the IC and members operating

A

C
(TB Tool 7—DS 17—5.5, 5.10, 5.11, 5.14) (one length back from the nozzle)
The correct answer is: A shut-off shall be placed in the line one length from the standpipe outlet

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4
Q

When utilizing a cockloft nozzle at a fire, an engine company would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The cockloft nozzle operates with the same pressure normally supplied to a 1 ¾” handline
b. The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied by a 1 ¾” handline
c. The two ½” OSTs increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet
d. The discharge rate of the cockloft nozzle is approximately 150 gpm

A

D
(TB Tools 7—DS 18—1.2, 1.3, 1.4) (125 gpm)
The correct answer is: The discharge rate of the cockloft nozzle is approximately 150 gpm

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5
Q

Which operational point concerning the cockloft nozzle is correctly stated?
Select one:
a. When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP multiple dwelling, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door
b. The configuration of the ½” tips reduces back pressure
c. A hole approximately 4’ x 4’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit
d. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 3” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle

A

A
(TB Tools 7—DS 17—1.5, 3.3, 3.4) (eliminates back pressure, 3’ x 3’, min. of 4 inches)
The correct answer is: When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP multiple dwelling, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door

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6
Q

The cockloft nozzle shall be visually inspected?
Select one:
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Daily
d. Each tour

A

A
(TB Tools 7—DS 17—5.1)
The correct answer is: Weekly

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7
Q

Which point concerning the use of a portable power saw is stated correctly?
Select one:
a. Two slaps on the back of an Operator indicates “Stop the cut”
b. The Circle of Danger when cutting a roof or floor is a 10-foot radius
c. The saw shall be shut down when moving to distant areas of operation like level to level
d. Only the Operator and designated guide member may enter the Circle of Danger

A

C
(Tools 9 - 4.4.6, 4.7, 4.7.1, 4.8.3) (2 slaps means cut, 20 foot radius, Officer, Operator + Guide are allowed in)
The correct answer is: The saw shall be shut down when moving to distant areas of operation like level to level

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8
Q

A saw operator cutting a roof where fresh smoke is coming from the blade should know that this usually indicates?
Select one:
a. The cut is on a beam
b. The saw blade is broken
c. Too deep a cut through heavy material
d. A cut perpendicular to a beam

A

C
(Tools 9 - 6.1.8)
The correct answer is: Too deep a cut through heavy material

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9
Q

When making a “Coffin Cut”, the knock out corner cut is the _____ cut made?
Select one:
a. Second
b. Fourth
c. First
d. Third

A

A
(Tools 9 - 6.1.10 B)
The correct answer is: Second

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10
Q

Which point regarding the carbide tip blade of the portable power saw is not stated correctly?
Select one:
a. Place the blade OOS if three or more tips are broken or missing from the 12-tooth blade or six or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade
b. A slight back and forth motion will widen the cut and help prevent binding of the blade
c. When beginning a cut, bring the blade to full RPM before contacting the surface with the blade
d. It will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, and light sheet metal

A

A
(TB Tools 9 - App 1—2.1) (8 or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade)
The correct answer is: Place the blade OOS if three or more tips are broken or missing from the 12-tooth blade or six or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade

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11
Q

Which point regarding the abrasive disc blade of the portable power saw is not stated correctly?
Select one:
a. The Silicone Carbide disc will cut through concrete and other masonry materials
b. The Aluminum Oxide disc will cut through various types of steel, including auto bodies, metal security doors, and metal window bars
c. Both sides of the Aluminum Oxide disc should be painted yellow
d. When beginning a cut, the disc is brought in contact with the material to be cut, the engine is run at low speed and the speed is gradually increased as the disc cuts into the material

A

C
(TB Tools 9 - App 1—2.2) (Silicon Carbide Disc is painted yellow on both sides)
The correct answer is: Both sides of the Aluminum Oxide disc should be painted yellow

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12
Q

Regarding the Diamond Blade of the portable power saw, it would be incorrect to state?
Select one:
a. If this saw blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, the blade must be placed out of service
b. It can cut case hardened locks, chain link fence, rebar, security gates, car doors, bulletproof glass, plastic pipe, stucco, concrete, stone and brick
c. It can be used for both wet and dry cutting
d. This saw blade should be frequently backed out of a cut so that air can cool the blade

