FT 8/17

Question 1

Which point concerning salvage operations is incorrectly stated?
Select one:
a. During operations all members are salvage firefighters
b. Salvage operations begin with the initial attack
c. When fire conditions permit in residential buildings, salvage may be performed during the fire attack on floors above the fire. After the fire is under control, salvage operations are carried out in the fire area
d. Proper ventilation and decisions on size and type of stream are parts of salvage operation

Answer 1

C
TB Salvage—1.3, 1.4, 2.1, 2.2) (on floors below)
The correct answer is: When fire conditions permit in residential buildings, salvage may be performed during the fire attack on floors above the fire. After the fire is under control, salvage operations are carried out in the fire area

Question 2

Which salvage operation performed below was an incorrect action?
Select one:
a. A blanket from the fire apartment was used to cover furniture in that apartment
b. A toilet was broken to drain water in the fire apartment
c. A roof opening was covered with an interior door from the fire apartment, then a plastic cover was applied over the door with available nails
d. An elevator shaft was used to remove water from the public hallway

Answer 2

(TB Salvage—6.5, 6.6)
The correct answer is: An elevator shaft was used to remove water from the public hallway

Question 3

Which point below concerning the Scott 4.5 Positive Pressure SCBA is not accurately stated?
Select one:
a. SCBA is never to be used underwater
b. Hydrostatic testing of air cylinders should be performed every 3 years
c. All members entering a confined space shall operate with SCBA donned until the space is deemed safe
d. The service life of an air cylinder is 15 years

Answer 3

(TB SCBA—2.2.3, 2.4.1) (Done every 5 years)
The correct answer is: Hydrostatic testing of air cylinders should be performed every 3 years

Question 4

Spare SCBA cylinders for all units shall be inspected?
Select one:
a. Monthly, on the first day of the month
b. Every tour
c. Weekly on Mondays
d. Daily on the 9 x 6 tour

Answer 4

(TB SCBA—3.2.12)
The correct answer is: Weekly on Mondays

Question 5

Failure of both the primary and secondary systems of the SCBA in the open position will activate a relief valve in the Pressure Reducer Assembly. This will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of _____ psi into the atmosphere. When this occurs, the ____________________?
Select one:
a. 185, Cylinder valve should be partially closed
b. 150, Purge valve should be opened fully
c. 150, Cylinder valve should be partially closed
d. 185, Purge valve should be opened fully

Answer 5

The correct answer is: 185, Cylinder valve should be partially closed

Question 6

Which point concerning the SCBA Regulator Assembly is incorrectly stated?
Select one:
a. If the manual shut-off fails to release for any reason, turn the red purge valve downward 180 degrees to start the flow of air
b. If the regulator fails in the open position (too much air flow in the facepiece), open the purge valve fully and partially close the cylinder valve
c. If the regulator fails in the closed position (no air to the facepiece) turn the purge valve counterclockwise
d. If the manual shut-off switch is not pressed when taking the facepiece off, a full 45-minute cylinder can be depleted in approximately 1 minute

Answer 6

D
(TB SCBA—3.8.2 A, B, 3.8.4 B) (4 minutes)
The correct answer is: If the manual shut-off switch is not pressed when taking the facepiece off, a full 45-minute cylinder can be depleted in approximately 1 minute

Question 7

Which choice contains an incorrect point about the properties of Liquefied Petroleum Gases? (LPG)
Select one:
a. LP gas is odorless; an odorizing agent is added only when it is processed for domestic consumption.
b. LP gases are lighter than air; 1.5 to 2 times lighter than air.
c. LP gases are non-toxic and non-poisonous, however they are slightly anesthetic. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement.
d. In the liquid state, LP gases present a hazard similar to a highly volatile flammable liquid but with more rapid vaporization. One cubic foot of liquid will expand 270 times as a gas.

Answer 7

(HM1–1.2) (LP gases are heavier than air; 1.5 to 2 times heavier than air.)
The correct answer is: LP gases are lighter than air; 1.5 to 2 times lighter than air.

Question 8

At an LPG tanker fire you should keep everyone, not actually engaged in operations, at least ___________from the front and rear of the tank and __________from the sides.
Select one:
a. 750 feet, 500 feet
b. 1000 feet, 500 feet
c. 1000 feet, 750 feet
d. 500 feet, 1000 feet

Answer 8

(HM 1—1.3.3)
The correct answer is: 1000 feet, 500 feet

Question 9

Which is an incorrect point about LPG?
Select one:
a. An impact failure of an LPG cylinder in a transportation accident can cause a BLEVE.
b. Water spray is effective in dispersing LP gas vapor and should be used by directing the spray stream across the normal vapor path, dispersing the vapor to a safe location.
c. One cubic foot of LPG as a liquid will expand 270 times as a gas
d. A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes, however a satisfactory performance of a relief valve will prevent a BLEVE.

