FT CO 11

Question 1

Engine 99 arrives first due a top floor fire in an Old Law Tenement (OLTs). There are numerous occupants located on the front fire escape exposed to heavy dense black smoke coming from the windows of the fire apartment. The officer of Engine 99 transmits the 10-75 and has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The presence of the front fire escape always indicates three or four apartments per floor with another fire escape in the rear.
b. The first hoseline shall be operated from the street to protect the people on the fire escape, with the second line stretched promptly to the interior of the building.
c. Hoselines should not be operated into ventilation holes from the roof as this decreases ventilation and nullifies the action of lines operating on the top floor.
d. A roof line should only be used to protect exposures.

Answer 1

C
(MD 2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.9)
The correct answer is: Hoselines should not be operated into ventilation holes from the roof as this decreases ventilation and nullifies the action of lines operating on the top floor.

Question 2

Units are operating at an advanced fire on the 3rd floor of a 5-story OLT. The roof firefighter reports that there is heavy fire out the windows in the shaft, and that fire is about to extend to exposure 2. Regarding engine operations at this fire, which statement below is correct?
Select one:
a. The primary purpose of the first line is to extinguish the fire on the 3rd floor.
b. The second hoseline may be ordered to exposure 2 by the Incident Commander.
c. The second hoseline is usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to the floor above the first line.
d. If the third hoseline is ordered into the fire building, it must be stretched via the fire escape or rope stretch.

Answer 2

B
(MD 3.2.11)
The correct answer is: The second hoseline may be ordered to exposure 2 by the Incident Commander.

Question 3

First due units arrive on-scene to a reported fire in an OLT. The Ladder officer approaches the building and observes fire on the fourth and fifth floors. She would be correct to take which action below?
Select one:
a. If progress is not made on both floors in a short period of time, transmit a 2nd alarm.
b. Special call an extra engine and truck.
c. Transmit a 2nd alarm.
d. Transmit a 3rd alarm.

Answer 3

B
(MD 3.4.6)
The correct answer is: Special call an extra engine and truck.

Question 4

Gas related emergencies have sharply increased in recent years and it is important that members are aware of the proper way to mitigate gas related fires and emergencies at OLT’s. Which choice below is correct when operating at a gas emergency in an OLT?
Select one:
a. If gas is leaking without being ignited, the gas supply should be shut off and the area ventilated as much as possible.
b. Piping containing flammable gas shall not be permitted to pierce or be run in stair enclosures, in a shaft containing a standpipe riser, or in public hallways leading to exits. This pertains to vertical runs of piping only.
c. If gas meters are burning, they should be extinguished prior to shutting off the gas supply.
d. A leak or break in the gas piping will not be stopped or greatly diminished by stuffing rags or paper into the break.

Answer 4

A
(MD 3.5.9)
The correct answer is: If gas is leaking without being ignited, the gas supply should be shut off and the area ventilated as much as possible. Fog lines may be used for venting.

Question 5

Units are responding to a reported structural fire in an OLT. On arrival, they encounter a fire in the cellar with reports of people trapped. CIDS information is as follows. Which comment below concerning the operations at this fire is correct?
MD 4STY 25X60 CL3-NARROW
SHAFT EXP 4 SIDE-WINDOW BARS
1 FL-NO EXT ENT TO CELLAR
Select one:
a. Ladder companies are not permitted to throw any material into the shaft.
b. The first hoseline should be stretched to the cellar entrance door on the first floor, but should not be advanced down the cellar stairs unless the fire is minor.
c. Ventilation shall be provided by intermittently opening and closing the door at the top of the interior cellar stairs before all of the occupants have been evacuated.
d. Fires in the cellar of an OLT will not quickly spread to the upper parts of the building since OLTs have the advantage of a fireproof cellar ceiling.

Answer 5

A
(MD 3.3.4, 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.2.4)
The correct answer is: Ladder companies are not permitted to throw any material into the shaft.

Question 6

Store fires in OLTs may involve a large amount of combustible material. Hidden fire extending upward from the store via floors, partitions, and various horizontal and vertical voids may present a very difficult fire problem. Which tactic below is correct for a store fire in an OLT?
Select one:
a. A 2 ½” line should be stretched for a medium or large volume fire.
b. The second hoseline must be stretched to back up the first line in the store. When assured it is not needed in the store, it may be advanced to the floor above.
c. Stores in OLTs may have a door which opens into the public hallway on the first floor. This hallway should be examined after the fire is extinguished.
d. A charged hoseline must be ready before the store is ventilated.

Answer 6

D
(MD 4.3.1, 4.3.2, 4.3.6)
The correct answer is: A charged hoseline must be ready before the store is ventilated.

Question 7

It is no longer permissible to convert OLT’s to single room occupancies (SRO’s), but thousands of such buildings have been converted and are still being used as SRO’s. Which of the following statements concerning SRO’s in OLT’s is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Each individual room is equipped with a lock; many with padlocks on the outside. Just because a door is found padlocked, do not assume that the room is empty.
b. The layout must be arranged so that each occupant has access to both means of egress (stairs and fire escape) without having to go through another person’s room.
c. These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The sprinkler system has no roof tank and must be supplied by the Fire Department.
d. These SRO’s also require an interior alarm system to warn occupants of fire. Exit lights and signs must be provided.

Answer 7

C
(MD 4.8.4)
The correct answer is: These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The sprinkler system has no roof tank and must be supplied by the Fire Department.

Question 8

The “H” Type design of residence buildings differs from the older tenements and the newer High Rise multiple dwellings in that there are three structural elements to support the structure: masonry bearing walls, wood beams, and structural steel. Which additional construction feature mentioned below is correct?
Select one:
a. Buildings constructed between 1930 and 1940 are required to have fire walls that are carried to the top of the roof boards which were designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread.
b. The most common roof has the top floor ceiling several feet below the main roof beams. The roof boards are fastened directly to the top of the roof beams. This provides for a sturdy roof.
c. The cockloft is a large, concealed void between the top floor ceiling and the underside of the roof boards. This space is not large enough to be called an attic and only has a few means of entry.
d. Steel girders are vertical structural members designed in an “H” shape; they are also known as channel rails.

Answer 8

B
(MD 2.4, 5.2.3, 5.2.4 A&B)
The correct answer is: The most common roof has the top floor ceiling several feet below the main roof beams. The roof boards are fastened directly to the top of the roof beams. This provides for a sturdy roof.