A

A
(TB Tools 9 - App 1—2.3.6, 2.3.12, 2.3.13) (Discontinue use of the blade until it has cooled down)
The correct answer is: If this saw blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, the blade must be placed out of service

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13
Q

The diamond blade is?
Select one:
a. Bi-directional—and should be flipped after every 5th use
b. Bi-directional—and should be flipped after every 10th use
c. Uni-directional—it may only be used in one direction
d. Bi-directional—and should be flipped after each use

A

D
(TB Tools 9 - App 1—2.3.15)
The correct answer is: Bi-directional—and should be flipped after each use

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14
Q

When using the diamond blade, it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. During prolonged cutting, use a gentle stream of water on the blade at the point of contact with the material being cut
b. If there is excessive wobbling during use of the blade, discontinue use and inspect the blade
c. Disregard any directional arrows on early versions of the blade
d. Work at full throttle when first bringing the blade in contact with the material to be cut

A

D
(TB Tools 9 - App 1—2.3.12, 2.3.13, 2.3.15, 2.3.17) (Run the engine at a speed such as the material to be cut does not get caught at the outer edge of the blade and cause the blade to bounce or bind)
The correct answer is: Work at full throttle when first bringing the blade in contact with the material to be cut

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15
Q

Which point concerning the Akron New Yorker Multiversal Nozzle is stated incorrectly?
Select one:
a. It has three stacked tips—1 ¼”, 1 ½” and 2”
b. A Safety Stop-lock and Release Pin prevents lowering the nozzle below 35 degrees. The Release Pin should be pulled before reaching 35 degrees
c. Hose lines supplying the multiversal nozzle should be brought straight back a distance of 10 feet before making any sharp bends or turns
d. The use of two hose lines is recommended to supply the multiversal nozzle

A

C
(TB Tools 17 - 2.1 D, I, 3.4.2) (15 feet)
The correct answer is: Hose lines supplying the multiversal nozzle should be brought straight back a distance of 10 feet before making any sharp bends or turns

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16
Q

When using the Multiversal nozzle in the ground base, it should not be operated at more than ______ gallons per minute?
Select one:
a. 800
b. 600
c. 500
d. 700

A

A
(TB Tools 17 - 3.4.5)
The correct answer is: 800

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17
Q

When using the Multiversal nozzle in the ground base, it should not be operated at more than _____ psi when using the 2” tip?
Select one:
a. 70
b. 100
c. 120
d. 50

A

D
(TB Tools 17 - 3.4.5)
The correct answer is: 50

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18
Q

Which point concerning the use of Maxiforce Air Bags is stated incorrectly?
Select one:
a. A bag’s rated tonnage is based on its capacity to lift that tonnage one inch
b. Units shall not mark these bags in any manner
c. A bright yellow “X” is used for positioning the center of the bag under a load
d. Only an inch of space is required for insertion of an air bag

A

B
(TB Tools 20 - 1.1, 2.1.1, 2.1.4, 2.1.5) (Unit should paint the lift height and lift capacity on the bags)
The correct answer is: Units shall not mark these bags in any manner

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19
Q

Air Bags should only be inflated to ________ of their rated height capacity?
Select one:
a. 1/3 to 2/3
b. 1/4 to 1/ 2
c. 1/2 to ¾
d. 2/3 to 3/4

A

C
(TB Tools 20 - 6.5)
The correct answer is: 1/2 to ¾

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20
Q

The steel SCBA air cylinder used to supply air to an air bag should be changed when the high-pressure gauge falls below?
Select one:
a. 250
b. 300
c. 275
d. 200

A

D
(TB Tools 20 - 3.1.4)
The correct answer is: 200

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21
Q

When using multiple air bags to obtain greater lift height it would be most correct to state that?
Select one:
a. Never stack more than three bags on top of each other
b. Be aware the tonnage of the larger bag is the maximum that can be lifted
c. Always place the smaller bag on top of the larger bag
d. Generally, inflate the top bag first

A

C
(TB Tools20 - 6.9) (Never stack more than two bags, inflate bottom bag first, Be aware the tonnage of the Smaller bag)
The correct answer is: Always place the smaller bag on top of the larger bag

22
Q

The lifting capability of a bag is reduced by ____% to obtain the maximum lifting height?
Select one:
a. 25
b. 50
c. 60
d. 33 1/3