Answer 9

(HM1–1.5.2, 2.4.3, 2.4.4 & HM 2, 2) (A satisfactory performance of a relief valve will NOT prevent a BLEVE)
The correct answer is: A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes, however a satisfactory performance of a relief valve will prevent a BLEVE.

Question 10

The Hazardous Material classification on a DOT placard for LPG is the number _____ and its 4 digit ID number is _____?
Select one:
a. 2, 1075
b. 3, 1075
c. 3, 1971
d. 2, 1971

Answer 10

(HM 1–Figure 17)
The correct answer is: 2, 1075

Question 11

Which point is incorrect about the properties of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)?
Select one:
a. The 4 digit Identification number for CNG is 1975
b. CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not to BLEVE’s.
c. Natural gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy) and it will dissipate quickly.
d. Natural gas is flammable and non-toxic. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement in an enclosed area.

Answer 11

(HM 1–3.2.1, 3.3) (1971)
The correct answer is: The 4 digit Identification number for CNG is 1975

Question 12

Which choice contains an incorrect point about the properties of Methanol?
Select one:
a. Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will float above the ground collecting in high areas.
b. Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid.
c. Methanol burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight.
d. Methanol has a flash point of 54 degrees Fahrenheit and is soluble in water.

Answer 12

(HM1–4.3) (Vapors are slightly heavier than air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas)
The correct answer is: Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will float above the ground collecting in high areas.

Question 13

Which hazardous material classification on the DOT placard below is correct?
Select one:
a. #3 = Flammable Solids
b. #1 = Compressed Gases
c. #5 = Poisons
d. #7 = Radioactive Material

Answer 13

(HM2—2.1)
The correct answer is: #7 = Radioactive Material

Question 14

Which is the correct location & terminology regarding shipping papers?
Select one:
a. Ships - The “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
b. Truck- The “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.
c. Aircraft - The “fly bill” is kept by the pilot.
d. Railroad - The “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.

Answer 14

D
(HM2–4.4) (Ship—Cargo Manifest, Aircraft is Air Bill, Truck—is Bill of Lading)
The correct answer is: Railroad - The “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.

Question 15

When using the Emergency Response Guidebook for hazard assessment which one method below is stated is the last resort way to identify a Hazardous Material?
Select one:
a. Match the diamond shaped placard on the tank, vehicle, or railroad car with a placard in the back of the guidebook, and then turn to the guide page number given.
b. By a 4-digit number (preceded by UN or MA) on shipping papers or packages.
c. By the name of the material found on shipping papers or packages.
d. By a black 4-digit identification (ID) number on a placard or orange panel.

Answer 15

(HM 2—5.2)
The correct answer is: Match the diamond shaped placard on the tank, vehicle, or railroad car with a placard in the back of the guidebook, and then turn to the guide page number given.

Question 16

In general, Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting over _______pounds of the particular material.
Select one:
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 250
d. 750

Answer 16

(HM 2—7)
The correct answer is: 1000

Question 17

Which precaution below is stated incorrectly when operating at a Hazardous Material incident.
Select one:
a. Do not use water on any substance that is fuming until after proper identification and hazard assessment.
b. Under no circumstances are members to touch, taste, or intentionally smell any substance suspected of being hazardous.
c. Empty containers will always be less hazardous than full ones.
d. In all cases involving derailment of railroad tank cars the hazardous materials unit must be called, even when it appears there is no damage.

Answer 17

C
(HM 2—7) (Empty containers may be MORE hazardous than full ones.)
The correct answer is: Empty containers will always be less hazardous than full ones.

Question 18

Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a natural by-product of incomplete combustion and is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, irritating, toxic gas, flammable gas. From the choices below what is the incorrect point about Carbon Monoxide.
Select one:
a. Carbon Monoxide has an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees Fahrenheit.
b. The Lower Explosive Level (LEL) of Carbon Monoxide is 12.5%
c. The Upper Explosive Level (UEL) of Carbon Monoxide is 54%.
d. Carbon Monoxide has a vapor density which makes it slightly lighter than air (.968)

Answer 18

(HM 4–2.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.5, 3.2, 3.9) (74%)
The correct answer is: The Upper Explosive Level (UEL) of Carbon Monoxide is 54%.