Question 9

First alarm units are operating at the scene of a fire in a 6-story H-Type multiple dwelling. On arrival heavy fire is showing from the front windows on the 5th and 6th floor in the A-wing. Members of the first arriving engine have just entered the lobby with the first hoseline in route to the 5th floor. The first alarm assignment is as follows: E1, E2, E3, L1, T2, BC1. All units arrive as per the alarm assignment. CIDS information is:

MD 6STY 50X85 CL3-“H” TYPE-A & B WING
TRANSVERSE STRS-DUMBWAITER SRV ALL
APTS-EXT ENTR TO CELL EXP 2 SIDE

The officer of Engine 3 would be correct to have his members take which action below?
Select one:
a. Assist Engine 1 with the stretch of the first hoseline.
b. Stretch a second hoseline to the 5th floor as a backup line.
c. Stretch the second hoseline to the 6th floor of the A-wing.
d. Stretch the second hoseline to the 6th floor of the B-wing.

Answer 9

A
(MD 5.3.2)
The correct answer is: Assist Engine 1 with the stretch of the first hoseline.

Question 10

First alarm units are operating at the scene of a fire in a 6-story H-Type multiple dwelling. On arrival heavy fire is showing from the front windows on the 5th and 6th floor in the A-wing. Members of the first arriving engine have just entered the lobby with the first hoseline in route to the 5th floor. The first alarm assignment is as follows: E1, E2, E3, L1, T2, BC1. All units arrive as per the alarm assignment. CIDS information is:

MD 6STY 50X85 CL3-“H” TYPE-A & B WING
TRANSVERSE STRS-DUMBWAITER SRV ALL
APTS-EXT ENTR TO CELL EXP 2 SIDE

Ladder 1 takes the following actions but was only correct in which one?
Select one:
a. The officer realizes that, given the fire condition, it will generally be necessary to call for an additional engine and ladder.
b. The primary means of getting to the roof for the roof firefighter is via the interior stairs in the “B” wing.
c. The LCC positioned the apparatus in front of the front entrance courtyard since no rescue operation was apparent from the front of the building.
d. The aerial may initially be raised to the roof for rapid ascent of the roof and outside vent firefighter.

Answer 10

D
(MDs 5.4.2, 5.4.3, 5.5.2)
The correct answer is: The aerial may initially be raised to the roof for rapid ascent of the roof and outside vent firefighter.

Question 11

First alarm units are operating at the scene of a fire in a 6-story H-Type multiple dwelling. On arrival heavy fire is showing from the front windows on the 5th and 6th floor in the A-wing. Members of the first arriving engine have just entered the lobby with the first hoseline in route to the 5th floor. The first alarm assignment is as follows: E1, E2, E3, L1, T2, BC1. All units arrive as per the alarm assignment. CIDS information is:

MD 6STY 50X85 CL3-“H” TYPE-A & B WING
TRANSVERSE STRS-DUMBWAITER SRV ALL
APTS-EXT ENTR TO CELL EXP 2 SIDE

After receiving a report from Ladders 1’s roof firefighter that fire has extended to the cockloft, the IC transmits a second alarm. Ladder 4 arrives on-scene and is assigned to the roof. Which statement below is correct regarding roof operations at this fire?
Select one:
a. Ladder 4’s officer cannot be designated as the roof sector supervisor. This position must be filled by a chief officer.
b. Once on the roof, Ladder 4’s officer instructs her members to cut a 4’x8’ ventilation hole, the recommended size for initial roof ventilation.
c. Ladder 4’s officer recognizes that two saws should be put into operation promptly to prevent the lateral spread of fire in the cockloft.
d. Fire stopping in the cockloft cannot be depended on. Cocklofts may be undivided, as in the case when fire partitions only come up to the top of the roof boards.

Answer 11

C
(MDs 5.9.1, 5.9.2, 5.9.6)
The correct answer is: Ladder 4’s officer recognizes that two saws should be put into operation promptly to prevent the lateral spread of fire in the cockloft.

Question 12

First alarm units are operating at the scene of a fire in a 6-story H-Type multiple dwelling. On arrival heavy fire is showing from the front windows on the 5th and 6th floor in the A-wing. Members of the first arriving engine have just entered the lobby with the first hoseline in route to the 5th floor. The first alarm assignment is as follows: E1, E2, E3, L1, T2, BC1. All units arrive as per the alarm assignment. CIDS information is:

MD 6STY 50X85 CL3-“H” TYPE-A & B WING
TRANSVERSE STRS-DUMBWAITER SRV ALL
APTS-EXT ENTR TO CELL EXP 2 SIDE

As the fire continues to gain headway, Battalion 3 arrives on-scene and is designated as the roof sector supervisor. After arriving on the roof, he exchanges information with Ladder 4’s officer and decides to implement a trenching operation. Which tactic described below is correct regarding trenching?
Select one:
a. Trenching is an offensive operation that is performed to limit the extension of fire in the cockloft.
b. A trench may be cut and opened before there is an adequate vent opening directly over the fire.
c. The trench should be cut at the narrowest available roof section, taking advantage of bulkhead structures, outside walls, skylights or firewalls constructed within the structure.
d. A 4-foot wide trench approximately 20-feet from the initial vent hole is an effective opening.

Answer 12

D
(MDs 5.9.9)
The correct answer is: A 4-foot wide trench approximately 20-feet from the initial vent hole is an effective opening.

Question 13

Units respond to a fire in a store on the first floor of an H-Type multiple dwelling. Which action mentioned below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The first line is stretched to the involved store.
b. The second line may be stretched to the floor above as soon as the first line is in operation.
c. The second ladder operating on the floor above must check areas larger than the actual size of the store due to the possibility of horizontal travel of fire and smoke.
d. Deckpipes on engines may have to be used momentarily to protect people on fire escapes.

Answer 13

B
(MDs 5.7.2)
The correct answer is: The second line may be stretched to the floor above as soon as the first line is in operation.

Question 14

While operating at a cellar fire in an H-Type multiple dwelling, members must consider the likelihood of cellar apartments for the superintendent or maintenance people. Which additional comment below regarding cellar fires is correct?
Select one:
a. There is fireproof construction throughout the cellar.
b. The first line is stretched to the cellar via the interior stairs.
c. Unlike OLTs, there are very few ground level windows usually available at the sides and rear that may be used to provide alternate points of attack on the fire.
d. The second ladder company provides forcible entry and search of the cellar to locate the fire and search for life.

Answer 14

A
(MDs 5.8.1, 5.8.2)
The correct answer is: There is fireproof construction throughout the cellar.

Question 15

In H-Type Multiple Dwellings when heavy fire is encountered in an apartment all sides and above and below must be examined for fire extension. Nothing can be taken for granted. When checking for fire extension, which point below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The most probable point for vertical fire extension will be the vertical steel channels (in building that have steel frame construction).
b. On lower floors, if any hot spots are encountered that require examination, small holes can be made for a visual check. Should any fire be encountered in a vertical void, notify the IC, and immediately go to the floor above.
c. Always examine walls in the vicinity the bathroom for the large void enclosing the waste pipe.
d. In renovated and/or rehabilitated buildings, the boxed out interior shafts for utilities must be checked. These shafts, which may be open from the basement to the cockloft, are generally found behind kitchens and bathrooms, and they are discernible by unusually thick partition walls.