A

B
(TB Tools 20 - 6.9.6)
The correct answer is: 50

23
Q

When two air bags are stacked, to insure proper inflation of the correct air bag, always refer to the air bag by?
Select one:
a. Its rated tonnage
b. Its lifting capacity
c. The color of the supply hose
d. Its location—top or bottom

A

C
(TB Tools 20 - 6.9.10)
The correct answer is: The color of the supply hose

24
Q

Regarding the use of chain saws it would be correct to state that?
Select one:
a. Members shall keep their body to the right of the chain
b. Do not attempt to cut above chest height
c. The chain saw shall never be utilized at non-structural fires
d. The chain saw shall never be used at any structural fire

A

B
(TB Tools 24 - 2.1, 2.2, 3.1.2, 3.5.6) (except for pier fires, May be used at non-structural fires, C—Left side of the chain)
The correct answer is: Do not attempt to cut above chest height

25
Q

When cutting with a chain saw it would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. When operating on a slope, always stand on the downhill side of the tree / log
b. Throttle up to full speed just before allowing the chain to touch the wood
c. During upward cutting, a pushing reaction is felt
d. When cutting downward, you will experience a pulling reaction

A

A
(TB Tools 24—3.6, 3.7, 3.10) (Uphill side)
The correct answer is: When operating on a slope, always stand on the downhill side of the tree / log

26
Q

When cutting with a chain saw, a circle of danger of a radius of at least _____ feet will be established before cutting?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

B
(TB Tools 24—4.4)
The correct answer is: 10

27
Q

When operating inside the circle of danger with a chain saw, who are the only personnel allowed inside this circle?
Select one:
a. Operator
b. Operator, Control Person, Spotter, and Officer
c. Operator and Control Person
d. Operator, Control Person and the Officer

A

C
(TB Tools 24 - 4.4)
The correct answer is: Operator and Control Person

28
Q

When operations are being conducted with a chain saw it would be incorrect to think that?
Select one:
a. The control member must not remove cutting debris while the operator is cutting
b. The Control member should be positioned to permit easy visual contact with the officer
c. Hand signals must be established between the operator, control person and officer
d. Anytime the control member approaches the immediate cutting area, the operator must first apply the chain break and signal the control member to approach

A

B
(TB Tools 24 - 4.5, 4.6) (Easy visual contact with the operator)
The correct answer is: The Control member should be positioned to permit easy visual contact with the officer

29
Q

Which operational precaution regarding chain saws is stated inaccurately?
Select one:
a. Never use the tip of the blade for cutting
b. The most dangerous kickback zone on the blade is the lower 90 degree quadrant
c. Do not attempt to cut an object that has fallen against a structure and is now supported by it
d. Trees are good conductors of electricity

A

B
(TB Tools 24 - 5.2, 5.5, 5.6) (Upper 90 degree quadrant)
The correct answer is: The most dangerous kickback zone on the blade is the lower 90 degree quadrant

30
Q

Which safety concern regarding chain saw operations is not correctly stated?
Select one:
a. Chaps must be worn over long pants or short pants
b. Chain saws shall not be operated from a ladder
c. Bunker Gear and firefighting gloves are not saw protected
d. Carry the saw with the guide bar to the rear when climbing uphill

A

A
(TB Tools 24 - 7.2, 7.3.1, 7.3.2, 7.23) (Or Bunker Pants—NO shorts)
The correct answer is: Chaps must be worn over long pants or short pants

31
Q

Handie-talkies and cell phones shall not be used within _________ feet of a suspected explosive device.
Select one:
a. 150
b. 250
c. 200
d. 300

A

A
(ERP Ch3—4.1.1)
The correct answer is: 150

32
Q

Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within________ feet of a suspected explosive device.
Select one:
a. 500
b. 200
c. 350
d. 300

A

D
(ERP Ch3—4.1.1)
The correct answer is: 300

33
Q

FDNY members shall not attempt to handle or move any firearm, ammunition or incendiary device. From the choices below, which would be an incorrect action in these situations?
Select one:
a. The device shall not be disturbed and members shall not attempt to handle or move any firearm, ammunition, or incendiary device.
b. Notifications shall be made to Haz Mat 1 and the Haz-Mat Battalion.
c. Prompt notification shall be given to the Incident Commander (IC) upon discovery of firearms, ammunition or possible incendiary devices at any operation.
d. No one should stand in line with the muzzle or breech of any firearm.