Question 19

Carbon Monoxide is considered to represent the most dangerous acute exposure faced by firefighters. Even at low concentrations, CO may impair judgment, visual acuteness and decision making. In which point below should the members correct the officers.
Select one:
a. High Level CO Poisoning- seizure, coma, permanent brain damage, death.
b. Low Level CO Poisoning can mimic flu symptoms, headache (mild/severe), fatigue, nausea, dizziness, confusion, irritability.
c. Medium Level CO Poisoning- vomiting, drowsiness, loss of consciousness.
d. To reverse the buildup of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) in the body, over 100 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.

Answer 19

(TB SCBA ADD 3 Pg 6, HM 4–3.11, 3.12) (200 parts)
The correct answer is: To reverse the buildup of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) in the body, over 100 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.

Question 20

An Engine and ladder respond to a Carbon Monoxide detector activation in an old law tenement in apartment 3B on the 3rd floor. Which action taken by these units should be corrected.
Select one:
a. Once the Carbon Monoxide levels dropped to 9PPM the Ladder officer told the occupants they could return to their apartment
b. The Ladder Company took initial readings with their Carbon Monoxide detector in the kitchen of apartment 3B at a location high and in the middle of the room.
c. After the ladder company shut down the defective stove the Captain of the Engine as the IC requested the utility company to respond.
d. The Officer of the ladder company, after determining that readings of 150 PPM were caused by a defective stove ordered the occupants of the apartment to leave the apartment

Answer 20

(HM 4–4.1.3, 4.1.5, 4.5) (Take initial readings at the front door)
The correct answer is: The Ladder Company took initial readings with their Carbon Monoxide detector in the kitchen of apartment 3B at a location high and in the middle of the room.

Question 21

Ladder 99 responds to a Carbon Monoxide alarm in a private dwelling. Upon investigation they find a Carbon Monoxide Detector was present and did not activate, but there is 300 PPM readings on their detectors in the private dwelling. What would be the correct radio signal?
Select one:
a. 10-38 Code 2
b. 10-38 Code 3
c. 10-38 Code 4
d. 10-38 Code 1

Answer 21

(Comm. 8 pg 11)
The correct answer is: 10-38 Code 4

Question 22

A Carbon Monoxide investigation will determine if the response is an incident or an emergency. Choose the MOST CORRECT point regarding a CO incident or emergency?
Select one:
a. If there are CO meter readings of 6 PPM, but the occupant has flu like symptoms, transmit a 10-38 Code 3
b. When a fatality or serious injury associated with a CO incident is discovered, the Incident Commander shall have NYPD notified through the Borough Dispatcher.
c. SCBA shall be worn at all CO Emergencies and used at all CO investigations.
d. Transmit a 10-38 Code 1 for a CO Incident if no occupants are symptomatic and meter readings are 1 to 9 PPM

Answer 22

(HM 4) (10-38 Code 2, Worn at investigations, used at emergencies, Notify BFI)
The correct answer is: If there are CO meter readings of 6 PPM, but the occupant has flu like symptoms, transmit a 10-38 Code 3

Question 23

The IC shall request the utility company to respond in all the following situations except which one?
Select one:
a. The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.
b. Any CO levels are recorded by the CO meter.
c. On scene units shut down any gas appliance.
d. An individual is displaying symptoms of CO poisoning.

Answer 23

(4.1.5) (A CO level over 9 ppm is recorded on the meter)
The correct answer is: Any CO levels are recorded by the CO meter.

Question 24

The GasAlert Extreme is a warning device issued for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. Use of the instrument is intended to alert the user to CO presence in the environment. What is the MOST CORRECT point about the GasAlert Extreme.
Select one:
a. When CO exceeds 9 PPM, the meter will have a slow modulating tone (every 1 second) with slow flashing red lights (every 1 second) and a slow vibration (every 1 second)
b. To turn on and activate the meter press the green circular button on the right only. The right button is the only button to be used by field units.
c. The meter should be affixed to the handie-talkie strap, near the handie-talkie antenna
d. When CO exceeds 100 PPM the meter will have a fast modulating tone (every ½ second) with fast flashing red lights (every ½ second) and a fast vibration (every ½ second).

Answer 24

(HM4 Add 1) (exceeds 35 ppm, In the chest area, Left button)
The correct answer is: When CO exceeds 100 PPM the meter will have a fast modulating tone (every ½ second) with fast flashing red lights (every ½ second) and a fast vibration (every ½ second).