Answer 15

B
(MDs 5.10.1, 5.10.2, 5.10.6)
The correct answer is: On lower floors, if any hot spots are encountered that require examination, small holes can be made for a visual check. Should any fire be encountered in a vertical void, notify the IC, and immediately go to the floor above.

Question 16

When a member believes he or she has been a victim of or has witnessed discrimination, harassment (sexual or any other), intimidation, or retaliation, the member has a number of options available by which to file an EEO complaint. Which procedure below is described correctly?
Select one:
a. A complaint must be filed with the Fire Department’s EEO Officer within 2 years from the date the alleged discrimination or harassment occurred.
b. A member may email their complaint to the EEO office.
c. Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly with the Inspector General.
d. A member who wishes to file an EEO complaint must communicate the inquiry or complaint to an Officer/Supervisor or EEO Counselor, who will communicate the inquiry or complaint to the EEO office.

Answer 16

B
(PAID 1-77: 5.2, 5.4, 5.5)
The correct answer is: A member may email their complaint to the EEO office.

Question 17

A company officer is working a Tuesday night tour in Ladder 99. At 2200 hours, a firefighter knocks on the office door and asks to speak to the officer privately. He explains that he wishes to file an EEO complaint but does not want to provide any additional information about the matter. He states that he will complete his night tour and follow up with the EEO office in the morning. The officer would be correct to take which action following this conversation?
Select one:
a. The officer must contact the EEO officer immediately via a phone call to FDOC.
b. The officer is not required to complete a Confidential EEO Incident Report in this situation.
c. The officer shall never interrogate any individual involved in the alleged incident, or initiate an investigation into the alleged incident.
d. The officer must make an entry in the company journal regarding this EEO complaint.

Answer 17

B
(PAID 1-77: 6.2, 6.3, 6.7, 6.9)
The correct answer is: The officer is not required to complete a Confidential EEO Incident Report in this situation.

Question 18

A member has a right to meet privately with the EEO Officer or an EEO Attorney/Investigator during office hours. Which statement below is correct regarding this policy?
Select one:
a. The member should obtain approval to do so prior to leaving his/her work assignment.
b. All leave requests to meet with an EEO Office representative during work hours cannot be denied by supervisors.
c. A member must disclose to an Officer the details of, or the purpose for, meeting with an EEO Office representative.
d. If an Officer has concerns about this policy they should be addressed to the next level of command.

Answer 18

A
(PAID 1-77: 7.2)
The correct answer is: The member should obtain approval to do so prior to leaving his/her work assignment.

Question 19

EEO counselors are FDNY employees who have received specialized training in EEO laws, regulations and policies, and are responsible for providing general guidance, information and other resources to employees on behalf of the EEO Office. Which choice below is correct concerning EEO counselors?
Select one:
a. Employees who wish to make an EEO inquiry or complaint to an EEO Counselor are required to contact the EEO Counselor designated for their assigned area.
b. If an officer contacts an EEO Counselor for general guidance concerning an EEO incident, this satisfies the officer’s obligation as a mandatory reporter.
c. If requested, inquiries may be made anonymously by the member seeking information or guidance.
d. EEO counselors will not retain or maintain copies of any information or records, except the EEO Counselors intake report.

Answer 19

C
(PAID 1-77: 9.2.1, 9.4.1.1, 9.4.7, 9.6)
The correct answer is: If requested, inquiries may be made anonymously by the member seeking information or guidance.

Question 20

Another option to settle an EEO complaint is through mediation. Which statement below is correct regarding this option?
Select one:
a. A complainant or respondent may file a written request for mediation.
b. Mediation efforts to resolve a complaint shall not exceed 30 working days, unless the time period is extended by the EEO Officer.
c. When a resolution is not agreed upon, the EEO Officer will inform the complainant that they forfeit their right to request an investigation of the complaint of discrimination.
d. The Chief of Department will make the final decision regarding an EEO complaint.

Answer 20

A
(PAID 1-77: 11.1, 11.2, 11.6, 12.3)
The correct answer is: A complainant or respondent may file a written request for mediation.

Question 21

The FDNY has promulgated a Workplace Violence Prevention Policy to prevent and minimize instances of violence in the workplace between Department employees and all persons with whom they come in contact in the course of conducting their assigned tasks. Which point below is incorrect regarding this policy?
Select one:
a. Any questions concerning this policy may be addressed to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator via phone or email.
b. A copy of the Workplace Violence Prevention Policy shall be posted in the firehouse.
c. In the event of a workplace violence emergency, employees are instructed to first report the emergency by calling 911, and then report it to their supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.
d. The FDNY strongly encourages that any Order of Protection secured by a Fire Department employee be submitted to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.

Answer 21

B
(PAID 1-2011: 1.4, 1.6, 9.2, 14.1)
The correct answer is: A copy of the Workplace Violence Prevention Policy shall be posted in the firehouse.

Question 22

Which of the following procedures is correct regarding reporting the potential for workplace violence and/or incidents of workplace violence?
Select one:
a. The only circumstance where employees may submit a report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator rather than their supervisor, is if the incident being reported presents privacy concerns.
b. Normally, fire department employees who have witnessed a work place violence incident shall prepare Workplace Violence Report and submit it to the reporting employees supervisor.
c. Fire Department employees who have been the victim of domestic violence, a sexual offense or stalking are strongly encouraged to report such incidents to BITS.
d. Matters involving imminent danger to any employee may only be reported in writing to their supervisor via the Workplace Violence Report.

Answer 22

B
(PAID 1-2011:10.1.2, 10.2, 10.3, 10.4, 10.5)
The correct answer is: Normally, fire department employees who have witnessed a work place violence incident shall prepare Workplace Violence Report and submit it to the reporting employees supervisor.

Question 23

Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report must take certain actions. Which one mentioned below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure it is forwarded directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator without intermediate endorsements.
b. All supervisor shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis.
c. The supervisor shall affirmatively seek the guidance of the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator on matters that are very likely to lead to an incident of workplace violence.
d. Supervisors (in consultation with their chain of command) may take any measures within their authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or respond to a workplace violence incident including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline.

Answer 23

A
(PAID 1-2011: 11.1, 11.2)
The correct answer is: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure it is forwarded directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator without intermediate endorsements.