A

B
(ERP Ch3—3.1) (NYPD & BFI)
The correct answer is: Notifications shall be made to Haz Mat 1 and the Haz-Mat Battalion.

34
Q

When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, do not touch anything, retrace their steps and back out of the area. Members shall not attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving. All of the following should be notified when finding one of these labs except?
Select one:
a. BFI and NYPD (Including the bomb squad when necessary)
b. Battalion Chief and Deputy Chief
c. Safety Battalion
d. Request Haz Mat to respond

A

C
(ERP Ch 3—8.7.5)
The correct answer is: Safety Battalion

35
Q

During a confirmed explosion which tactic below would be an incorrect action?
Select one:
a. Patients that are Red-tagged at the Triage-Transfer Point will be moved directly to the Transportation Sector, via the Patient Removal Corridor.
b. Members should always don appropriate PPE and always don their SCBA facepieces.
c. Members of the FDNY are not trained to conduct a search for explosive devices. Members are to survey (visual observation) Staging Area’s, but shall not conduct a search for devices.
d. Resources at the point of impact should identify those most critically injured. These victims are then removed to the Triage Transfer Point via the Rescue Corridor where they shall be triaged and tagged.

A

B
(ERP Ch 3—5.1.3, 5.2, 5.3) (Don facepieces for meter readings or victim reactions only)
The correct answer is: Members should always don appropriate PPE and always don their SCBA facepieces.

36
Q

During a conformed explosion which officer must remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control of this location until relieved by the 2nd Battalion Chief?
Select one:
a. 2nd Engine Officer
b. 1st Engine Officer
c. 2nd Ladder Officer
d. 1st Ladder Officer

A

A
(ERP Ch3 5.3.2)
The correct answer is: 2nd Engine Officer

37
Q

During a conformed explosion in the subway which company would set up the CORE Relay?
Select one:
a. 1st Ladder
b. 1st Engine
c. 2nd Engine
d. 2nd Ladder

A

A
(ERP Ch3 5.3.4)
The correct answer is: 1st Ladder

38
Q

During an aggressive deadly behavior incident, an NYPD officer may confront FDNY members to verify their identity. This is called a “challenge situation”. In this situation, the FDNY member shall strictly adhere to all the following procedures below except.
Select one:
a. Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by unit and name.
b. Remain motionless (no sudden movements). Await the command of law enforcement to resume current operations.
c. Do not turn your body unless instructed to do so by the challenging officer.
d. Comply with the commands of law enforcement personnel.

A

A
(ERP Ch3 Add3A 2.2) (Rank and Name)
The correct answer is: Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by unit and name.

39
Q

First alarm units respond to a car accident into a building, where the dispatcher states there is a possible dispute. Initial arriving units find a vehicle that drove into a bunch of people on the sidewalk, and then hear gun shots. As Engine 99 and Ladder 100 are the only units on scene, what is the most correct action listed below for them to take?
Select one:
a. Engine 99 and Ladder 100 attempt to immediately withdraw and also request a forthwith police response.
b. Engine 99 takes hard cover behind a sheetrock wall because they could not withdraw quickly
c. No FDNY member should operate in the designated hot zone unless escorted by NYPD
d. Engine 99’s Officer uses his emergency alert tone with a Mayday message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine car accident.

A

A
(ERP 3A 3.1.3, 4.1, 5.1 SB 89 3.1) (Concrete Wall), (No FDNY personnel are to operate in designated Hot Zones. Only law enforcement personnel with the appropriate level of ballistic protection will operate in known Hot Zones.), (emergency alert tone with an Urgent message
The correct answer is: Engine 99 and Ladder 100 attempt to immediately withdraw and also request a forthwith police response.

40
Q

Ladder 100 arrives at an active shooter incident where NYPD ESU has the only suspect barricaded in a movie theater located on the second floor. There are multiple people shot on the 1st floor ticket booth area. Since Ladder 100 is the only unit on scene, they would be most correct to perform which action below.
Select one:
a. Make contact with the NYPD Command post, which is in the warm zone.
b. Operate inside the Hot Zone when approved by an FDNY Deputy Chief.
c. Operate in the warm zone for immediate life-saving medical intervention if requested by the NYPD Incident commander.
d. Establish an FDNY command post which should be different then from the EMS command post.