Question 25

The low battery alarm consists of the GasAlert Extreme Carbon Monoxide Meter?
Select one:
a. 1 beep (every 2 seconds), 1 flash (every 2 seconds) 1 quick vibration (every 30 seconds)
b. 1 beep (every 3 seconds), 1 flash (every 3 seconds) 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute)
c. 1 beep (every 4 seconds), 1 flash (every 4 seconds) 1 quick vibration (every 30 seconds)
d. 1 beep (every 5 seconds), 1 flash (every 5 seconds) 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute)

Answer 25

(HM 4 Add 1—3.5)
The correct answer is: 1 beep (every 5 seconds), 1 flash (every 5 seconds) 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute)

Question 26

Buildings that house Artists in Residence (AIR) are required to have a posted metal sign near the main entrance how many feet above sidewalk level?
Select one:
a. 7
b. 9
c. 6
d. 8

Answer 26

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.1)
The correct answer is: 7

Question 27

When during the course of the construction of a new building the working deck reaches a height of _______ feet or greater above the ground in a building for which a standpipe system will be required, a permanent or temporary standpipe shall be kept in a state of readiness at all times for use by fire-fighting personnel.
Select one:
a. 75
b. 100
c. 50
d. 150

Answer 27

(AUC 5 Chap 5 Add. 2 Page 1)
The correct answer is: 75

Question 28

In buildings under construction, combination standpipe valve handles shall be painted what color?
Select one:
a. Green
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Blue

Answer 28

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.2 Page 3)
The correct answer is: Yellow

Question 29

Whenever construction or demolition work reaches a height greater than _____ feet, at least one elevator or hoist shall be kept in readiness at all times for FDNY use.
Select one:
a. 65
b. 50
c. 75
d. 80

Answer 29

(AUC 5 Ch.2 Add.2 Page 4)
The correct answer is: 75

Question 30

Portable outdoor barbecues shall not be stored or used within _____ feet of any combustible waste, combustible material, or any combustible surface.
Select one:
a. 10
b. 15
c. 5
d. 12

Answer 30

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.3 Page 3)
The correct answer is: 10

Question 31

Indoor storage of 16.4-ounce LPG containers in Group R-2 occupancies (Apartment Houses) is limited to a maximum of ______ containers per dwelling unit.
Select one:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

Answer 31

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.3 Page 3)
The correct answer is: 4

Question 32

What color piping will identify natural gas piping on rooftops?
Select one:
a. Red
b. Yellow with black stripes
c. Yellow
d. Orange

Answer 32

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.3 Page 5)
The correct answer is: Yellow

Question 33

If an Out of Service fire protection system has been discovered as the result of a routine inspection, complaint or Fire Department operation and it has not been previously reported, what type of action should be issued for Failure to Notify the Fire Department?
Select one:
a. Immediate Summons
b. FDNY Summons
c. Violation Order
d. DOB Referral

Answer 33

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.4 4.5.6)
The correct answer is: Immediate Summons

Question 34

If an out of service fire protection system is found in an occupied residential occupancy, however the owner, impairment coordinator, and/or responsible building staff are not available ask the Dispatcher to notify whom?
Select one:
a. Department of Buildings
b. Bureau of Fire Investigation
c. HPD
d. OEM

Answer 34

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.4 4.6) OEM will coordinate with HPD to ensure proper actions are taken until a responsible party can be contacted.
The correct answer is: OEM

Question 35

A unit receiving a verbal notification of an absent or defective smoke detector should take which action?
Select one:
a. Refer the complainant to HPD by dialing “311”
b. Investigate and issue an FDNY Summons if found to be missing or defective
c. Investigate and issue an A-8 if found to be missing or defective
d. Notify the Bureau of Fire Prevention (FPOSU)

Answer 35

(AUC 5 Chapt.2 Add. 5 Page 2)
The correct answer is: Refer the complainant to HPD by dialing “311”

Question 36

During street festivals and outdoor gatherings fire apparatus access shall be provided, by maintaining an unobstructed fire lane of not less than _________ feet.
Select one:
a. 25
b. 15
c. 10
d. 20

Answer 36

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add. 7 6.4)
The correct answer is: 15

Question 37

The promoter or sponsor of a street festival or outdoor gathering shall conspicuously mark a solid _________ circle _______ inches in diameter in the center of the emergency access lane to indicate the location of each fire hydrant.
Select one:
a. Red / 12
b. Yellow / 20
c. Yellow / 12
d. Red / 20