Question 24

The FDNY’s Anti-Hazing/Anti-Bullying policy prohibits employees from engaging or participating in, or encouraging others to engage or participate in, any act of hazing or bullying. Which of the following choices correctly describes this policy?
Select one:
a. The FDNY prohibits hazing/bullying of any of its employees by another employee while on-duty only.
b. Once informed or made aware of any such incident or allegation of hazing /bullying, all officers must report the incident through the chain of command and, where applicable, directly to EEO or BITS.
c. Actual or implied consent to acts of hazing/bullying is the only defense to a violation of this policy.
d. Hazing/Bullying is not limited to superior-subordinate relationships. It may occur among peers, but it does not involve actions by junior personnel to those more senior in rank.

Answer 24

B
(PAID 1-2013: 2.4, 3.1, 3.3)
The correct answer is: Once informed or made aware of any such incident or allegation of hazing /bullying, all officers must report the incident through the chain of command and, where applicable, directly to EEO or BITS.

Question 25

The ability to investigate reports and enforce this policy depends on the accuracy and specificity of the information provided. Which hazing/bullying reporting procedure below is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. Employees have the option to submit a report anonymously to BITs or EEO.
b. Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel, in writing, up the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.
c. Any report of hazing/bullying incident that would be considered a crime will be reported by the FDNY to the Department of Investigation.
d. Every officer and employee has the affirmative obligation to report directly and without delay to the Inspector General any and all information concerning conduct involving criminal activity.

Answer 25

B
(PAID 1-2013: 4.2, 4.4, 4.6)
The correct answer is: Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel, in writing, up the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.

Question 26

All postings on social media by department employees must comply with all laws and FDNY policies regarding the confidentiality of information. Accordingly, FDNY members will comply with which of the following procedures?
Select one:
a. Employees are always prohibited from revealing Department affiliations of other individuals (e.g., co-workers, supervisors).
b. Employees may never use the FDNY’s logo or name (e.g. FDNY) in any postings or feature the logo or name on any webpage (e.g., website/social media banner or profile photo).
c. FDNY personnel shall not post photographs of themselves in uniform, unless the uniform was worn during an event for which a uniform is required.
d. Members are not permitted to post photographs taken at official Department ceremonies (e.g., promotions, Medal Day etc.)

Answer 26

C
(PAID 2-2013: 5.2.2, 5.2.3, 5.2.5)
The correct answer is: FDNY personnel shall not post photographs of themselves in uniform, unless the uniform was worn during an event for which a uniform is required.

Question 27

Additional provisions of the social media are mentioned below. Which one is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Employees are prohibited from posting on the internet any information about, or photographs or videos of patients or fire scenes.
b. Members of the Department are prohibited from taking photographs, videotaping or recording audio while working unless authorized to do so by the Office of Public Information.
c. Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact with patients, fire victims or any members of the public with whom they interact in their capacity as FDNY employees.
d. Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact with minors with whom they interact in the course of their FDNY employment, unless specifically authorized by a Department Assistant Commissioner (or higher rank) or Deputy Chief (or higher rank).

Answer 27

A
PAID 2-2013: 5.2.6, 5.2.7, 5.2.8)
The correct answer is: Employees are prohibited from posting on the internet any information about, or photographs or videos of patients or fire scenes.

Question 28

After operating at a challenging taxpayer fire, members are gathered around the RAC unit discussing a turbulent explosion that took place several minutes into the operation. They are highlighting some of the key differences between a backdraft and a smoke explosion and make the following statements. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. In a backdraft the flammable products of combustion form a mixture with sufficient oxygen and are ignited either internally or externally which can result in a turbulent explosion (deflagration) of greater or lesser degree.
b. Generally, smoke explosions occur in proximity to the main body of fire.
c. Typically, a light smoke condition may be present in the compartment below the void space prior to a smoke explosion. No additional ventilation is needed to occur for a smoke explosion to occur.
d. Generally, backdrafts occur remote from the fire area.

Answer 28

C
(Ventilation: Glossary)
The correct answer is: Typically, a light smoke condition may be present in the compartment below the void space prior to a smoke explosion. No additional ventilation is needed to occur for a smoke explosion to occur.

Question 29

Successful ventilation tactics begin with the understanding of basic fire dynamics as well as how a ventilation tactic will impact the fire the fire’s behavior. Which statement below is correct regarding ventilation?
Select one:
a. The exchange of air is unidirectional when there is a single vent opening on the same level as the fire.
b. A bidirectional flow path is where hot gases from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (lower pressure) and an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.
c. When there are multiple ventilation openings, air will flow in towards the fire from one vent opening known as the inlet while heat, smoke and fire vent or exhaust from another vent opening known as the outlet, thus forming a bidirectional flow path.
d. As the fire grows and uses available oxygen in a single room compartment fire, the neutral plane moves higher in the doorway. The hot gases and smoke exhaust out above the neutral plane and fresh air is pulled into the fire compartment below the neutral plane.

Answer 29

B
(Ventilation: Glossary, 2.2, 2.3)
The correct answer is: A bidirectional flow path is where hot gases from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (lower pressure) and an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.

Question 30

In recent years, the fire service’s understanding of modern fire dynamics has changed dramatically. Some important fire dynamic concepts to understand regarding fire development are listed below. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. In modern content fires the initial rapid growth stage consumes oxygen very slowly.
b. The fire will enter into an earlier oxygen-enriched stage when compared to traditional fires.
c. If additional oxygen is admitted to the heated atmosphere through ventilation openings the fire regains its energy, increases its heat release rate and enters into a less rapid second growth stage.
d. The second growth stage may be followed by a ventilation induced flashover.

Answer 30

D
(Ventilation 2.4.6, Figure 2)
The correct answer is: The second growth stage may be followed by a ventilation induced flashover.

Question 31

A new concept introduced in the new ventilation bulletin is the “Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve” which differs from the “Modern Fire Behavior Curve” in the following ways. Which difference is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. The fire will behave in the same way up until the Early Decay stage.
b. If there is no additional oxygen admitted to the heated atmosphere, the fire will stay in an Elongated Decay stage where firefighters can effectively extinguish the fire by denying the fire additional oxygen, thereby limiting fire growth and smoke production.
c. This Elongated Decay stage is maintained by firefighters by coordinating ventilation with the charging of the attack line.
d. By controlling, communicating and coordinating the fire attack, ventilation will occur, increasing the fire growth momentarily, which will be followed by suppression and extinguishment.

Answer 31

C
(Ventilation 2.4.7)
The correct answer is: This Elongated Decay stage is maintained by firefighters by coordinating ventilation with the charging of the attack line.

Question 32

In addition to understanding the changes in fire dynamics, members must understand that there a several other contributing factors that affect ventilation tactics. Which factor mentioned below is correct?
Select one:
a. Units equipped with thermal imaging cameras must carry and use them at all structural fires.
b. The increased heat release rates of modern fires create more radiant heat along the flow path from the fire area. This is absorbed by members PPE at a faster rate than convective heat, putting members at greater risk of burns.
c. PPE was designed to allow members to go further into the fire area in order to protect members in the event that conditions quickly transitioned to an untenable situation.
d. Hydraulic forcible entry tools allow quicker access to the fire area resulting in a decrease in the time gap between the ladder company gaining access to the fire area and the extinguishment of the fire.