A

C
(ERP 3A 6.1.1, 7.5) (EMS & Fire at same FDNY Command Post), NYPD Command Post in the Cold Zone, Operate in the Warm Zone when approved)
The correct answer is: Operate in the warm zone for immediate life-saving medical intervention if requested by the NYPD Incident commander.

41
Q

When it has been decided that the FDNY & NYPD will form a Rescue Task Force to enter the warm zone there are several requirements that must be met. Which of the following requirements is incorrectly stated?
Select one:
a. RTF members shall focus on the care and removal of yellow tag patients
b. The task force shall move in a Rolling “T” formation with FDNY members moving in pairs at the center and the FDNY Rescue Task Force Leader closest to rear security.
c. The EMS officer or highest medical authority on the Rescue Task Force must prioritize the medical actions of the RTF
d. One firefighter of the Rescue Task Force shall monitor TAC-U.

A

A
(ERP 3A 11.5.1, 11.6) (Red Tags)
The correct answer is: RTF members shall focus on the care and removal of yellow tag patients

42
Q

Members of a Rescue Task force should know they shall only take medical supplies necessary to address life threatening conditions in the warm zone and to facilitate patient removal. This includes all of the following equipment except?
Select one:
a. Triage tags and skeds
b. Tourniquets, hemostatic agent, occlusive dressings
c. Oxygen and defibrillators.
d. Ballistic vests and helmets

A

C
(ERP 3A 11.4.1, 11.4.2, 11.4.3)
The correct answer is: Oxygen and defibrillators.

43
Q

Radiological materials come in all three physical states—solid, liquid and gas. Which point below concerning radiological materials is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Neutron can affect the whole body and its range is up to several hundred feet.
b. Beta can penetrate skin up to ¼” thick and its range is up to 10 feet.
c. Gamma can affect the whole body and its range is up to 25 feet.
d. Alpha is an inhalation hazard and its range is 1 to 2 inches.

A

C
(ERP Ch4 1.1 Table) (several hundred feet)
The correct answer is: Gamma can affect the whole body and its range is up to 25 feet.

44
Q

The Normal Background Radiation Rate for the NYC area Is?
Select one:
a. 1 mR/hr to 2 mR/hr
b. 0.02 Rem/hr to 0.05 Rem/hr
c. 2 mR/hr to 5 mR/hr
d. 0.02 mR/hr to 0.05 mR/hr

A

D
(ERP Ch4 2)
The correct answer is: 0.02 mR/hr to 0.05 mR/hr

45
Q

The FDNY action level for radiological incident or emergency is?
Select one:
a. 1mR/hr
b. 1 Rem/hr
c. 2 Rem/hr
d. 2mr/hr

A

A
(ERP Ch4 4.4.2B)
The correct answer is: 1mR/hr

46
Q

The FDNY Hotline is established at ______ for radiological incidents and emergencies?
Select one:
a. 2mr/hr
b. 1 Rem/hr
c. 2 Rem/hr
d. 1mR/hr

A

A
(ERP Ch4 4.4.2C)
The correct answer is: 2mr/hr

47
Q

While operating at overturned box truck you noticed packages with diamond shaped label that reads radioactive. When it comes to the TI index found on these labels, you would be incorrect to think?
Select one:
a. The transport index of a package should not exceed 10 mR/hr.
b. The transport index indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one foot from an undamaged package.
c. If levels of radiation exceed the TI, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached.
d. The total TI of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr.

A

B
(ERP Ch4 App 2, 2.5) (One meter)
The correct answer is: The transport index indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one foot from an undamaged package.

48
Q

The dose of radiation received by a member at a radiological incident is ________ proportional to the length of time of exposure?
Select one:
a. Directly
b. Exponentially
c. Inversely
d. Indirectly

A

A
(ERP 4—3.2 A)
The correct answer is: Directly

49
Q

Levels of radiation received by a member at a radiological incident ________ as the distance from a source increases?
Select one:
a. Increase proportionally
b. Decline proportionally
c. Decline exponentially
d. Increase exponentially

A

C
(ERP 4—3.2 B)
The correct answer is: Decline exponentially

50
Q

Where should the KI Tablets for radioactive iodine be stored by FDNY units?
Select one:
a. CFR cabinet on the apparatus
b. Apparatus glove box
c. House watch
d. Company Officer’s bunker coat

A

B
The correct answer is: Apparatus glove box

question bank (102 decks)

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