Answer 37

C
(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add. 7 6.6)
The correct answer is: Yellow / 12

Question 38

Not more than ______ Violation Categories (VCs) are to be cited on each FDNY Summons.
Select one:
a. 7
b. 5
c. 3
d. 9

Answer 38

(AUC 5 Chap.3 Add.1 Page 2)
The correct answer is: 7

Question 39

If a Violation Order (VO) is not corrected within the compliance time the officer may allow an extension if ______% of the required work has been completed.
Select one:
a. 75
b. 40
c. 90
d. 50

Answer 39

(AUC 5 Chap.3 Add. 2 Page 1)
The correct answer is: 75

Question 40

Fire Prevention complaints shall be investigated promptly, but must be investigated within how many hours after receipt?
Select one:
a. 72
b. 24
c. 48
d. 96

Answer 40

(AUC 5 Chap.3 Add.6 2.2)
The correct answer is: 24

Question 41

The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by whom?
Select one:
a. The Incident Commander
b. The Sector Supervisor
c. The Company Officer
d. The Safety Officer

Answer 41

(AUC 220 1.3)
The correct answer is: The Incident Commander

Question 42

Members must have _______ years experience in the Fire Department to be considered for Chauffeur Training School.
Select one:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3

Answer 42

(AUC 254 1.3) (exceptions may be granted with permission of the Chief of Ops)
The correct answer is: 3

Question 43

Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least ______ hours of driver training, not including emergency responses.
Select one:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 5
d. 3

Answer 43

(AUC 254 2.4)
The correct answer is: 5

Question 44

Reserve Engine Company 506 has been activated to respond from the quarters of Engine 219. How should this unit be identified when communicating with the Borough Dispatcher?
Select one:
a. “Engine 506”
b. “Engine 506 acting Engine 219”
c. “Engine 219 2nd Section 506”
d. “Reserve Engine 506”

Answer 44

(AUC 259 5.2)
The correct answer is: “Engine 506 acting Engine 219”

Question 45

All but which one of the following circumstances would require an immediate notification to BITS?
Select one:
a. On duty incident involving drugs or alcohol
b. A physical alteration among members
c. Arrest of a Department employee
d. An allegation concerning the acceptance of a bribe by an employee

Answer 45

(AUC 268A 3.1)
The correct answer is: An allegation concerning the acceptance of a bribe by an employee

Question 46

Choose an incorrect answer regarding the FDNY Air Support Personal Flotation Device (PFD).
Select one:
a. If the Rapidfire automatic strobe light does not activate upon PFD inflation, then the member must pull on the black cord located underneath the strobe light.
b. PFDs must be inflated manually by the member prior to exiting the aircraft.
c. If the PFD doesn’t inflate automatically, the member must use the oral inflation tube to inflate the PFD.
d. The PFD should fully inflate within 5 seconds and the Rapidfire automatic strobe light should activate.

Answer 46

(AUC 269 Add. 2 3.1, 3.2) (Must be inflated manually by the member only after exiting the aircraft)
The correct answer is: PFDs must be inflated manually by the member prior to exiting the aircraft.

Question 47

The FDNY will be considered the “Primary Agency” according to CIMS in all but which one of the following incidents?
Select one:
a. Elevator Incident, NYPD 1st on scene
b. Confined Space Rescue, NYPD 1st on scene
c. Boat in distress, FDNY 1st on scene
d. Water Rescue, FDNY 1st on scene

Answer 47

D
(AUC 276 4.1)
The correct answer is:
Boat in distress: FDNY/NYPD (first to arrive)
Water Rescue: NYPD

Question 48

A unit scheduled for training at the Fire Academy must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than _________ hours.
Select one:
a. 0915
b. 0930
c. 0945
d. 0900

Answer 48

(AUC 287 5.1.3)
The correct answer is: 0915

Question 49

A unit that is required to send a detail to a Rescue or Squad company should send an experienced firefighter, with greater than ____ years seniority.
Select one:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 2
d. 4

Answer 49

(AUC 287 5.3.1 B)
The correct answer is: 5

Question 50

If members are detailed to a quarters within approximately _____ blocks of their assigned quarters, walking is considered an acceptable method of traveling to the detailed quarters.
Select one:
a. 40
b. 25
c. 30
d. 20

Answer 50

(AUC 287 6.2) (Within one mile or approximately 20 blocks)
The correct answer is: 20