Answer 32

A
(Ventilation 3.1)
The correct answer is: Units equipped with thermal imaging cameras must carry and use them at all structural fires.

Question 33

Ladder 99 arrives first due at a fire in a 2 ½ story peaked roof private dwelling. On arrival, the officer of Ladder 99 begins his initial size-up which includes a ventilation profile of the fire conditions. He has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. If the smoke and fire are venting outwards and upwards this indicates the fire conditions may be wind impacted.
b. The absence of smoke pushing from the building is always a positive sign.
c. On arrival, a vented fire should not be considered a favorable condition.
d. The more that venting flames fill an open window, the more members can anticipate favorable interior conditions.

Answer 33

C
(Ventilation 4.1)
The correct answer is: On arrival, a vented fire should not be considered a favorable condition.

Question 34

Proper ventilation tactics can increase the survivability of trapped civilians and increase the safety of our members as they search for the fire and or victims by controlling flow paths. Which horizontal ventilation tactic mentioned below is correct?
Select one:
a. If the officer encounters a high heat and heavy smoke condition without a charged hose line, he/she should consider directing members to immediately exit the fire area.
b. All interior and exterior horizontal ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the first arriving ladder company officer.
c. Ventilation points that are in front of your operating position may place you in the flow path; control and limit flow paths until there is a charged hose line advancing within the fire area to extinguish the fire.
d. If the ladder company officer determines the fire has communicated to the floor above, limited ventilation is justifiable if it facilitates search operations, with the understanding of potentially pulling fire to that location.Q

Answer 34

A
(Ventilation 8.1, 8.1.1, 8.3.1)
The correct answer is: If the officer encounters a high heat and heavy smoke condition without a charged hose line, he/she should consider directing members to immediately exit the fire area.

Question 35

Lieutenant Jones is working her first night tour in a busy Brooklyn ladder company. She has gathered the members in the kitchen to discuss ventilation tactics in Old Law Tenements. Lieutenant Jones makes the following statements. Which one of them is correct?
Select one:
a. The change in fire dynamics of modern content fires requires only horizontal ventilation be controlled, communicated and coordinated with operations on the fire floor.
b. If the door to the fire area is open, before a charged hose line is available to extinguish the fire, roof ventilation will draw fire conditions up an out of the building.
c. The ladder company officer inside the fire area shall communicate with roof firefighter when roof ventilation is not to be taken.
d. The ladder company officer in the fire area shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point, paying particular attention to the smoke venting out.

Answer 35

C
(Ventilation 9, 10.1)
The correct answer is: The ladder company officer inside the fire area shall communicate with roof firefighter when roof ventilation is not to be taken.

Question 36

Probationary Firefighter Johnson is assigned the roof position in Ladder 100 for the first time. Five minutes after roll call, Ladder 100 is assigned first due to a phone alarm for a structural fire in a multiple dwelling. On arrival, fire is blowing out the front windows on the second floor of a 4 story old law tenement. Proby Johnson operates as follows. Which action is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When skylights are vented, members must recognize that this is non-reversible.
b. Vertical ventilation shall be performed unless the roof firefighter is ordered to delay or withhold vertical ventilation.
c. If vertical ventilation is delayed or withheld the bulkhead shall be forced open temporarily to check for trapped occupants.
d. After initial vertical ventilation is completed, perform additional ventilation as needed dependent on fire conditions. The ventilation of skylights over the main body of fire must only be performed after the fire has been extinguished.

Answer 36

D
(Ventilation 10.2)
The correct answer is: After initial vertical ventilation is completed, perform additional ventilation as needed dependent on fire conditions. The ventilation of skylights over the main body of fire must only be performed after the fire has been extinguished.

Question 37

Ventilation for extinguishment is the controlled and coordinated ventilation tactic which facilitates the engine company’s application of water on the seat of the fire. Which statement below describing this ventilation tactic is correct?
Select one:
a. This horizontal ventilation for extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate fire area (fire compartment) and only for the member venting the immediate fire area.
b. This ventilation tactic requires venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area while the engine company is advancing the hose line into the fire building.
c. Before venting the windows, the member must communicate and coordinate with the ladder company officer inside the fire area to be vented unless they hear the engine officer transmit “we have water on the main body of fire.”
d. Once a member is in position on the exterior, perform a size-up, communicate the ventilation profile and await permission to vent from the IC.

Answer 37

A
(Ventilation 11.2, 11.4)
The correct answer is: This horizontal ventilation for extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate fire area (fire compartment) and only for the member venting the immediate fire area.

Question 38

When a fire progresses past the incipient stage, the fire area is considered an IDLH atmosphere. Which one provision below is described correctly when operating in this environment?
Select one:
a. No member shall enter, leave or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the member teams-up with at least one other member and remains within handie-talkie contact with that member.
b. The only exception to this Federally mandated standard for the teaming of members is when a known or potential life hazard is found and the immediate action could prevent the loss of life.
c. At least one of the members must be able to contact a handie-talkie equipped member of the safety team outside of the IDLH atmosphere.
d. A known life hazard is only when the victim can be seen or heard by the rescuer.

Answer 38

C
(Ventilation 12.2, 12.3)
The correct answer is: At least one of the members must be able to contact a handie-talkie equipped member of the safety team outside of the IDLH atmosphere.

Question 39

Ladder 99 is operating as the first due ladder company at a fire on the 1st floor of a non-fireproof multiple dwelling. The ladder officer receives a report from her OV firefighter saying she’s preparing to VEIS for a known life hazard. In this situation, which tactic mentioned below is correct?
Select one:
a. The ladder officer may decide to disapprove the entry to search in order to limit any negative impact caused by the additional ventilation.
b. Once the decision is made to enter, the member must break the window to judge the ventilation profile before entering.
c. Upon completion of clearing the window, the member should immediately enter to perform their search.
d. After venting and entering, the priority action for the member is to conduct a primary search of the area.

Answer 39

A
(Ventilation 12.6)
The correct answer is: The ladder officer may decide to disapprove the entry to search in order to limit any negative impact caused by the additional ventilation.

Question 40

Ventilation procedures at high rise fireproof multiple dwellings (HRFPMD) differ from non-fireproof buildings. Which horizontal ventilation tactic mentioned below for HRFPMD is correct?
Select one:
a. Horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment is limited and controlled by the Incident Commander.
b. The Engine Officer may decide that the fire can best be extinguished without any horizontal exterior ventilation.
c. Horizontal ventilation for smoke removal is usually performed after the main body of fire has been controlled.
d. The second arriving ladder company officer will control all other forms of ventilation other than that of the fire apartment.

Answer 40

C
(Ventilation 14; 14.1)
The correct answer is: Horizontal ventilation for smoke removal is usually performed after the main body of fire has been controlled.

Question 41

Vertical ventilation at fireproof buildings is also an important concept to understand. Which vertical ventilation procedure below is correct for fireproof buildings?
Select one:
a. In a HRFPMD, when the roof is close to the fire floor, venting the stairwell will have little or no effect on smoke removal due to stack effect and decreased thermal lift.
b. Vertical ventilation at a HRFPMD must be coordinated through direct communication with the Engine and Ladder Company Officers operating in the fire sector or the area.
c. In HRFPMD’s, roof ventilation operations can dramatically affect the air flow (from low pressure areas to high pressure areas) inside the building.
d. In LRFPMD’s, roof ventilation is emphasized and conducted earlier in the operation; permission must be granted by the first arriving ladder company officer.

Answer 41

B
(Ventilation 14.2, 15)
The correct answer is: Vertical ventilation at a HRFPMD must be coordinated through direct communication with the Engine and Ladder Company Officers operating in the fire sector or the area.

Question 42

The digital in-line pressure gauge is a metering device that has been designed specifically for standpipe operations. Which feature of the gauge is described incorrectly?
Select one:
a. There is a built-in 45 degree elbow to ease use in wall cabinets.
b. The gauge may be pre-connected to a folded length of hose.
c. The blue LED readout indicates water flow in gallons per minute.
d. The gauge provides members with the ability to monitor water flow being delivered from the standpipe outlet to the nozzle team; the gauge does not regulate water flow.

Answer 42

B
(Tools 36: 1.1, 2.1, 3.1A)
The correct answer is: The gauge may be pre-connected to a folded length of hose.

Question 43

Engine 1 is operating first due at a fire on an upper floor of a HRFPMD. The control firefighter is utilizing the digital in-line pressure gauge at the standpipe outlet. Which operating procedure below is correct?
Select one:
a. When ordered to start water, open the standpipe control valve. Residual pressure will immediately be indicated in the top red LED digital readout.
b. If the gauge fails to display upon initial start-up, make another attempt to turn it on. If this attempt fails, the control firefighter shall inform the engine officer to withhold the attack until the condition can be corrected.
c. Suspect a burst length if the pressure reading is normal or higher and the flow is increased above normal.
d. With the nozzle open and water flowing the goal is to obtain approximately 70 PSI for a 3 length stretch or 80 PSI for a 4 length stretch with a flow of 225-250 GPM.

Answer 43

D
(Tools 36: 3.1)
The correct answer is: With the nozzle open and water flowing the goal is to obtain approximately 70 PSI for a 3 length stretch or 80 PSI for a 4 length stretch with a flow of 225-250 GPM.

Question 44

The pressure and flow alerts associated with the digital in-line pressure gauge are not a direct indication of an unsafe condition. HT communication with the officer may be needed to clarify the situation. Which number mentioned below is stated correctly in regards to the gauge?
Select one:
a. If there is no water flow for 15 minutes the digital display will power off automatically.
b. The blue digital readout will alternately flash a low flow alert of “LO-F” when water flow is less than 80 gpm.
c. The red digital readout will alternately flash a high pressure alert “HI-P” when pressure exceeds 250 psi.
d. The blue digital readout will alternately flash high flow alert “HI-F” when water flow exceeds 200 gpm.

Answer 44

B
(Tools 36: 4.1, 4.2)
The correct answer is: The blue digital readout will alternately flash a low flow alert of “LO-F” when water flow is less than 80 gpm.

Question 45

Batteries for the in-line gauge are easily changed by unscrewing the knurled battery cup, pulling out the existing battery and inserting a fully charged battery. Which additional point below is incorrect concerning the batteries for the gauge?
Select one:
a. The gauge is powered by a special 9v rechargeable lithium ion battery. No other 9v battery may be used in this equipment.
b. If a rapidly flashing “LO batt” is displayed, the battery shall be swapped with the replacement in the carrying case as soon as possible. This must not be done when water is flowing.
c. A fully charged battery will supply approximately 5 hours of continuous operation.
d. Batteries should be rotated and recharged weekly and after use.

Answer 45

B
(Tools 36: 5.1, 5.3, 5.6)
The correct answer is: If a rapidly flashing “LO batt” is displayed, the battery shall be swapped with the replacement in the carrying case as soon as possible. This must not be done when water is flowing.

Question 46

The floor jack has a maximum capacity of ____ pounds. The maximum height will be reached after ____ pumps.
Select one:
a. 2000; 5
b. 2000; 10
c. 4000; 5
d. 4000; 10

Answer 46

C
(Tools 37: 1.0)
The correct answer is: 4000; 5

Question 47

Floor jacks can be used for a variety of vehicle lift operations and tactics. Which operating instruction outlined below is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Close the release handle valve by turning the handle completely clockwise.
b. Pump the jack handle until the saddle touches the lifting point. Check the placement of the jack; the load must be centered on the jack saddle.
c. Pump the handle to the desired height to finish the lift. Do not attempt to raise the jack beyond its travel stops.
d. Place cribbing under the vehicle points that will provide a stable support. Quickly lower the vehicle onto the cribbing by turning the handle counterclockwise.

Answer 47

D
(Tools 37: 4.1, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5)
The correct answer is: Place cribbing under the vehicle points that will provide a stable support. Quickly lower the vehicle onto the cribbing by turning the handle counterclockwise.

Question 48

While utilizing the floor jack which one of the following safety precautions must be followed?
Select one:
a. Prevent the vehicle from shifting during the lifting process. Utilize chocks or cribbing and if the situation permits, set the parking brake but do not engage the transmission.
b. Use the floor jack when the vehicle is on a relatively flat, level surface. If the surface is not flat, consider other lifting devices.
c. Never use the floor jack on a rough or soft surface (grass, dirt, rocks, etc.).
d. During the lifting process, never get under the vehicle even if the vehicle has been cribbed.

Answer 48

B
(Tools 37: 5.1, 5.2, 5.4, 5.6)
The correct answer is: Use the floor jack when the vehicle is on a relatively flat, level surface. If the surface is not flat, consider other lifting devices.

Question 49

The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is an efficient, compact and easy to maneuver portable monitor. Several other features describing this tool are mentioned below. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The oscillation feature provides an automatic 20, 30 or 40 degree sweep, and can easily be overridden for manual operation.
b. This monitor offers a choice of a master stream fog nozzle or stacked smooth bore tips. Foam nozzles shall not be used with the Blitzfire.
c. The Blitzfire is designed for a maximum inlet pressure of 200 psi. Do not exceed this pressure.
d. The vertical stream range is 15 degrees below the horizontal to 90 degrees above the horizontal.

Answer 49

A
(Tools 38: 2.2, 2.3, 4.1, 4.4)
The correct answer is: The oscillation feature provides an automatic 20, 30 or 40 degree sweep, and can easily be overridden for manual operation.

Question 50

The Blitzfire has a flow control handle that can be used to control the flow of water and acts as a safety shut-off feature. Which statement below regarding the flow control handle is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The handle is shut-off when it is fully forward. The handle is fully open with maximum water flow (GPM) when it is pulled fully back towards the monitor’s inlet.
b. The handle can be opened to any of six detented flow positions. These detented positions allow the monitor operator to regulate the flow of water (GPM) depending on the need or what can be safely and effectively handled.
c. The flow control handle contains a safety shut-off valve. The safety shut-off valve will automatically shut off the monitor’s water flow if the monitor starts to move forward or backward.
d. Once the safety shut-off valve is tripped, the flow control handle will automatically move to the fully closed position.

Answer 50

C
(Tools 38: 5.2, 5.3, 5.5, 5.6)
The correct answer is: The flow control handle contains a safety shut-off valve. The safety shut-off valve will automatically shut off the monitor’s water flow if the monitor starts to move sideways

Question 51

Members must be familiar with the operation and limitations of the Blitzfire Monitor. Which comment below describing this monitor is correct?
Select one:
a. The oscillating feature can only be used with the master stream fog nozzle. Do not use this feature with the stacked smooth bore tips.
b. A minimum flow rate of 175 gpm is required for proper oscillating operation.
c. The supply inlet of the Blitzfire monitor is 2 ½” and it should be supplied with two 2 ½” supply lines.
d. The Blitzfire monitor is provided with a 2 ½” dual pressure automatic fog nozzle. It can also be operated with solid stream stacked tips (1 ¼”, 1 ½” and 2” tips only).

Answer 51

B
(Tools 38: 6.3, 6.4, 7.1, 7.2)
The correct answer is: A minimum flow rate of 175 gpm is required for proper oscillating operation.

Question 52

The Blitzfire monitor may be operated with the Max-Force Dual Pressure Automatic Nozzle. Which statement below regarding this nozzle is incorrect?
Select one:
a. This nozzle has a maximum flow capacity of 500 gpm when supplied with 175 psi at the inlet.
b. The pattern adjusts from the straight stream position (rotate the tip all the way to the right) to a 130 degree fog as you rotate the tip back to the left.
c. The fog tip may be switched between 100 psi standard mode and a low pressure mode of 55 psi by twisting the knob on the front of the nozzle.
d. The pressure mode only affects the RPM’s of the supplying engine, it does not affect the gpm.

Answer 52

B
(Tools 38: 7.4)
The correct answer is: The pattern adjusts from the straight stream position (rotate the tip all the way to the right) to a 130 degree fog as you rotate the tip back to the left.

Question 53

The Blitzfire monitor may also be used with solid stream tips. When utilizing these tips, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The Blitzfire monitor is manufactured with an integrated stream shaper.
b. No other stream shaper should be attached to the solid stream tip.
c. The 1 ¼” solid stream tip will flow approximately 490 gpm when supplied with 175 psi at the monitor’s inlet.
d. The 1 ½” solid stream tip will flow approximately 600 gpm when supplied with 175 psi at the monitors inlet.

Answer 53

B
(Tools 38: 7.5)
The correct answer is: No other stream shaper should be attached to the solid stream tip.

Question 54

The Beluga Glass Cutting Knife is designed to cut laminated safety glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass. Which point outlined below is correct regarding this tool?
Select one:
a. All 2018 and newer automobiles and trucks are required to have laminated safety glass installed throughout the vehicle, not just the windshield.
b. The connected drill and Beluga cutting head does not swivel. The user must remove and restart the cut to reposition the cutting head or drill battery.
c. The blade reciprocates under the glass, crushing it while pushing the bulk of the debris into the vehicle compartment.
d. Whichever drill speed you select, the tool must be pushed slowly to cut properly.

Answer 54

A
(Tools 39: 2.3, 3.2, 3.4, 3.9)
The correct answer is: All 2018 and newer automobiles and trucks are required to have laminated safety glass installed throughout the vehicle, not just the windshield.

Question 55

Lt Jones is working a day tour when she receives a complaint for an accumulation of rubbish near the emergency exit of a theater in her administrative area. Which action below should Lt Jones take?
Select one:
a. Cause a prompt inspection to determine the actual condition.
b. Telephone the BISP unit.
c. Telephone the administrative Battalion Chief.
d. Telephone the administrative Deputy Chief.

Answer 55

C
(AUC 5 Ch 3 Add 6 1.3)
The correct answer is: Telephone the administrative Battalion Chief.

Question 56

When receiving a complaint for conditions involving possible violations of law at other than places of public assembly, the company officer must follow certain procedures. Which procedures described below is correct? (more than one correct)
Select one or more:
a. Complaints shall be investigated promptly, but must be investigated during the tour it was received.
b. Units receiving such complaints must make a diligent attempt to complete the inspection and each attempt should be recorded on the A-17.
c. The officer shall fax an unendorsed copy of the A-17 (FINAL or INTERIM) to the BISP Unit immediately after conducting an investigation.
d. If access in not granted after the investigation, the INTERIM REPORT box in the upper right corner shall be marked.
e. INTERIM and FINAL REPORTS shall be emailed through the chain of command.
f. At least one attempt per day shall be made to complete the investigation within 72 hours, if completed a FINAL REPORT is sent.
g. If the investigation cannot be completed after the 72-hour time limit, the officer shall forward a FINAL REPORT.

Answer 56

B,C,D,F
AUC 5 Ch 3 Add 6: 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5)
The correct answers are: Units receiving such complaints must make a diligent attempt to complete the inspection and each attempt should be recorded on the A-17., The officer shall fax an unendorsed copy of the A-17 (FINAL or INTERIM) to the BISP Unit immediately after conducting an investigation., If access in not granted after the investigation, the INTERIM REPORT box in the upper right corner shall be marked., At least one attempt per day shall be made to complete the investigation within 72 hours, if completed a FINAL REPORT is sent.

Question 57

When operating on the 15th floor, which of the following residential fire emergency markings is incorrect?
Select one:
a. A two floor dwelling unit from 15A to 16A, with the main entrance at 15A:
★
1
5
A
↑
16A
b. A sandwich apartment in 15A with no living space on the entrance floor:
1
5
A
↑
c. A two floor dwelling unit with only one entrance at 15A:
1
5
A
↑
d. A three floor dwelling unit from 14A to 15A to 16A with the main entrance at 14A:

▲
1
5
A
16
↑↓
14

Answer 57

A
(AUC 5 Ch 3 Add 7)
The correct answer is: A two floor dwelling unit from 15A to 16A, with the main entrance at 15A:
★
1
5
A
↑
16A

Question 58

When a company officer completes an immediate CIDS entry for an imminently hazardous condition, which one of the following steps is correct?
Select one:
a. Fax a copy of the CD-201 through the chain of command to the Division.
b. An immediate entry of an imminently hazardous condition can be accomplished with the approval of the administrative Battalion Chief.
c. After submitting the CIDS entry, the company officer must phone and email the administrative BC to inform the chief of the pending immediate CIDS.
d. An immediate CIDS entry will always appear at the top of a units pending list and be in bold print.

Answer 58

D
(Communication Ch 4: 4.3.3)
The correct answer is: An immediate CIDS entry will always appear at the top of a units pending list and be in bold print.

Question 59

When an Engine Company responds to a Class E alarm activation at a high-rise office building in Manhattan which of the one of the following actions is correct?
Select one:
a. All members, except the chauffeur, enter the building with their PPE, rollups and the standpipe kit.
b. The officer shall make contact with building personnel; inquire as to the alarm source and direct building personnel to reset the alarm system.
c. If the alarm system does reset, the company officer can take up immediately and shall transmit the appropriate signal to the dispatcher.
d. If the alarm does not reset, and upon investigation there are indications of smoke and heat, the engine company must return to lobby and must remain there until the arrival of the ladder company under all circumstances.

Answer 59

B
(Communication 6 Addendum 2: 3.3, 3.4, 3.7)
The correct answer is: The officer shall make contact with building personnel; inquire as to the alarm source and direct building personnel to reset the alarm system.

Question 60

During operations, when there are indications that the Tower Ladder bucket has become stuck or wedged, which one of the following precautions shall be implemented?
Select one:
a. Members must be secured to a substantial part of the bucket using their personal harness only.
b. Notify the IC via an “urgent” transmission after depressing the EAB.
c. Stand in the center of the bucket in anticipation of possible sudden, violent movements.
d. P.T.O should be disengaged and the apparatus shut down.

Answer 60

B
(Tower Ladder Ch 3: 3.6)
The correct answer is: Notify the IC via an “urgent” transmission after depressing the EAB.

Question 61

Which of the following provisions regarding bereavement leave is correct?
Select one:
a. Bereavement leave may not be less than 4 calendar days.
b. A firefighter receiving death notification while on duty will only be excused with permission of the administrative Deputy Chief.
c. Bereavement leave will begin at 0900 hours following the time the member was notified of death.
d. Bereavement leave will not be granted for the death of a member’s domestic partner.

Answer 61

A
(PA/ID 4-89: 1.2, 2.5, 2.6, 2.7)
The correct answer is: Bereavement leave may not be less than 4 calendar days.

Question 62

Which of the following conditions is indicative of a major gas emergency?
Select one:
a. 1% LEL detected at two manholes.
b. Minor damage to a major component of the gas infrastructure.
c. A minimum of 20% LEL or greater detected outside.
d. 10% LEL or greater detected in an unvented subsurface structure.

Answer 62

A
(Natural Gas 5.0)
The correct answer is: 1% LEL detected at two manholes.

Question 63

When units encounter an air pressurized standpipe system which one statement below is correct?
Select one:
a. Units must deactivate the air compressor prior to releasing the air.
b. The control firefighter, after reaching the floor outlet where the hoseline connection will be made, should remove the cap, open the standpipe outlet control valve, and wait for water to reach this point. This will expedite air removal from the system.
c. To use an air pressurized standpipe system at a fire operation the air pressure should be released from the system after uncapping the siamese and supplying it with water, if possible.
d. The number of air release valves is required to be such that air pressure shall be released in no more than 2 minutes.

Answer 63

B
(Engine Operations Ch 9 Addendum 2: 2.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.8)
The correct answer is: The control firefighter, after reaching the floor outlet where the hoseline connection will be made, should remove the cap, open the standpipe outlet control valve, and wait for water to reach this point. This will expedite air removal from the system.

Question 64

When conducting rapid evacuation at the scene of a detonated explosive device, which patients will be taken directly from the triage transfer point to the transportation sector if possible?
Select one:
a. Black and red tags only.
b. Red and orange tags only.
c. Red tags only.
d. Red and yellow tags only.

Answer 64

C
(ERP Addendum 3 5.3)
The correct answer is: Red tags only.

Question 65

The officer Engine 300 is discussing foam handline operations with his members. He makes the following statements. Which one is correct?
Select one:
a. The eductor is to be operated at the pumper outlet only and is not to be operated in-line.
b. When stretching, not more than 6 lengths of 1 ¾” or 10 lengths of 2 ½” are to be used off the eductor. Theses stretches may be combined if needed.
c. When foam is called for, the ECC supplies the foam line with 125 PSI.
d. When the foam nozzle is operated in the seated position an aerated foam blanket is produced. When the foam nozzle is used in the in the extended position a foam blanket is produced.

Answer 65

A
(Training Bulletin Foam Addendum 3: 2.1)
The correct answer is: The eductor is to be operated at the pumper outlet only and is not to be operated in-line.

Question 66

At the scene of a vehicle accident, when it’s necessary to operate across the center divider of a highway which one provision below is stated correctly?
Select one:
a. Traffic shall be stopped only on the side of the highway where the accident occurred.
b. When a safe crossing corridor is established this shall be the only means of access and egress utilized at this incident unless otherwise directed by the incident commander.
c. If a safe crossing corridor cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation unless a life hazard exists.
d. When a hazardous separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of the separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with the highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of a letterhead report to the Chief of Department.

Answer 66

B
(Training Bulletin Fires 8: 9.1)
The correct answer is: When a safe crossing corridor is established this shall be the only means of access and egress utilized at this incident unless otherwise directed by the incident commander.

Question 67

Which of the following statements concerning the Pak-Tracker is correct?
Select one:
a. The maximum range from the SCBA’s transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 950 feet line of sight.
b. The Pak-tracker is suitable for use in a potentially flammable of explosive atmospheres.
c. The Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at time.
d. When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full-alarm for 5 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA’s identity (unit and member assignment) and relative signal strength.

Answer 67

C
(Training Bulletin Addendum 8: 2.1, 3.1, 5.4, 5.2)
The correct answer is: The Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at time.

Question 68

Which of the following scenarios would be considered an apparatus incident as opposed to an apparatus collision for the apparatus being struck?
Select one:
a. The apparatus is struck by a civilian vehicle.
b. The apparatus is struck by a pedestrian.
c. The apparatus is struck by a bicyclist.
d. A properly parked apparatus is struck by another apparatus.

Answer 68

D
(Safety Bulletin 56: 4.2, 4.4)
The correct answer is: A properly parked apparatus is struck by another apparatus.